Search Results

Search found 39491 results on 1580 pages for 'insert id'.

Page 573/1580 | < Previous Page | 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580  | Next Page >

  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

    Read the article

  • Django: Named URLs / Same Template, Different Named URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a webapp that lists all of my artists, albums and songs when the appropriate link is clicked. I make extensive use of generic views (object_list/detail) and named urls but I am coming across an annoyance. I have three templates that pretty much output the exact same html that look just like this: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="content"> <ul id="starts-with"> {% for starts_with in starts_with_list %} <li><a href="{% url song_list_x starts_with %}">{{ starts_with|upper }}</a></li> {% endfor %} </ul> <ul> {% for song in songs_list %} <li>{{ song.title }}</li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock content %} My artist and album template look pretty much the same and I'd like to combine the three template's into one. The fact that my variables start with song can easily be changed to the default obj. It's my <ul id="starts-with"> named url I don't know how to correct. Obviously I want it to link to a specific album/artist/song using the named urls in my urls.py but I don't know how to make it context aware. Any suggestions? urlpatterns = patterns('tlkmusic.apps.tlkmusic_base.views', # (r'^$', index), url(r'^artists/$', artist_list, name='artist_list'), url(r'^artists/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', artist_list, name='artist_list_x'), url(r'^artist/(?P<artist_id>\d+)/$', artist_detail, name='artist_detail'), url(r'^albums/$', album_list, name='album_list'), url(r'^albums/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', album_list, name='album_list_x'), url(r'^songs/$', song_list, name='song_list'), url(r'^songs/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', song_list, name='song_list_x'), )

    Read the article

  • MySQL MyISAM table performance... painfully, painfully slow

    - by Salman A
    I've got a table structure that can be summarized as follows: pagegroup * pagegroupid * name has 3600 rows page * pageid * pagegroupid * data references pagegroup; has 10000 rows; can have anything between 1-700 rows per pagegroup; the data column is of type mediumtext and the column contains 100k - 200kbytes data per row userdata * userdataid * pageid * column1 * column2 * column9 references page; has about 300,000 rows; can have about 1-50 rows per page The above structure is pretty straight forwad, the problem is that that a join from userdata to page group is terribly, terribly slow even though I have indexed all columns that should be indexed. The time needed to run a query for such a join (userdata inner_join page inner_join pagegroup) exceeds 3 minutes. This is terribly slow considering the fact that I am not selecting the data column at all. Example of the query that takes too long: SELECT userdata.column1, pagegroup.name FROM userdata INNER JOIN page USING( pageid ) INNER JOIN pagegroup USING( pagegroupid ) Please help by explaining why does it take so long and what can i do to make it faster. Edit #1 Explain returns following gibberish: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE userdata ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE page eq_ref PRIMARY,pagegroupid PRIMARY 4 topsecret.userdata.pageid 1 1 SIMPLE pagegroup eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.page.pagegroupid 1 Edit #2 SELECT u.field2, p.pageid FROM userdata u INNER JOIN page p ON u.pageid = p.pageid; /* 0.07 sec execution, 6.05 sec fecth */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE u ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE p eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.u.pageid 1 Using index SELECT p.pageid, g.pagegroupid FROM page p INNER JOIN pagegroup g ON p.pagegroupid = g.pagegroupid; /* 9.37 sec execution, 60.0 sec fetch */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE g index PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 3646 Using index 1 SIMPLE p ref pagegroupid pagegroupid 5 topsecret.g.pagegroupid 3 Using where Moral of the story Keep medium/long text columns in a separate table if you run into performance problems such as this one.

    Read the article

  • Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

    Read the article

  • Ajax model binding of a complex type

    - by David G
    I am trying to do something along the lines of the following where I have a Controller with an method similar to: public ActionResult Insert(Author author) { //do something... } Where the Author type looks like: public class Author { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Book[] Books { get; set; } public Author() { Books = new Book[0]; } } public class Book { public string Title { get; set; } public int NumberOfPages { get; set; } } From a page I want to submit data using JQuery and Ajax something like function addAuthor() { var auth = { 'FirstName': 'Roald', 'LastName': 'Dahl', 'Books': [ { 'Title': 'Charlie and the Chocolate Factory', 'NumberOfPages': 264 }, { 'Title': 'The Twits', 'NumberOfPages': 316 } ] }; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/Insert", data: auth }); } MVC binds the Author object (FirstName and LastName are set) but doesn't bind the Books property. Why is that and how can I submit an object containing an Array (or a Collection) as a property through AJAX?

    Read the article

  • [JS] getSelection on DIV contentEditable

    - by cactoos
    Hi all ! I am trying to achieve project and i must do a WYSIWYG editor in JavaScript. I can't use an existing editor because I need use my plugins (for example a colorPicker or imagePicker).. For this time I have this HTML : <div class="K_editor" id="idExample"> <div class="K_links"> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkBold">B</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkItalic">I</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkUnderline">U</div> </div> <iframe width="696" height="212" frameborder="0" src="js/myEditor_iFrame.php"> <html> <head/> <body> <div id="contentIframe" contenteditable="true"> This is a test code, with <strong>bold</strong> text and <em>italic</em> text. </div> </body> </html> </iframe> <input type="submit"/> </div> On event click on ".K_editor_link", a function is open with arguments : - tagStart (exemple '', or '') - tagEnd (exemple '', or '') - id (here 'idExample') I know get a Selection on Textarea but "setSelectionRange()", ".selectionStart" and ".selectionEnd" are only for textbox (XUL), input (XHTML) or textarea (XHTML). Why can I do for do that ?? I'm realy block.. Thank all ! CactO_o's

    Read the article

  • Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

    - by Martin Ongtangco
    hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

    Read the article

  • org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: TABLE NAME is not mapped

    - by Coronatus
    I have two models, Item and ShopSection. They have a many-to-many relationship. @Entity(name = "item") public class Item extends Model { @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<ShopSection> sections; } @Entity(name = "shop_section") public class ShopSection extends Model { public List<Item> findActiveItems(int page, int length) { return Item.find("select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?", id).fetch(page, length); } } findActiveItems is meant to find items in a section, but I get this error: org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: Item is not mapped [select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?] at org.hibernate.hql.ast.util.SessionFactoryHelper.requireClassPersister(SessionFactoryHelper.java:180) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromElementFactory.addFromElement(FromElementFactory.java:111) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromClause.addFromElement(FromClause.java:93) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.createFromElement(HqlSqlWalker.java:322) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3441) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElementList(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3325) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromClause(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:733) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.query(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:584) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectStatement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:301) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:244) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:254) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:185) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:136) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:101) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:80) at org.hibernate.engine.query.QueryPlanCache.getHQLQueryPlan(QueryPlanCache.java:124) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.getHQLQueryPlan(AbstractSessionImpl.java:156) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.createQuery(AbstractSessionImpl.java:135) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.createQuery(SessionImpl.java:1770) at org.hibernate.ejb.AbstractEntityManagerImpl.createQuery(AbstractEntityManagerImpl.java:272) ... 8 more What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to implement IEquatable<T> when mutable fields are part of the equality - Problem with GetHashCo

    - by Shimmy
    Hello! I am using Entity Framework in my application. I implemented with the partial class of an entity the IEquatable<T> interface: Partial Class Address : Implements IEquatable(Of Address) 'Other part generated Public Overloads Function Equals(ByVal other As Address) As Boolean _ Implements System.IEquatable(Of Address).Equals If ReferenceEquals(Me, other) Then Return True Return AddressId = other.AddressId End Function Public Overrides Function Equals(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean If obj Is Nothing Then Return MyBase.Equals(obj) If TypeOf obj Is Address Then Return Equals(DirectCast(obj, Address)) Else Return False End Function Public Overrides Function GetHashCode() As Integer Return AddressId.GetHashCode End Function End Class Now in my code I use it this way: Sub Main() Using e As New CompleteKitchenEntities Dim job = e.Job.FirstOrDefault Dim address As New Address() job.Addresses.Add(address) Dim contains1 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'True e.SaveChanges() Dim contains2 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'False 'The problem is that I can't remove it: Dim removed = job.Addresses.Remoeve(address) 'False End Using End Sub Note (I checked in the debugger visualizer) that the EntityCollection class stores its entities in HashSet so it has to do with the GetHashCode function, I want it to depend on the ID so entities are compared by their IDs. The problem is that when I hit save, the ID changes from 0 to its db value. So the question is how can I have an equatable object, being properly hashed. Please help me find what's wrong in the GetHashCode function (by ID) and what can I change to make it work. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Newbie T-SQL dynamic stored procedure -- how can I improve it?

    - by Andy Jones
    I'm new to T-SQL; all my experience is in a completely different database environment (Openedge). I've learned enough to write the procedure below -- but also enough to know that I don't know enough! This routine will have to go into a live environment soon, and it works, but I'm quite certain there are a number of c**k-ups and gotchas in it that I know nothing about. The routine copies data from table A to table B, replacing the data in table B. The tables could be in any database. I plan to call this routine multiple times from another stored procedure. Permissions aren't a problem: the routine will be run by the dba as a timed job. Could I have your suggestions as to how to make it fit best-practice? To bullet-proof it? ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[copyTable2Table] @sdb varchar(30), @stable varchar(30), @tdb varchar(30), @ttable varchar(30), @raiseerror bit = 1, @debug bit = 0 as begin set nocount on declare @source varchar(65) declare @target varchar(65) declare @dropstmt varchar(100) declare @insstmt varchar(100) declare @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000) declare @ErrSeverity int set @source = '[' + @sdb + '].[dbo].[' + @stable + ']' set @target = '[' + @tdb + '].[dbo].[' + @ttable + ']' set @dropStmt = 'drop table ' + @target set @insStmt = 'select * into ' + @target + ' from ' + @source set @errMsg = '' set @errSeverity = 0 if @debug = 1 print('Drop:' + @dropStmt + ' Insert:' + @insStmt) -- drop the target table, copy the source table to the target begin try begin transaction exec(@dropStmt) exec(@insStmt) commit end try begin catch if @@trancount > 0 rollback select @errMsg = error_message(), @errSeverity = error_severity() end catch -- update the log table insert into HHG_system.dbo.copyaudit (copytime, copyuser, source, target, errmsg, errseverity) values( getdate(), user_name(user_id()), @source, @target, @errMsg, @errSeverity) if @debug = 1 print ( 'Message:' + @errMsg + ' Severity:' + convert(Char, @errSeverity) ) -- handle errors, return value if @errMsg <> '' begin if @raiseError = 1 raiserror(@errMsg, @errSeverity, 1) return 1 end return 0 END Thanks!

    Read the article

  • target-action uicontrolevents

    - by Fabrizio Farinelli
    I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

    Read the article

  • Firefox and IE - Firefox handling of <span> inside tables (html and css)

    - by jasrpg
    Hello, I am having difficulties getting a span tag to work properly inside a table. It appears as if the entire span tag is being ignored that is defined anywhere in between table tags in firefox, but in IE this shows up correctly. Maybe I am missing something, but I have created a small example css and html file that displays differently in Firefox and IE. Hopefully someone can tell me why it is behaving this way or how I can rearrange the html to resolve the issue in firefox. ---main.css--- .class1 A:link {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:visited {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:hover {color:#0000FF; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:active {color:#0000FF; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:link {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:visited {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:hover {color:#0000FF; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:active {color:#0000FF; text-decoration: none} ---test.htm--- <HTML> <HEAD> <title>Title Page</title> <style type="text/css">@import url("/css/main.css");</style> </HEAD> <span class="class1"> <BODY> <table><tr><td> ---Insert Hyperlink---<br> </td></tr> </span><span class="class2"> <tr><td> ---Insert Hyperlink---<br> </td></tr></table> </span> </BODY> </HTML>

    Read the article

  • PDO bindparam not working.

    - by jim
    I am trying to save data into a database using PDO. All columns save correctly with the exception of one. No matter what I try, I cannot get the data to go in. myfunc($db, $data) { echo $data; // <----- Outputs my data. example: 'jim jones' $stmt = $db->prepare("CALL test(:id, :data, :ip, :expires)"); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':ip', $ip, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':expires', $expires, PDO::PARAM_STR); ... } So even after verifying that the data variable in fact holds my data, the bindParam method will not bind. When I echo the data variable, I can see the data is there. It will not save though. If I copy the echo'd output of the data variable to screen and paste it into a new variable, it WILL save. I'm at this now for a couple of hours. Can someone please have a look? EDIT: I want to also mention that I have tried using bindValue() in place of bindParam() and the data for the data variable will still not save.

    Read the article

  • jquery validate not submitting after modal close bootstrap

    - by Mariana Hernandez
    I have a modal where i insert some data, but when i open the modal, close it, and the click the modal show button again, it doesnt submit of course because the validate is "acting" in the modal, but i closed it so its not showing... how can i prevent this? thanks it is similar to this jquery functions within modal only work on first open, after close and re-open they stop working but my functions are <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#myModal").modal('show'); }); </script> and the validation one <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#form1').validate( { ignore: "", rules: { usu_login: { required: true }, usu_password: { required: true }, usu_email: { required: true }, usu_nombre1: { required: true }, usu_apellido1: { required: true }, usu_fecha_nac: { required: true }, usu_cedula: { required: true }, usu_telefono1: { required: true }, rol_id: { required: true }, dependencia_id: { required: true }, }, highlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').addClass('has-error'); if($(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane.active:has(div.has-error)").length == 0) { $(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane:hidden:has(div.has-error)").each(function(index, tab) { var id = $(tab).attr("id"); $('a[href="#' + id + '"]').tab('show'); }); } }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').removeClass('has-error'); } }); }); </script> So i dont know how to apply the answer of the above =(

    Read the article

  • How to stop my firefox extension which interferes other extension?

    - by ccppjava
    Hi, I have tried very hard to make my extension as simple as possible, it now do not contain any skin/css, it just have 'statusbar' in one single 'overlay'. The issue is that when installed, it hides the top three icon of 'all-in-one toolbar' extension of my firefox 3.6.3. On other two machine which do not have 'all-in-one toolbar', it hide all the icons of the web-development toolbar! chrome.manifest content stackoverflow content/ content stackoverflow content/ contentaccessible=yes overlay chrome://browser/content/browser.xul chrome://stackoverflow/content/browser.xul locale stackoverflow en-US locale/en-US/ browser.xul <overlay id="dch-browser-overlay" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"/> <script src="stackoverflow.js" /> <statusbar id="status-bar"> <statusbarpanel id="stackoverflow-status-bar-icon" class="statusbarpanel-iconic" src="chrome://stackoverflow/content/icon_small.png" tooltiptext="&runstackoverflow;" onclick="stackoverflow.run()" /> </statusbar> </overlay> I have tried very hard to simplify the extension to find the reason, but failed, any suggestion/ideas would be welcome. thx.

    Read the article

  • JQuery Autocomplete plugin not working with JQuery 1.4.1

    - by Russ Clark
    I've been using the JQuery Autocomplete plugin with JQuery version 1.3.2, and it has been working great. I recently updated JQuery in my project to version 1.4.2, and the Autocomplete plugin is now broken. The JQuery code to add items to a textbox on my web page doesn't seem to be getting called at all. Does anyone know if the JQuery Autocomplete plugin is incompatible with JQuery version 1.4.2, and if there is a fix for this problem? Here is some sample code I've built in an ASP.Net web site (which works fine if I change the JQuery file to jquery-1.3.2.js, but nothing happens using jquery-1.4.2.js): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.autocomplete.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $(':input:text:id$=sapleUser').autocomplete(data); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> API Reference: <input id="sapleUser" autocomplete="off" type="text" runat="server" /> (try "C" or "E") </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • nhibernate not taking mappings from assembly

    - by cvista
    Hi I'm using fnh and castle nhib facility. I followed the advice from mike hadlow here: http://mikehadlow.blogspot.com/2009/01/integrating-fluent-nhibernate-and.html here is my FluentNHibernateConfigurationBuilder: public Configuration GetConfiguration(IConfiguration facilityConfiguration) { var defaultConfigurationBuilder = new DefaultConfigurationBuilder(); var configuration = defaultConfigurationBuilder.GetConfiguration(facilityConfiguration); configuration.AddMappingsFromAssembly(typeof(User).Assembly); return configuration; } i know the facility is picking it up as i can break inside that method and it steps through. however, when it's done, non of the mappings are created and i get the following error when i try to save an entity: No persister for: IsItGd.Model.Entities.User here is my user class: //simple model of web user public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } and here is the mapping: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x=>x.Id); Map(x=>x.FullName); } } i really can't see what the problem is. the strange thing is - is that if i use automapping it picks everything up - but i don't want to use automapping as i can't do certain things in that scenario. any clues? w://

    Read the article

  • T-SQL Table Joins - Unique Situation

    - by Dimitri
    Hello Everyone. This is my first time encountering the case like this and don't quite know how to handle. Situation: I have one table tblSettingsDefinition, with fields: ID, GroupID, Name, typeID, DefaultValue. Then I have tblSettingtypes with fields TypeID, Name. And I have final table, tblUserSettings with fields SettingID, SettingDefinitionID, UserID, Value. The whole point of this is to have customizable settings. Setting can be defined for a Group or as global setting (if GroupID is NULL). It will have a default value, but if user modifies the setting, an entry is added to tblUserSettings that stores new value. I want to have a query that grabs user settings by first looking at the tblUserSettings, and if it has records for the given user, grabs them, if not retrieves default settings. But the trick is that no matter if user has settings or not, I need to have fields from other two table retrieved to know the setting's Type, Name etc... (which are stored in those other tables). I'm writing query something like this: SELECT * FROM tblSettingDefinition SD LEFT JOIN tblUserSettings US ON SD.SettingID = US.SettingDefinitionID JOIN tblSettingTypes ST ON SD.TypeID=ST.ID WHERE US.UserID=@UserID OR ((SD.GroupID IS NULL) OR (SD.GroupID=(SELECT GroupID FROM tblUser WHERE ID=@UserID))) but it retrieves settings for all users from tblUserSettings instead of just ones that match current @UserID. And if @UserID has no records in tblUserSettings, still, all user settings are retrieved instead of the defaults from tblSettingDefinition. Hope I made myself clear. Any help would be highly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • how to write css for nth child in css

    - by steven spielberg
    <div id="boxcontent"> <div>some content this div may be missing [dynamic genrated]</div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> i want to write some css on every 3rd div who have class .elem if i try nth-child to select them then sometime they select other. How i can select 3rd .elem class div when parent div have some other div as child or not. any way to select 3rd div who have class .elem

    Read the article

  • Loop with a while

    - by ookla
    Very basic question.. but I'm missing the point.. I have this data on my table: ID SITEID SECTION 1 1 posts 2 2 posts 3 1 aboutme 4 1 contact 5 2 questions The output is an array. I can't change it. I want to make this output on php with a single for loop with that array: <h1> sections for site 1 </h1> posts aboutme contact <h1>sections for site 2 </h1> posts questions I'm trying to do something like this, where $sectionsArray is my output. And I want to check if siteid is the same, then make a loop.. for ($j=0;$j<sizeof($sectionsArray);$j++) { while (siteid==1){ echo "<h1>'.$sectionsArray['siteid'].'</h1>'; } echo "<A href='section.php?id='.$sectionsArray['id'].' '">'.$sectionsArray['section'].'</a>; } But I don't get the logic of "grouping" the results with a while.. INSIDE a loop. Any light will be welcome. Thanks

    Read the article

  • submit remote form with prototype

    - by badnaam
    I have a remote form like this and a checkbox in it. When I select or deselect the checkbox I would like to 1 - set the value of a hidden field 2 - ajax submit this form to its designated url. I tried $('search_form').onsubmit(), but I get an error saying onsubmit is not a function. Using prototype. Whats the best way to do this? <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/searches/search_set?stype=1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;" method="post" id="new_search" class="new_search" action="/searches/search_set?stype=1"><div style="margin: 0pt; padding: 0pt; display: inline;"><input type="hidden" value="3TWSyMsZXI0nltz7zHAxuj1KX=" name="authenticity_token"></div> <a onclick="setSubmit(this);" href="#" class="submit-link-button fg-button ui-state-default fg-button-icon-left ui-corner-all" id="search_submit"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-search"></span>'Search'</a> </div> <input type="checkbox" value="Energy" onclick="refreshResults(this);" name="search[conditions][article_tag][0]" id="search_conditions_article_tag_0">

    Read the article

  • jquery ajax call returning error when its not an error

    - by azz0r
    Hello, My JS Is: $(InitFavorite); function InitFavorite(){ var jList = $(".favourite_link"); var ids_to_check = {};//new Array(); $.each(jList, function () { var id = this.id; var object = id.split("_"); if (!ids_to_check[object[1]]) { ids_to_check[object[1]] = []; } ids_to_check[object[1]].push(object[0]); }); //console.log(ids_to_check); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/user/subscription/favourite-listing', data: ids_to_check, dataType: 'json', beforeSend: function(x) { if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/j-son;charset=UTF-8"); } }, error: function() { alert(1); }, success: function() { alert(2); /*$each(returned_values, function() { alert('boom'); });*/ } }); } From the ajax call, the following data is returned: {"env":"development","loggedIn":true,"translate":{}}{"Playlist":{"10":"Stop Recieving Updates For This Playlist"},"Clip":{"26":"Recieve Updates For This Clip","27":"Recieve Updates For This Clip","28":"Recieve Updates For This Clip","29":"Stop Recieving Updates For This Clip","30":"Recieve Updates For This Clip"}} However, success is never triggered, just error, despite there being no header and json being put out as the header (via zend framework). Ideas?

    Read the article

  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

    Read the article

  • problem with RenderOuterTable property for .net 4.0 controls

    - by Mario
    According to the new 4.0 framework overview, one should be able to add the attrib RenderOuterTable="false" to a control that supports the attribute and see css friendly code be spit out - in other words no html tables. To test this, I threw a login control into a basic fresh webpage with the following code: <asp:Login ID="Login1" runat="server" RenderOuterTable="false"></asp:Login> The result? Crappy html table output, which supposedly doesn't happen with this attrib set to false. Here is the output: &lt;table cellpadding=&quot;0&quot;&gt; <tr> <td align="center" colspan="2">Log In</td> </tr><tr> <td align="right"><label for="MainContent_Login1_UserName">User Name:</label></td><td><input name="ctl00$MainContent$Login1$UserName" type="text" id="MainContent_Login1_UserName" /><span id="MainContent_Login1_UserNameRequired" title="User Name is required." style="visibility:hidden;">*</span></td>... Hopefully you get the point. Anyone know how to stop these controls from outputting tables? This is super annoying.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580  | Next Page >