Search Results

Search found 30474 results on 1219 pages for 'relational database'.

Page 572/1219 | < Previous Page | 568 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579  | Next Page >

  • Problem in SQL Server 2005 using ASP.Net

    - by megala
    I created one ASP.Net project using SQLServer database as back end.I shows the foollwing error .How to solve this? ===============Coding Imports System.Data.SqlClient Partial Class Default2 Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Dim myConnection As SqlConnection Dim myCommand As SqlCommand Dim ra As Integer Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click myConnection = New SqlConnection("Data Source=JANANI-FF079747\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=new;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=sa;Password=janani") 'server=localhost;uid=sa;pwd=;database=pubs") myConnection.Open() myCommand = New SqlCommand("Insert into table3 values 'janani','jan'") ra = myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() ========---> error is showing here MsgBox("New Row Inserted" & ra) myConnection.Close() End Sub End Class =========Error Message============ ExecuteNonQuery: Connection property has not been initialized.

    Read the article

  • Run java thread at specific times

    - by rmarimon
    I have a web application that synchronizes with a central database four times per hour. The process usually takes 2 minutes. I would like to run this process as a thread at X:55, X:10, X:25, and X:40 so that the users knows that at X:00, X:15, X:30, and X:45 they have a clean copy of the database. It is just about managing expectations. I have gone through the executor in java.util.concurrent but the scheduling is done with the scheduleAtFixedRate which I believe provides no guarantee about when this is actually run in terms of the hours. I could use a first delay to launch the Runnable so that the first one is close to the launch time and schedule for every 15 minutes but it seems that this would probably diverge in time. Is there an easier way to schedule the thread to run 5 minutes before every quarter hour?

    Read the article

  • How can I allow users to switch data sources for an SSRS report?

    - by fatcat1111
    I have two SQL Server databases with identical schemas, but different data. I also have SSRS generating reports, in native mode, for one of the databases. All reports the same shared data source. I would like to allow users to get reports for the other database. I created a second shared data source for the second database. Modifying the reports to use this second data source results in reports as expected. Because the RDLs are the same, except for the data source, and because I don't want to maintain what are basically duplicate reports, I'm looking for a way to dynamically switch data sources, depending on user input. Is there an easy means of accomplishing this? An existing solution would be best. Barring that, can the RDL's data source be parametrized? Or, can the RDS's connection string be parametrized?

    Read the article

  • Custom date time picker for Windows Forms that is locked to GMT time

    - by m3ntat
    Using Visual Studio 2008, c#, .net 2.0. I have a Windows Forms client application that contains a scheduling UI section, currently this is housed only in the London office with the standard datetime picker control, the selected time is saved in a UK database (GMT) and a London based server aapplication processes the schedules. There is a requirement to roll the client out to various global locations, Hong Kong, New York etc and allow them to setup schedules that run according to GMT time on the London server. I'll have a label on screen saying "note schedules are GMT" what I need is a good way to present a datetime picker that always shows and is in sync with the database server's GMT time regardless of where the client app is running globally. Suggestions on how to acheive this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Sync Framework - Local DB and Remote DB have to have the same schema?

    - by Josh
    When using MSF, is it implied in the technology that the sync tables are supposed to be 1-1? The reason I'm wondering is that if I'm synching from a SQL2005 database to a SQLCE, I might want the CE one to be a little more flattened out so I can get data out with a simpler SELECT statement (as CE does not support sprocs). For example, I might have a tblCustomer, tblOrder, and tblCustomerOrder in the central database, but in the local databases one table with all the data might be preferred. Of course I'd still want the updates to reflect back and forth between the two databases. Does MSF make this possible, or does the local DB have to have the same tables as the central?

    Read the article

  • unit test service layer - NUnit, NHibernate

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I would like to unit test a DEPENDENT service layer which allows me to perform CRUD operation without mocking using NUnit. I know this is probably bad practice but I want to give it a try anyway - even if the tests have to run over night. My data is persisted using NHibernate and I have implemented a little library that 'bootstraps' the database which I could use in a [Setup] method. I am just wondering if someone has done something similar and what the fastest method for bootstrapping the database is. I am using something like this: var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly("Bla"); new SchemaExport(cfg).Execute(false, true, false); to establish the db schema. After that I populate some lookup tables from some Excel tables. Any feedback would be very much appreciated. Thanks. Christian

    Read the article

  • How to avoid injecting dependencies into an object so that it can pass them on?

    - by Pheter
    I am interested in applying dependency injection to my current project, which makes use of the MVC pattern. My controllers will call the models and therefore will need to inject the dependencies into the models. To do this, the controller must have the dependencies (such as a database object) in the first place. The controller doesn't need to make use of some of these dependencies (such as the database object), so I feel that it shouldn't be given this dependency. However, it has to have these dependencies if it is to inject them into the model objects. How can I avoid having dependencies injected into an object just so that it can pass them on? Doing so feels wrong and can result in many dependencies being injected into an object. Edit: I am using PHP.

    Read the article

  • Complex relationship between tables in NHibernate

    - by Ilya Kogan
    Hi all, I'm writing a Fluent NHibernate mapping for a legacy Oracle database. The challenge is that the tables have composite primary keys. If I were at total freedom, I would redesign the relationships and auto-generate primary keys, but other applications must write to the same database and read from it, so I cannot do it. These are the two tables I'll focus on: Example data Trips table: 1, 10:00, 11:00 ... 1, 12:00, 15:00 ... 1, 16:00, 19:00 ... 2, 12:00, 13:00 ... 3, 9:00, 18:00 ... Faults table: 1, 13:00 ... 1, 23:00 ... 2, 12:30 ... In this case, vehicle 1 made three trips and has two faults. The first fault happened during the second trip, and the second fault happened while the vehicle was resting. Vehicle 2 had one trip, during which a fault happened. Constraints Trips of the same vehicle never overlap. So the tables have an optional one-to-many relationship, because every fault either happens during a trip or it doesn't. If I wanted to join them in SQL, I would write: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime and then I'd get a dataset where every fault appears exactly once (one-to-many as I said). Note that there is no Vehicles table, and I don't need one. But I did create a view that contains all VehicleIds from both tables, so I can use it as a junction table. What am I actually looking for? The tables are huge because they cover years of data, and every time I only need to fetch a range of a few hours. So I need a mapping and a criteria that will run something like the following SQL underneath: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime where Faults.FaultTime between :p0 and :p1 Do you have any ideas how to achieve it? Note 1: Currently the application shouldn't write to the database, so persistence is not a must, although if the mapping supports persistence, it may help at some point in the future. Note 2: I know it's a tough one, so if you give me a great answer, you will be properly rewarded :) Thank you for reading this long question, and now I only hope for the best :)

    Read the article

  • Coordinating the logging output from a web app installed in a SharePoint farm.

    - by Kelly French
    We are deploying web parts to SharePoint 2007 and would like to include logging (log4net). The ideal solution would be to use a database appender to avoid the problems with knowing which actual server is executing the web part. This questions has been helpful: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/219668/sharepoint-and-log4net. I've got log4net working in a stand-alone web app using Visual Studio dev server using the web.config for the log4net settings and a file appender for the output. I'd like to transition to SharePoint and still use the log file output so I can make sure it's all working first, then change the config around to log to a database. Is this going to be too much trouble? How have other developers added log4.net into their solutions for SharePoint?

    Read the article

  • Problem updating blog with hibernate?

    - by johnsmith51
    hi, i am having problem updating a blob with hibernate. my model have these getters/setters for hibernate, i.e. internally i deal with byte[] so any getter/setter convert the byte[] to blog. I can create an initial object without problem, but if I try to change the content of the blob, the database column is not updated. I do not get any error message, everything looks fine, except that the database is not updated. /** do not use, for hibernate only */ public Blob getLogoBinaryBlob() { if(logoBinary == null){ return null; } return Hibernate.createBlob(logoBinary); } /** do not use, for hibernate only */ public void setLogoBinaryBlob(Blob logoBinaryBlob) { ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); try { logoBinary = toByteArrayImpl(logoBinaryBlob, baos); } catch (Exception e) { } }

    Read the article

  • Stop propagating deletes

    - by Mark
    Is it just me or is anyone else finding EF very difficult to use in a real app :( I'm using it as the data layer and have created custom business objects. I'm having difficulty converting the business objects back to EF objects and updating/adding/deleting from the database. Does anyone know a good, simple example of doing this? Actually the current problem that's driving me nuts is when I delete something EF tries to delete other related stuff as well. For example, if I delete an invoice it will also delete the associated customer! Seems odd. I can't figure out how to stop it doing this. // tried: invoiceEfData.CustomerReference = null; // also tried invoiceEfData.Customer = null; context.DeleteObject(invoiceEfData); context.SaveChanges(); // at this point I get a database error due to it attempting to delete the customer

    Read the article

  • How come jQuery can't remove this element?

    - by George Edison
    I have a table like this: <table id='inventory_table'> <tr id='no_items_avail'> <td> There are no items in the database. </td> </tr> </table> And I want to get rid of it with jQuery like this: $('#inventory_table tbody tr#no_items_avail').remove(); However it doesn't seem to be working at all. What am I doing wrong? Edit: Also, the row above was originally inserted into the DOM with another jQuery call: $('#inventory_table tbody').append("<tr id='no_items_avail'....... If that helps. And, running: alert($('#no_items_avail').text()); yields "There are no items in the database." as expected.

    Read the article

  • WPF Application Slow Unresponsive when demonstrating using remote sharing software

    - by Kev
    After spending 14 hours on this I think its time to share my woes and see if anyone has experienced this issue before. Ill describe the issue and tests I have done to rule out certain things. Ok so I have a WPF application which loads in data from an SQL database. I am using DevExpress Components for datagrids, ribbons etc.. and FluentNhibernate to provide a session for database operations. I am also using log4net to log events to a textfile. Using the application on my laptop with SQL Express 2008 works fine.. the application starts up, retrieves 1000 records and I can tab through the controls on the ribbon. Now, I decided to demo the application to a third party and used remote login/sharing software online to share my desktop with the other person so as I could load the application on my laptop and they could view me using the application. Now, the application takes approx 45 seconds to load... 30 seconds with a blank database where as, when im not sharing out my screen using the online software the application loads in about 7-10 seconds. As well as that, even using the controls in the application during the demo were very sticky, slow and unresponsive. During the sharing session though however I was able to use other applications without any problems.. everything else worked fine. But I cannot understand how my application works ok under normal conditions , even browsing the net at the same time etc... BUT totally fails to perform correctly when I am sharing a session with another user... the CPU usage shot up to 100% too at times when the application was trying to start up... Please see below a list of 3rd party dlls I am using as references in my project. DevExpress dlls FluidKit PixelLab.WPF PixelLab.Common Galasoft WPF Kit FluentNHibernate NHibernate Nhibernate.ByteCode.Castle Skype4ComLib TXTEXTControl log4net LinqKit All of these DLLs are in the output folder with the application dlls created from the class assemblys in the project. So when installed via an installer on a machine the dlls will be in the same application folder as the application file itself. Many thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC AuthorizeAttribute passing values to ActionMethod?

    - by subskii
    Hi everyone I'm only a newcomer to ASP.NET MVC and am not sure how to achieve a certain task the "right way". Essentially, I store the logged in userId in HttpContext.User.Identity and have written an EnhancedAuthorizeAttribute to perform some custom authorization. In the overriden OnAuthorization method, my domain model hits the database to ensure the current user id can access the passed in routeValue "BatchCode". The prototype is: ReviewGroup GetReviewGroupFromBatchCode(string batchCode); It will return null if the user can't access the ReviewGroup and the OnAuthorization then denies access. Now, I know the decorated action method will only get executed if OnAuthorization passes, but I don't want to hit the database a second time to get the ReviewGroup again. I am thinking of storing the ReviewGroup in HttpContext.Items["reviewGroup"] and accessing this from the controller at the moment. Is this a feasible solution, or am I on the wrong path? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • NHibernate - Mapping tagging of entities

    - by ZNS
    Hi! I've been wrecking my mind on how to get my tagging of entities to work. I'll get right into some database structuring: tblTag TagId - int32 - PK Name tblTagEntity TagId - PK EntityId - PK EntityType - string - PK tblImage ImageId - int32 - PK tblBlog BlogId - int32 - PK class Image Id EntityType { get { return "MyNamespace.Entities.Image"; } IList Tags; class Blog Id EntityType { get { return "MyNamespace.Entities.Blog"; } IList Tags; The obvious problem I have here is that EntityType is an identifer but doesn't exist in the database. If anyone could help with the this mapping I'd be very grateful.

    Read the article

  • Using GIT with Joomla

    - by kwhohasamullet
    Hi Guys, We are a web design company going down the road of setting up a revision management system and all the processes around how we are going to use it etc. We mainly develop our websites on a Joomla and what i wanted to know is how other companies manage their repositories when dealing with a CMS. We mainly deal with template building as well as occasionally customising components/plugins we installed. My main questions are: -Is the best way to store all files (including the Joomla files) in the repo or just files that you make/ change yourself? -Do you keep a copy of the Database somewhere to account for database changes Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Launching Vim via Lua

    - by Keith Pimmel
    I'm writing a simple little Lua commandline app that will build a static website. I'm storing my fragments in a sqlite database. Retrieving the data from the db is straightforward as is saving it; my question comes from editing the data. Is there an elegant way to pipe the data from Lua to vim? Can vim edit a memory buffer and return it? I was planning on launching the editor via os.execute('vim') but only after grabbing a temporary file handle and dumping the database output into that. I would like to have to avoid touching the filesystem that way but that is my contingency plan.

    Read the article

  • Windows Workflow Foundation: Multiple applications

    - by Petr Felzmann
    We are running several ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (which just extend ASP.NET). Each web application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability to the applications (to our framework respectively). The particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. The question is if we can install one workflow engine (with one database for persistence) and share this for all workflows in all web applications. If so, how then workflow engine get knows the particular workflow belongs to which web application? Should we store some application identifier somewhere in workflow? Thanks for suggestions!

    Read the article

  • connect to mssql from batch script

    - by JPro
    Hi, I am supplying a batch script to create a DSN connection in the user computer before they start to use my application. I am using this in a .bat file. ODBCConf ConfigSysDSN "SQL Server" "DSN=CONNAME|SERVER=PCNAME\INSTANCENAME But I want to make sure they will be able to connect to the database, considering the fact that proper drivers may not be installed in their systems. So, is there any way to check the connection from the same batch file and inform the user if something unable to connect to the database? thanks.

    Read the article

  • MySQL - how long to create an index?

    - by user293594
    Can anyone tell me how adding a key scales in MySQL? I have 500,000,000 rows in a database, trans, with columns i (INT UNSIGNED), j (INT UNSIGNED), nu (DOUBLE), A (DOUBLE). I try to index a column, e.g. ALTER TABLE trans ADD KEY idx_A (A); and I wait. For a table of 14,000,000 rows it took about 2 minutes to execute on my MacBook Pro, but for the whole half a billion, it's taking 15hrs and counting. Am I doing something wrong, or am I just being naive about how indexing a database scales with the number of rows?

    Read the article

  • Erlang code critique

    - by dagda1
    Hi, I am trying to get my head round some basic erlang functionality and I could do with some comments on the following. I have the following erlang code that takes a list of tuples and returns a list minus an element if a key is found: delete(Key, Database) -> remove(Database, Key, []). remove([], Key, Acc) -> Acc; remove([H|T], Key, Acc) -> if element(1, H) /= Key -> [H| remove(T, Key, Acc)]; true -> remove(T, Key, Acc) end. Is this a good way of doing this? The if statement seems incorrect. Also is my use of the accumulator Acc making this tail recursive? Cheers Paul

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 568 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579  | Next Page >