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  • validation before ajax form submission

    - by ZX12R
    How do i introduce validation before remote_form_for submits? I have javascript function called validateForm(). I am able to call it before the AJAX request process. I tried to use return false and event.preventDefault. But there seems to be no effect. Here is what my code looks like <% remote_form_for :customer, :update =>"uxScreenLoaderDiv", :url => {:action => "login", :controller => "site"}, :html => {:id => "uxLoginForm"}, :onsubmit => "validateForm(event)" do |f| %> User name : <%= f.text_field "uxUserName", :class => "TextBox", :style => "width:100px;" %>&nbsp;* &nbsp;Password : <%= f.password_field "uxPassword", :class => "TextBox", :style => "width:100px;" %>&nbsp;* <%= f.submit "Go!", :class => "Button-Simple", :id => "uxSubmitButton" %> <% end %> the javascript function is simple as follows function validateForm(event){ return false; //event.preventDefault(); }

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  • Accessing my own datalayer using RIA & Silverlight

    - by Norsten
    Is it possible for me to connect to my own data provide via WCF RIA services? I've created a small datalayer that connnects to DynamicAX datasource. I would like to use Silverlight 4 & RIA service to access that datalayer. At it's most basic -I've done the following... 1) I've added an empty domainclass to the webproject and in that class I created a simple method to return a string... [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProjectService : DomainService { public string TestViaRIA() { return "Hello!"; } } 2) I then added reference to the web project in my silvelight class and created a bit of code to try and invoke the method... using ProjectApp.Web; namespace ProjectApp.Views { public partial class ProjectControl : UserControl { public ProjectControl() { InitializeComponent(); ProjectContext ctx = new ProjectContext(); var x = ctx.TestViaRIA(); testTextBox.Text = x.ToString(); } } } the returned value is "{System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.InvokeOperation}". I'm obviously doing something wrong here and I would appreciate some guidance on how I can achive this. Thanks in advance

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  • How to call windows form from native cpp

    - by Jenuel
    I have an existing project using c/c++ .NET. Currently I have been given a task to create a windows form from my existing code. So i have add new project windows form application in the existing c/c++ projects.form.h, form.cpp has been automatically created. Now I am having problem to call the window from my c files. Even i could not call the form.h file from my c program. Is there any solution for this problem. Listed here is the coding.... login.c int LoginMain(int id,int task) { LoginClear(); LoginEntry(id,task); dp_in = 1; Rep(); //I WOULD LIKE TO CALL THE FORM AT THIS STAGE Cashier(); dp_in = 0; Login(); return(0); } form.cpp [STAThreadAttribute] int main(array ^args) { // Enabling Windows XP visual effects before any controls are created Application::EnableVisualStyles(); Application::SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); // Create the main window and run it Application::Run(gcnew Form1()); return 0; }

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  • Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

    - by Ed Marty
    With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

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  • How to check if a child-object is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if a child-object of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithPhoto(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.UserPhoto); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithPhoto(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.UserPhoto.ToString()); Debug.WriteLine(member2.UserPhoto.ToString()); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member1.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Debug.WriteLine((member2.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member2.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Is it possible?

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • PHP/mysqli: Inserting IP address with mysqli_stmt_bind_param()

    - by invarbrass
    Hello! I have a database table which contains an unsigned integer field to store the visitor's IP address: `user_ip` INT(10) UNSIGNED DEFAULT NULL, Here's the snippet of PHP code which tries to store the IP address: $ipaddr = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; if ($stmt = mysqli_prepare($dbconn, 'INSERT INTO visitors(user_email, user_ip) VALUES (?,?)')) { $remote_ip = "INET_ATON('$ipaddr')"; mysqli_stmt_bind_param($stmt, 'ss', $email, $remote_ip); if (mysqli_stmt_execute($stmt) === FALSE) return FALSE; $rows_affected = mysqli_stmt_affected_rows($stmt); mysqli_stmt_close($stmt); } The INSERT operation succeeds, however the user_ip field contains a null value. I have also tried changing the parameter type in mysqli_stmt_bind_param() (which was set to string in the above example) to integer, i.e. mysqli_bind_param(... 'si',...) - but to no avail. I've also tried using the following bit of code instead of mysql's INET_ATON() SQL function: function IP_ATON($ipaddr) { $trio = intval(substr($ipaddr,0,3)); return ($trio>127) ? ((ip2long($ipaddr) & 0x7FFFFFFF) + 0x80000000) : ip2long($ipaddr); } It still doesn't work - the 'user_ip' field is still set to null. I've tried passing the $ip_addr variable as both integer & string in mysqli_bind_param() - to no avail. It seems the problem lies with the parameterized insert. The following "old-style" code works without any problem: mysqli_query(..., "INSERT INTO visitors(user_email, user_ip) VALUES ('$email',INET_ATON('$ipaddr'))"); What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance!

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • problem in variables in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hi, I don't understand why I'm not getting the message as "username already exits" if type the username which is already in database. If the username in a server, then it is returning the value as "1" otherwise empty, and despite of successfully getting the value from the server based on username is present or not, and assigning the value to variable "x", I'm unable to get message when I pass already exist username. May I know? $(document).ready(pageInit); function pageInit() { $('#1').bind('blur',go); } function go() { var value = $('#1').val(); var x = 0; $.post('just.do',{username:value},function(data){ x = data; } ); if(x) { $('#para').show(); $('#para').html("Username already exits"); return false; } else { $('#para').hide(); return true; } }; EDIT: This is what I'm doing in post request in servlets: String user1 = request.getParameter("username"); if(user != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\""+user+"\""; b = db.doExecuteQuery(stmt,query); if(b) { out.write("1"); } }

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  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Running Boggle Solver takes over an hour to run. What is wrong with my code?

    - by user1872912
    So I am running a Boggle Solver in java on the NetBeans IDE. When I run it, i have to quit after 10 minutes or so because it will end up taking about 2 hour to run completely. Is there something wrong with my code or a way that will make is substantially faster? public void findWords(String word, int iLoc, int jLoc, ArrayList<JLabel> labelsUsed){ if(iLoc < 0 || iLoc >= 4 || jLoc < 0 || jLoc >= 4){ return; } if(labelsUsed.contains(jLabels[iLoc][jLoc])){ return; } word += jLabels[iLoc][jLoc].getText(); labelsUsed.add(jLabels[iLoc][jLoc]); if(word.length() >= 3 && wordsPossible.contains(word)){ wordsMade.add(word); } findWords(word, iLoc-1, jLoc, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc+1, jLoc, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc, jLoc-1, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc, jLoc+1, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc-1, jLoc+1, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc-1, jLoc-1, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc+1, jLoc-1, labelsUsed); findWords(word, iLoc+1, jLoc+1, labelsUsed); labelsUsed.remove(jLabels[iLoc][jLoc]); } here is where I call this method from: public void findWords(){ ArrayList <JLabel> labelsUsed = new ArrayList<JLabel>(); for(int i=0; i<jLabels.length; i++){ for(int j=0; j<jLabels[i].length; j++){ findWords(jLabels[i][j].getText(), i, j, labelsUsed); //System.out.println("Done"); } } } edit: BTW I am using a GUI and the letters on the board are displayed by using a JLabel.

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  • initWithCoder not working as expected?

    - by fuzzygoat
    Does this seem right, the dataFilePath is on disk and contains the right data, but the MSMutable array does not contain any objects after the initWithCoder? I am probably just missing something, but I wanted to quickly check here before moving on. -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)decoder { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self setReactorCore:[decoder decodeObjectForKey:@"CORE"]]; } return self; } . -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:[self dataFilePath]]) { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self dataFilePath]]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unArchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; NSMutableArray *newCore = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCoder:unArchiver]; [self setReactorCore:newCore]; [newCore release]; [data release]; [unArchiver release]; } else { NSMutableArray *newCore = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [self setReactorCore:newCore]; [newCore release]; } } return self; } gary

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  • Using boost::iterator_adaptor

    - by Neil G
    I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: class iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal >

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  • Firing PropertyChanged event in a complex, nested type in WPF

    - by John
    Hey I have a question about the PropertyChanged vent firing in WPF whne it is used in a complex type. I have a class called DataStore and a list of Departments (an ObservableCollection), and each department again has a list of Products. Properties in the Product class that are changed also affect properties in the Department and DataStore class. How does each Product notify the Department it belongs to, and the DataStore (which is the mother class of all) that one or more of its properties have changed their values? Example: a product has a property NumberSoldToday and is bound. The Department has a property called TotalNumberOfProductsSold: public int TotalNumberOfProductsSold { get { int result = 0; foreach(Product p in this.products) result += p.NumberSoldToday; return result; } } And the data store has a property TotalProductsSold (for all departments): public int TotalProductsSold { get { int result = 0; foreach(Product p in this.deparments) result += p.TotalNumberOfProductsSold; return result; } } If all these properties are bound, and the innermost property changes, it must somehow notify that the value of the other 2 changed as well. How? The only way I can see this happening is to hook up the PropertyChanged event in each class. Th event must also fire when deleting, adding to the collection of products and deparments, respectively. Is there a better, more clever way to do this?

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  • How to make simple dicitonary J2ME

    - by batosai_fk
    Hi, I am beginner in JavaME. I'd like to make simple dicitionary. The source data is placed on "data.txt" file in "res" directory. The structure is like this: #apple=kind of fruit; #spinach=kind of vegetable; The flow is so simple. User enters word that he want to search in a text field, e.g "apple", system take the user input, read the "data.txt", search the matched word in it, take corresponding word, and display it to another textfield/textbox. I've managed to read whole "data.txt" using this code.. private String readDataText() { InputStream is = getClass().getResourceAsStream("data.txt"); try { StringBuffer sb = new StringBuffer(); int chr, i=0; while ((chr = is.read()) != -1) sb.append((char) chr); return sb.toString(); } catch (Exception e) { } return null; } but I still dont know how to split it, find the matched word with the user input and take corresponding word. Hope somebody willing to share his/her knowledge to help me.. Add to batosai_fk's Reputation

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  • Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

    - by gmallett
    I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

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  • ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant.

    - by Water Cooler v2
    What does the statement mean? From here ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant. 1) Does it mean that the following can not be done. public class SomeClass<R, A>: IVariant<R, A> { public virtual R DoSomething( ref A args ) { return null; } } 2) Or does it mean I cannot have the following. public delegate R Reader<out R, in A>(A arg, string s); public static void AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref Reader<object, Peon> pReader) { pReader = ReadFromPeon; } static object ReadFromPeon(Peon p, string propertyName) { return p.GetType().GetField(propertyName).GetValue(p); } static Reader<object, Peon> pReader; static void Main(string[] args) { AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref pReader); bCanReadWrite = (bool)pReader(peon, "CanReadWrite"); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } I tried (2) and it worked.

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

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  • How to call a method in another class using the arraylist index in java?

    - by Puchatek
    Currently I have two classes. A Classroom class and a School class. public void addTeacherToClassRoom(Classroom myClassRoom, String TeacherName) I would like my method addTeacherToClassRoom to use the Classroom Arraylist index number to setTeacherName e.g. int 0 = maths int 1 = science I would like to setTeacherName "Daniel" in int 1 science. many, thanks public class Classroom { private String classRoomName; private String teacherName; public void setClassRoomName(String newClassRoomName) { classRoomName = newClassRoomName; } public String returnClassRoomName() { return classRoomName; } public void setTeacherName(String newTeacherName) { teacherName = newTeacherName; } public String returnTeacherName() { return teacherName; } } import java.util.ArrayList; public class School { private ArrayList<Classroom> classrooms; private String classRoomName; private String teacherName; public School() { classrooms = new ArrayList<Classroom>(); } public void addClassRoom(Classroom newClassRoom, String theClassRoomName) { classrooms.add(newClassRoom); classRoomName = theClassRoomName; } public void addTeacherToClassRoom(Classroom myClassRoom, String TeacherName) { myClassRoom.setTeacherName(TeacherName); } }

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  • Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

    - by Krisc
    Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

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  • Deleting first and last element of a linked list in C

    - by LuckySlevin
    struct person { int age; char name[100]; struct person *next; }; void delfirst(struct person **p)// For deleting the beginning { struct person *tmp,*m; m = (*p); tmp = (*p)->next; free(m); return; } void delend(struct person **p)// For deleting the end { struct person *tmp,*m; tmp=*p; while(tmp->next!=NULL) { tmp=tmp->next; } m->next=tmp; free(tmp); m->next = NULL; return; } I'm looking for two seperate functions to delete the first and last elements of a linked list. Here is what i tried. What do you suggest? Especially deleting first is so problematic for me.

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  • How to format JSON Date?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

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