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• How to :update after :success with link_to_remote Rails method?

  - by Kevin

  Hi, I'm trying to get two things done after a user clicks on a link: Delete a div Add another element at the bottom of the page I played with Rails link_to_remote and what I get with the code below is that the element is added before the div is deleted: <%= link_to_remote "&#x2713;", :url => { :controller => :movies, :action => :mark_as_seen, :movie => movie, :render => 'movie' }, :success => "Effect.Fade('movie_#{movie.id}_wrapper', { duration: 0.4 })", :update => "movies", :position => "bottom", :failure => "alert('Ooops! An error occurred.')" %> I tried to put :update and :position in a :complete callback, but nothing happened. And when I put both of them in the :success callback (after Effect.Fade), all I get is a parsing error. Any idea? Thanks, Kevin

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• asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

  - by Eyla

  I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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• SQLAlchemy: who is in charge of the "session"? ( and how to unit-test with sessions )

  - by Nick Perkins

  I need some guidance on how to use session objects with SQLAlchemy, and how to organize Unit Tests of my mapped objects. What I would like to able to do is something like this: thing = BigThing() # mapped object child = thing.new_child() # create and return a related object thing.save() # will also save the child object In order to achieve this, I was thinking of having the BigThing actually add itself ( and it's children ) to the database -- but maybe this not a good idea? One reason to add objects as soon as possible is Automatic id values that are assigned by the database -- the sooner they are available, the fewer problems there are ( right? ) What is the best way to manage session objects? Who is in charge of the session? Should it be created only when required? or saved for a long time? What about Unit Tests for my mapped objects?...how should the session be handled? Is it ever OK to have mapped objects just automatically add themselves to a database? or is that going to lead to trouble?

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• UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

  - by user1461135

  I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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• NetBeans Platform - how to refresh the property sheet view of a node?

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I am using the PropertySheetView component to visualize and edit the properties of a node. This view should always reflect the most recent properties of the object; if there is a change to the object in another process, I want to somehow refresh the view and see the updated properties. The best way I was able to do this is something like the following (making use of EventBus library to publish and subscribe to changes in objects): public DomainObjectWrapperNode(DomainObject obj) { super (Children.LEAF, Lookups.singleton(obj)); EventBus.subscribe(DomainObject.class, this); } public void onEvent(DomainObject event) { // Do a check to determine if the updated object is the one wrapped by this node; // if so fire a property sets change firePropertySetsChange(null, this.getPropertySets()); } This works, but my place in the scrollpane is lost when the sheet refreshes; it resets the view to the top of the list and I have to scroll back down to where I was before the refresh action. So my question is, is there a better way to refresh the property sheet view of a node, specifically so my place in the property list is not lost upon refresh?

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• Get more error information from unhandled error

  - by Andrew Simpson

  I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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• XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

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• Convenient way to do "wrong way rebase" in git?

  - by Kaz

  I want to pull in newer commits from master into topic, but not in such a way that topic changes are replayed over top of master, but rather vice versa. I want the new changes from master to be played on top of topic, and the result to be installed as the new topic head. I can get exactly the right object if I rebase master to topic, the only problem being that the object is installed as the new head of master rather than topic. Is there some nice way to do this without manually shuffling around temporary head pointers? Edit: Here is how it can be achieved using a temporary branch head, but it's clumsy: git checkout master git checkout -b temp # temp points to master git rebase topic # topic is brought into temp, temp changes played on top Now we have the object we want, and it's pointed at by temp. git checkout topic git reset --hard temp Now topic has it; and all that is left is to tidy up by deleting temp: git branch -d temp Another way is to to do away with temp and just rebase master, and then reset topic to master. Finally, reset master back to what it was by pulling its old head from the reflog, or a cut-and-paste buffer.

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• methods of metaclasses on class instances.

  - by Stefano Borini

  I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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• Null reference exceptions in .net

  - by Carlo

  Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

  - by Shimrod

  Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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• Stack Overflow problem transforming with a custom xslt

  - by Flynn1179

  I've got a system that allows the user the option of providing their own XSLT to apply to some data that's been retrieved, as a means of specifying how that data should be presented. However, if the user includes code in the XSLT equivalent to: <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:element name="data"> <xsl:apply-templates select="." /> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> this causes .NET to infinitely recurse trying to process it, and produces a stack overflow error. I need to be able to trap this before it crashes the app, as the data that's been retrieved is occasionally quite time-consuming to obtain, and the data is lost when this happens. Is there any way of doing this? I know it's theoretically possible to identify any occurrences of xsl:apply-templates with "." in the select attribute, but this isn't the only way an infinite recursion could happen, I need a way of generically trapping it.

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• Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

  - by Magnar

  Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

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• Powershell - Using variables in -Include filter

  - by TheD

  (again!) My final question for the night. I have a function which uses the Get-ChildItem to work out the newest file within a folder. The reason being I need to find the latest incremental backup in a folder and script an EXE to mount it. However, within this same folder there are multiple backup chains for all different servers: i.e. SERVER1_C_VOL_b001_i015.spi SERVER2_D_VOL_b001_i189.spi SERVER1_C_VOL_b002_i091.spi SERVER1_E_VOL_b002_i891.spi (this is the newest file created) I want only to look at SERVER1, look at only the C_VOL and look at only b001 - nothing else. I have all these seperate components: the drive letter, the Server Name, the b00X number stored in array. How then can I go and use the Get-ChildItem with the -Include filter to only look at: .spi SERVER1 C_VOL b001 Given I have all of these separate components in an array taken from a text file: Get-Content .\PostBackupCheck-TextFile.txt | Select-Object -First $i { $a = $_ -split ' ' ; $locationArray += "$($a[0]):\$($a[1])\$($a[2])" ; $imageArray += "$($a[2])_$($a[3])_VOL_b00$($a[4])_i$($a[5]).spi" } I then go onto try and filter then and then get stuck: $latestIncremental = Get-ChildItem -Path ${shadowProtectDataLocation}\*.* -Include *.spi | Sort-Object LastAccessTime -Descending | Select-Object -First 1 I have the .spi filtered, but how can I also just include the C (for volume), the number for the b00x and the server name. Thanks!

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• __toString magic and type coercion

  - by TomcatExodus

  I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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• Optimizing a bin-placement algorithm

  - by user258651

  Alright, I've got two collections, and I need to place elements from collection1 into the bins (elements) of collection2, based on whether their value falls within a given bin's range. For a concrete example, assume I have a sorted collection objects (bins) which have an int range ([1...4], [5..10], etc). I need to determine the range an int falls in, and place it in the appropriate bin. foreach(element n in collection1) { foreach(bin m in collection2) { if (m.inRange(n)) { m.add(n); break; } } } So the obvious NxM complexity algorithm is there, but I really would like to see Nxlog(M). To do this I'd like to use BinarySearch in place of the inner foreach loop. To use BinarySearch, I need to implement an IComparer class to do the searching for me. The problem I'm running into is this approach would require me to make an IComparer.Compare function that compares two different types of objects (an element to its bin), and that doesn't seem possible or correct. So I'm asking, how should I write this algorithm?

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• Extracting function declarations from a PHP file

  - by byronh

  I'm looking to create an on-site API reference for my framework and application. Basically, say I have a class file model.class.php: class Model extends Object { ... code here ... // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10) { ... more code here ... } } and I want to be able to generate a reference that my developers can refer to quickly in order to know which functions are available to be called. They only need to see the comments directly above each function and the declaration line. Something like this (similar to a C++ header file): // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10); I've done some research and this answer looked pretty good (using Reflection classes), however, I'm not sure how I can keep the comments in. Any ideas? EDIT: Sorry, but I want to keep the current comment formatting. Myself and the people who are working on the code hate the verbosity associated with PHPDocumentor. Not to mention a comment-rewrite of the entire project would take years, so I want to preserve just the // comments in plaintext.

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• systematizing error codes for a web app in php?

  - by user151841

  I'm working on a class-based php web app. I have some places where objects are interacting, and I have certain situations where I'm using error codes to communicate to the end user -- typically when form values are missing or invalid. These are situations where exceptions are unwarranted ( and I'm not sure I could avoid the situations with exceptions anyways). In one object, I have some 20 code numbers, each of which correspond to a user-facing message, and a admin/developer-facing message, so both parties know what's going on. Now that I've worked over the code several times, I find that it's difficult to quickly figure out what code numbers in the series I've already used, so I accidentally create conflicting code numbers. For instance, I just did that today with 12, 13, 14 and 15. How can I better organize this so I don't create conflicting error codes? Should I create one singleton class, errorCodes, that has a master list of all error codes for all classes, systematizing them across the whole web app? Or should each object have its own set of error codes, when appropriate, and I just keep a list in the commentary of the object, to use and update that as I go along?

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• How do I toggle CSS with jQuery?

  - by marcamillion

  I have the following code: $('#bc' + $.trim($this) + ' span.dashed-circle').css({ 'border' : '5px solid #000'}); That is triggered by a click.function(). I would like that to be a toggle - so when I click the element, it changes the border to what I have above...but when it is clicked again it disappears or rather sets the border to ' '. Thoughts? Edit: I should have been explicit...but I don't want to create a CSS class. The reason being is because when I do that, it messes up the formatting of the element being styled. I am sure that it is some small quirk somewhere that would fix it, but I am not interested in wading through the entire code base to fix little positioning issues with a new class. I would much rather just edit the css attribute directly - because it doesn't interfere with the layout. Edit2: Here is the jsfiddle of the code I am trying to edit. If you notice, I have the CSS attributes last. But how do I let that be toggled ? Edit3: If anyone is interested...the UI that this will be used in is for my webapp - http://www.compversions.com

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• Jquery click event propagation

  - by ozsenegal

  I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

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• How operator oveloading works

  - by Rasmi Ranjan Nayak

  I have below code class rectangle { ..... .....//Some code int operator+(rectangle r1) { return(r1.length+length); } }; In main fun. int main() { rectangle r1(10,20); rectangle r2(40,60); rectangle r3(30,60); int len = r1+r3; } Here if we will see in operator+(), we are doing r1.length + length. How the compiler comes to know that the 2nd length in return statement belong to object r3 not to r1 or r2? I think answer may be in main() we have writeen int len = r1+r3; If that is the case then why do we need to write in operator+(....) { r1.lenth + lenth; //Why not length + length? } Why not length + length? Bcause compiler already knows from main() that the first length belong to object r1 and 2nd to object r3.

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• ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

  - by aspCoolguy

  My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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• How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

  - by Ned Batchelder

  Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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• Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

  - by Jason

  I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

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• Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

  - by GuruC

  We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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