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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • What happens when several Java servlet apps running on the same port ?

    - by Frank
    Something strange happened to my servlets and I think I've figured out why, yet I'm more confused. I used Netbean6.7 to develop a Paypal IPN (Instant Payment Notification) message servlet, it listens on port 8080 by default for Paypal IPN messages. I used some sample Java code from it's web site, but when it ran, only about 1 in 10 messages came through, and they looked correct, but why 1 in 10 ? Not 100% or none ? So I asked some questions here and got some advices, one in particular points me to Google's App Engine, so I downloaded it and ran the demo guestbook while my IPN servlet is still running on Netbeans, the strange thing happened, after I entered "appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\bin\dev_appserver.cmd appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\demos\guestbook\war" from the command prompt, I went to the following url on my browser "http://localhost:8080/", I thought I would see the Google demo guestbook page, NO, what I saw was another servlet I developed 2 years ago : "Web Academy", online course registration app. How can that happen ? I never started it, and I haven't touch that project for years. I guess because it's also listening on port 8080, so now I understand why the IPN messages only came through 1 in 10 times, because another servlet was also listening on that port and could have got the messages intended for IPN, or some how those two servlets' processes mixed up and therefore couldn't respond to Paypal properly, and failed. In order to verify some of my guesses, I turn off Netbeans, and ran the Google guestbook again at the prompt, this time on my browser http://localhost:8080/ points to the demo guestbook page. My Urls look like this : [A] Paypal IPN : http://localhost:8080/PayPal_App/PayPal_Servlet [B] Web Academy : http://localhost:8080/ So now, my questions are : <1> Why the "Web Academy" servlet was auto started when I ran the Paypal servlet ? <2> If I change the IPN listening port to 8083, would that mean I can run both of them on my PC at the same time without affecting each other ? <3> But I still don't understand, [A] and [B] look different, if a page for [A] is refreshed, it should show the Paypal content, and another page looking at [B] should show the Web Academy content, and that's exactly what happens when I started Netbeans to run the Paypal servlet, both pages show their respective content correctly side by side without interfering with each other, how come the IPN messages couldn't get through 100% of the time ? <4> In Netbeans how to assign 8080 to servlet [A] and assign port 8083 to servlet [B] ? <5> How to turn off auto start of Web Academy by Netbeans ?

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  • How hard programming is? Really. [closed]

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! The question is about your perception of programming activity. How hard/exacting this task is? There is much buzz about programming nowadays, people say that programmers are smart, very technical and abstract at a time, know much about world, psychology etc.. They say, that programmers got really powerful brain thing, cause there is much to keep in consideration simultaneously again with much information folded into each other associatively (up 10 levels of folding they say))) Still, there are some terms to specify at our own.. So that is the question: What do you think about programming in general? Is it hard? Is it 'for everyone' or for the particular kind of people only? How much non-CS background do you need to program (just to program, really; enterprise applications for example)? How long is the learning curve? (again, for programming in general) And another bunch of random questions: - If you were not to like/love programming, would that be a serious trouble bothering your current employment? - If you were to start from the beginning, would you chose that direction this time? - What other areas (jobs or maybe hobbies) are comparable to programming in the way they can explode someone's lovely brain? - Is 'non turing-complete programming' (SQL, XML, etc.) comparable to what we do or is it really way easier, less requiring, cheap and akin to cooking :)? Well, the essence is: How would you describe programming activity WRT to its difficulty? Or, on the other hand: Did you ever catch yourself thinking at some point: OMG, it's sooo hard! I don't know how would I ever program, even carried away this way and doing programming just for fun? It's very interesting to know your opinion, your'e the programmers after all. I mean much people must be exaggerating/speculating about the thing they do not really know about. But that musn't be the case here on SO :) P.S.: I'll try my best to update this post later, and you please edit it too. At least I'll get decent English in my question text :)

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  • Rails. Putting update logic in your migrations

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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  • How to implement code for multiple buttons using c++ in Silverlight for Windows Embedded

    - by Abhi
    Dear all I have referred the following link: Silverlight for Windows Embedded By referring this link i created a demo application which consist of two buttons created using Microsoft expression blend 2 tools. And then written a code referring the above site. Now my button names are "Browser Button" and "Media Button". On click of any one of the button i should able to launch the respective application. I was able to do for "Browser Button" but not for "Media Button" and if i do for "Media Button" then i am not able to do for "Browser Button".. I mean to say that how should i create event handler for both the buttons. This is the code in c++ which i should modify class BtnEventHandler { public: HRESULT OnClick(IXRDependencyObject* source,XRMouseButtonEventArgs* args) { RETAILMSG(1,(L"Browser event")); Execute(L"\\Windows\\iesample.exe",L""); return S_OK; } }; // entry point for the application. INT WINAPI WinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance,HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPWSTR lpCmdLine,int nCmdShow) { PrintMessage(); int exitCode = -1; HRESULT hr = S_OK; if (!XamlRuntimeInitialize()) return -1; HRESULT retcode; IXRApplicationPtr app; if (FAILED(retcode=GetXRApplicationInstance(&app))) return -1; if (FAILED(retcode=app->AddResourceModule(hInstance))) return -1; XRWindowCreateParams wp; ZeroMemory(&wp, sizeof(XRWindowCreateParams)); wp.Style = WS_OVERLAPPED; wp.pTitle = L"Bounce Test"; wp.Left = 0; wp.Top = 0; XRXamlSource xamlsrc; xamlsrc.SetResource(hInstance,TEXT("XAML"),MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDR_XAML1)); IXRVisualHostPtr vhost; if (FAILED(retcode=app->CreateHostFromXaml(&xamlsrc, &wp, &vhost))) return -1; IXRFrameworkElementPtr root; if (FAILED(retcode=vhost->GetRootElement(&root))) return -1; IXRButtonBasePtr btn; if (FAILED(retcode=root->FindName(TEXT("BrowserButton"), &btn))) return -1; IXRDelegate<XRMouseButtonEventArgs>* clickdelegate; BtnEventHandler handler; if(FAILED(retcode=CreateDelegate (&handler,&BtnEventHandler::OnClick,&clickdelegate))) return -1; if (FAILED(retcode=btn->AddClickEventHandler(clickdelegate))) return -1; UINT exitcode; if (FAILED(retcode=vhost->StartDialog(&exitcode))) return -1; return exitCode; } I have to add event handler for both the button so that on emulator whenever i click on any one of the button i should be able to launch the respective applications. Thanks in advance

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  • Can you pass by reference in Java?

    - by dbones
    Hi. Sorry if this sounds like a newbie question, but the other day a Java developer mentioned about passing a paramter by reference (by which it was ment just pass a Reference object) From a C# perspective I can pass a reference type by value or by reference, this is also true to value types I have written a noddie console application to show what i mean.. can i do this in Java? namespace ByRefByVal { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //Creating of the object Person p1 = new Person(); p1.Name = "Dave"; PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //should not be null //A copy of the Reference is made and sent to the method PrintUserNameByValue(p1); PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //the actual reference is passed to the method PrintUserNameByRef(ref p1); //<-- I know im passing the Reference PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void PrintIfObjectIsNull(Object o) { if (o == null) { Console.WriteLine("object is null"); } else { Console.WriteLine("object still references something"); } } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by value /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByValue(Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //<- this cannot affect the orginal reference, as it was passed in by value. } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by reference /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByRef(ref Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //this has access to the orginonal reference, allowing us to alter it, either make it point to a different object or to nothing. } } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } } If it java cannot do this, then its just passing a reference type by value? (is that fair to say) Many thanks Bones

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  • Loading a SWF dynamically causes previously loaded SWFs to misbehave

    - by Aaron
    I have run into a very strange problem with Flash and Flex. It appears that under certain circumstances, movie clips from a SWF loaded at runtime (using Loader) cannot be instantiated if another SWF has been loaded in the mean time. Here is the complete code for a program that reproduces the error. It is compiled using mxmlc, via Ensemble Tofino: package { import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.system.*; public class DynamicLoading extends Sprite { private var testAppDomain:ApplicationDomain; public function DynamicLoading() { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/test.swf"); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTestLoadComplete); loader.load(request); } private function onTestLoadComplete(e:Event):void { var loaderInfo:LoaderInfo = LoaderInfo(e.target); testAppDomain = loaderInfo.applicationDomain; // To get the error, uncomment these lines... //var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/tiny.swf"); //var loader:Loader = new Loader(); //loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTinyLoadComplete); //loader.load(request); // ...and comment this one: onTinyLoadComplete(); } private function onTinyLoadComplete(e:Event = null):void { var spriteClass:Class = Class(testAppDomain.getDefinition("TopSymbol")); var sprite:Sprite = Sprite(new spriteClass()); sprite.x = sprite.y = 200; addChild(sprite); } } } With the second loading operation commented out as shown above, the code works. However, if the second loading operation is uncommented and onTinyLoadComplete runs after the second SWF is loaded, the line containing new spriteClass() fails with the following exception: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@2dc8ba1 to SubSymbol. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at TopSymbol() at DynamicLoading/onTinyLoadComplete()[C:\Users\...\TestFlash\DynamicLoading.as:38] test.swf and tiny.swf were created in Flash CS4. test.swf contains two symbols, both exported for ActionScript, one called TopSymbol and one called SubSymbol. SubSymbol contains a simple graphic (a scribble) and TopSymbol contains a single instance of SubSymbol. tiny.swf contains nothing; it is the result of publishing a new, empty ActionScript 3 project. If I modify test.swf so that SubSymbol is not exported for ActionScript, the error goes away, but in our real project we need the ability to dynamically load sprite classes that contain other, exported sprite classes as children. Any ideas as to what is causing this, or how to fix it?

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  • Pagination number elements do not work - jquery

    - by ClarkSKent
    Hello, I am trying to get my pagination links to work. It seems when I click any of the pagination number links to go the next page, the new content does not load. literally nothing happens and when looking at the console in Firebug, nothing is sent or loaded. I have on the main page 3 links to filter the content and display it. When any of these links are clicked the results are loaded and displayed along with the associated pagination numbers for that specific content. Here is the main page so you can see what the structure looks like for the jquery: <?php include_once('generate_pagination.php'); ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery_pagination.js"></script> <div id="loading" ></div> <div id="content" data-page="1"></div> <ul id="pagination"> <?php generate_pagination($sql) ?> </ul> <br /> <br /> <a href="#" class="category" id="marketing">Marketing</a> <a href="#" class="category" id="automotive">Automotive</a> <a href="#" class="category" id="sports">Sports</a> The jquery below is pretty simple and I don't think I need to explain what it does. I believe the problem may be with the $("#pagination li").click(function(){ since the li elements are the numbers that do not work when clicked. Even when I try to fadeOut or hide the content on click nothing happens. I'm pretty new to the jquery structure so I do not fully understand where the real problem is occurring, this is just from my observation. The jquery file looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ //Display Loading Image function Display_Load() { $("#loading").fadeIn(900,0); $("#loading").html("<img src='bigLoader.gif' />"); } //Hide Loading Image function Hide_Load() { $("#loading").fadeOut('slow'); }; //Default Starting Page Results $("#pagination li:first").css({'color' : '#FF0084'}).css({'border' : 'none'}); Display_Load(); $("#content").load("pagination_data.php?page=1", Hide_Load()); //Pagination Click $("#pagination li").click(function(){ Display_Load(); //CSS Styles $("#pagination li") .css({'border' : 'solid #dddddd 1px'}) .css({'color' : '#0063DC'}); $(this) .css({'color' : '#FF0084'}) .css({'border' : 'none'}); //Loading Data var pageNum = this.id; $("#content").load("pagination_data.php?page=" + pageNum, function(){ $(this).attr('data-page', pageNum); Hide_Load(); }); }); // Editing below. // Sort content Marketing $("a.category").click(function() { Display_Load(); var this_id = $(this).attr('id'); $.get("pagination.php", { category: this.id }, function(data){ //Load your results into the page var pageNum = $('#content').attr('data-page'); $("#pagination").load('generate_pagination.php?category=' + pageNum +'&ids='+ this_id ); $("#content").load("filter_marketing.php?page=" + pageNum +'&id='+ this_id, Hide_Load()); }); }); }); If anyone could help me on this that would be great, Thanks. EDIT: Here are the innards of <ul id="pagination">: <?php function generate_pagination($sql) { include_once('config.php'); $per_page = 3; //Calculating no of pages $result = mysql_query($sql); $count = mysql_fetch_row($result); $pages = ceil($count[0]/$per_page); //Pagination Numbers for($i=1; $i<=$pages; $i++) { echo '<li class="page_numbers" id="'.$i.'">'.$i.'</li>'; } } $ids=$_GET['ids']; generate_pagination("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM explore WHERE category='$ids'"); ?>

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • Understanding SingleTableEntityPersister n QueryLoader

    - by Iapilgrim
    Hi, I have the Hibernate model @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONE, region = SitesConstants.CACHE_REGION) public class Node extends StatefulEntity implements Inheritable, Cloneable { private Node _parent; private List<Node> _childNodes; .. } @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONE, region = SitesConstants.CACHE_REGION) public class Page extends Node implements Defaultable, Securable { private RootZone _rootZone; ...... @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "root_zone_id", insertable = false, updatable = false) public RootZone getRootZone() { return _rootZone; } public void setRootZone(RootZone rootZone) { if (rootZone != null) { rootZone.setPageId(this.getId()); _rootZone = rootZone; } } I want to get all pages ( call getSiteTree), so I using this query String hpql = "SELECT n FROM Node n "; See the trace I find Page.setRootZone(RootZone) line: 155 NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Method, Object, Object[]) line: not available [native method] NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 39 DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 25 Method.invoke(Object, Object...) line: 597 BasicPropertyAccessor$BasicSetter.set(Object, Object, SessionFactoryImplementor) line: 66 PojoEntityTuplizer(AbstractEntityTuplizer).setPropertyValues(Object, Object[]) line: 352 PojoEntityTuplizer.setPropertyValues(Object, Object[]) line: 232 SingleTableEntityPersister(AbstractEntityPersister).setPropertyValues(Object, Object[], EntityMode) line: 3580 TwoPhaseLoad.initializeEntity(Object, boolean, SessionImplementor, PreLoadEvent, PostLoadEvent) line: 152 QueryLoader(Loader).initializeEntitiesAndCollections(List, Object, SessionImplementor, boolean) line: 877 QueryLoader(Loader).doQuery(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, boolean) line: 752 QueryLoader(Loader).doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, boolean) line: 259 QueryLoader(Loader).doList(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 2232 QueryLoader(Loader).listIgnoreQueryCache(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 2129 QueryLoader(Loader).list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, Set, Type[]) line: 2124 QueryLoader.list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 401 QueryTranslatorImpl.list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 363 HQLQueryPlan.performList(QueryParameters, SessionImplementor) line: 196 SessionImpl.list(String, QueryParameters) line: 1149 QueryImpl.list() line: 102 QueryImpl.getResultList() line: 67 NodeDaoImpl.getSiteTree(long) line: 358 PageNodeServiceImpl.getSiteTree(long) line: 797 NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Method, Object, Object[]) line: not available [native method] NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 39 DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 25 Method.invoke(Object, Object...) line: 597 AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 307 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 198 $Proxy100.getSiteTree(long) line: not available the calling setRootZone in Page makes Hibernate issue a hit to database. I don't want this. So my question is + Why query String hpql = "SELECT n FROM Node n "; issues un-expected trace logs like above. Why the query String hpql = "SELECT n.nodename FROM Node n " not? What is the mechanism behind? Note: Im using hibernate caching level 2. In case I don't want to see that trace logs. I mean I just get Node data only. How to do ? Thanks for your help. Sorry for my bad english :( Van

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • WTF is wtf? (in WebKit code base)

    - by Motti
    I downloaded Chromium's code base and ran across the WTF namespace. namespace WTF { /* * C++'s idea of a reinterpret_cast lacks sufficient cojones. */ template<typename TO, typename FROM> TO bitwise_cast(FROM in) { COMPILE_ASSERT(sizeof(TO) == sizeof(FROM), WTF_wtf_reinterpret_cast_sizeof_types_is_equal); union { FROM from; TO to; } u; u.from = in; return u.to; } } // namespace WTF Does this mean what I think it means? Could be so, the bitwise_cast implementation specified here will not compile if either TO or FROM is not a POD and is not (AFAIK) more powerful than C++ built in reinterpret_cast. The only point of light I see here is the nobody seems to be using bitwise_cast in the Chromium project. I see there's some legalese so I'll put in the little letters to keep out of trouble. /* * Copyright (C) 2008 Apple Inc. All Rights Reserved. * * Redistribution and use in source and binary forms, with or without * modification, are permitted provided that the following conditions * are met: * 1. Redistributions of source code must retain the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer. * 2. Redistributions in binary form must reproduce the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer in the * documentation and/or other materials provided with the distribution. * * THIS SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED BY APPLE INC. ``AS IS'' AND ANY * EXPRESS OR IMPLIED WARRANTIES, INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, THE * IMPLIED WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY AND FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR * PURPOSE ARE DISCLAIMED. IN NO EVENT SHALL APPLE INC. OR * CONTRIBUTORS BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT, INDIRECT, INCIDENTAL, SPECIAL, * EXEMPLARY, OR CONSEQUENTIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, * PROCUREMENT OF SUBSTITUTE GOODS OR SERVICES; LOSS OF USE, DATA, OR * PROFITS; OR BUSINESS INTERRUPTION) HOWEVER CAUSED AND ON ANY THEORY * OF LIABILITY, WHETHER IN CONTRACT, STRICT LIABILITY, OR TORT * (INCLUDING NEGLIGENCE OR OTHERWISE) ARISING IN ANY WAY OUT OF THE USE * OF THIS SOFTWARE, EVEN IF ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGE. */

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  • Tomcat JMX connection - Authentication failed.

    - by ziggy
    I am having some problems setting up Tomcat for JMX. I added the following properties to CATALINA_OPTS="-Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=18070 -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.password.file=$CATALINA_BASE/conf/jmxremote.password -Dcom.sun .management.jmxremote.ssl=false" And have added the jmxremote.password file in to the conf directory. I wrote a client tool that connects to the JMX server running on port 18070. When i run the client program i get the following error. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.SecurityException: Authentication failed! Credentials required at com.sun.jmx.remote.security.JMXPluggableAuthenticator.authenticationFailure(JMXPluggableAuthenticator.java:193) at com.sun.jmx.remote.security.JMXPluggableAuthenticator.authenticate(JMXPluggableAuthenticator.java:145) at sun.management.jmxremote.ConnectorBootstrap$AccessFileCheckerAuthenticator.authenticate(ConnectorBootstrap.java:185) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl.doNewClient(RMIServerImpl.java:213) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl.newClient(RMIServerImpl.java:180) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(UnicastServerRef.java:305) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Transport.java:159) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Transport.java:155) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(TCPTransport.java:535) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(TCPTransport.java:790) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run(TCPTransport.java:649) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:885) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:907) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.exceptionReceivedFromServer(StreamRemoteCall.java:255) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(StreamRemoteCall.java:233) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:142) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl_Stub.newClient(Unknown Source) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIConnector.getConnection(RMIConnector.java:2312) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIConnector.connect(RMIConnector.java:277) at javax.management.remote.JMXConnectorFactory.connect(JMXConnectorFactory.java:248) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.accessors.C21TkProbeJmxDAO.connect(Unknown Source) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.service.C21TkProbeBD.execute(Unknown Source) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.C21AppserverProbe.main(Unknown Source) If i change the CATALINA_OPTS properties to CATALINA_OPTS="-Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=18070 -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.password.file=$CATALINA_BASE/conf/jmxremote.password -Dcom.sun .management.jmxremote.ssl=false -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.authenticate=false" Then it works fine. I think what i am confused of is what is classed as remote access. I am running the client program away from the Tomcat instance but both Tomcat and the client tool are on the same machine (i.e. different virtual machines but same environemnt). I thought i had to configure the remote authentication if i access the JMX server remotely from a different machine. By remote access do they mean accessing the JMX server from any VM either locally or remotely?

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  • find style attribute using jquery

    - by Rubans
    HI, I want to find all input elements in a HTML string that has display not set to none. I have tried with JQuery and it doesn't seem to like looking for in the style attribute. Any ideas? I have the following HTML: <SPAN style="DISPLAY: none">4B holdings AG</SPAN><SPAN dropdownCell="onShowInvestorDropDown(ele, currentText)"></SPAN><INPUT style="DISPLAY: none" value="4B holdings AG" name=potbookgrid$ctl00$ctl08$ctl02> <DIV id=investorComboBoxPC> <DIV class="RadComboBox RadComboBox_Default" id=ctl02 style="DISPLAY: inline; WIDTH: 416px; ZOOM: 1" value="4B holdings AG"> <TABLE style="BORDER-TOP-WIDTH: 0px; TABLE-LAYOUT: fixed; BORDER-LEFT-WIDTH: 0px; BORDER-BOTTOM-WIDTH: 0px; WIDTH: 100%; BORDER-COLLAPSE: collapse; BORDER-RIGHT-WIDTH: 0px" cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0 summary=combobox border=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class="rcbInputCell rcbInputCellLeft" style="MARGIN-TOP: -1px; MARGIN-BOTTOM: -1px; WIDTH: 100%"><INPUT class=rcbInput id=ctl02_Input style="DISPLAY: block" value="4B holdings AG" name=ctl02 autocomplete="off" jQuery1276253231647="1"></TD> <TD class="rcbArrowCell rcbArrowCellRight rcbArrowCellHidden" style="MARGIN-TOP: -1px; MARGIN-BOTTOM: -1px"><A id=ctl02_Arrow style="DISPLAY: block; OVERFLOW: hidden; POSITION: relative; outline: none">select</A></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> <DIV class=rcbSlide style="Z-INDEX: 6000"><IFRAME style="BORDER-RIGHT: 0px; BORDER-TOP: 0px; FILTER: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Alpha(style=0,opacity=0); LEFT: 0px; BORDER-LEFT: 0px; WIDTH: 0px; BORDER-BOTTOM: 0px; POSITION: absolute; TOP: 0px; HEIGHT: 0px" tabIndex=-1 src="javascript:'';" frameBorder=0>Your browser does not support inline frames or is currently configured not to display inline frames.</IFRAME> <DIV class="RadComboBoxDropDown RadComboBoxDropDown_Default " id=ctl02_DropDown style="DISPLAY: none; FLOAT: left; WIDTH: 416px"> <DIV class=rcbHeader id=ctl02_Header> <TABLE style="TABLE-LAYOUT: fixed"> <TBODY> <TR> <TD width=60>Investor Code</TD> <TD width=150>Investor Name</TD> <TD width=90>City</TD> <TD width=100>Country</TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE></DIV> <DIV class="rcbScroll rcbWidth" style="WIDTH: 100%" jQuery1276253231647="2"></DIV></DIV></DIV><INPUT id=ctl02_ClientState type=hidden value='{"logEntries":[],"value":"","text":"4B holdings AG","enabled":true}' name=ctl02_ClientState autocomplete="off"> </DIV></DIV>

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  • ASP.NET MVC CRUD PartialView Popup Issue

    - by Smiley Face
    I am creating an MVC website which makes use of Partial Views on Popups to handle all my CRUD transactions. Please note that my application can already handle these CRUD operations perfectly (LINQ-To-Entity). However, I have a problem with my popup forms. Below is the code from my _Add.cshtml: @model MyStore.Models.MyModels.ProductsModel @{ Layout = null; } @using (Ajax.BeginForm("_Add", "Products", new AjaxOptions { InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, HttpMethod = "POST", OnSuccess = "addSuccess" }, new { @id = "addForm" })) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) <div id="add-message" class="error invisible"></div> <fieldset> <legend>Products</legend> @Html.HiddenFor(m => Model.ProductCode) <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.ProductName) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.ProductName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ProductName) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Price) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Price) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Price) </div> </fieldset> } Below is the code from my Controller: [HttpGet] public ActionResult _Add(string productCode) { ProductsModel model = newProductsModel(); model.ProductCode = ProductCode ; return PartialView(model); } [HttpPost] public JsonResult _Add(ProductsModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { ProductsManager prod = new ProductsManager(); Products pa = new Products(); pa.ProductCode = model.ProductCode; pa.ProductName = model.ProductName; pa.Price = model.Price; prod.AddProduct(pa); return Json(HelperClass.SuccessResponse(pa), JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } else { return Json(HelperClass.ErrorResponse("Please review your form"), JsonRequestBehavior.DenyGet); } } Please note that the _Add.cshtml is a partial view which is being rendered through a Popup.js which I found on the internet. It is rendered through this code: @Html.ActionLink("[Add Product]", "_Add", new { ProductCode = @ViewData["ProductCode"] }, new { @class = "editLink" }) This works okay. I mean it adds product to my database. But my problem is upon clicking the Proceed button, I get this pop-up download dialog from the page: Can somebody please help me with this? I have a hunch it's because of the HttpMethod i'm using (POST, PUT, GET, DELETE) but i'm not really sure which one is right to use or if it really is the problem in the first place. Any help would be greatly appreciated! PS. Sorry for the long post.

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  • Dependency Injection: I don't get where to start!

    - by Andy
    I have several articles about Dependency Injection, and I can see the benefits, especially when it comes to unit testing. The units can me loosely coupled, and mocking of dependencies can be made. The trouble is - I just don't get where to start. Consider this snippet below of (much edited for the purpose of this post) code that I have. I am instantiating a Plc object from the main form, and passing in a communications mode via the Connect method. In it's present form it becomes hard to test, because I can't isolate the Plc from the CommsChannel to unit test it. (Can I?) The class depends on using a CommsChannel object, but I am only passing in a mode that is used to create this channel within the Plc itself. To use dependancy injection, I should really pass in an already created CommsChannel (via an 'ICommsChannel' interface perhaps) to the Connect method, or maybe via the Plc constructor. Is that right? But then that would mean creating the CommsChannel in my main form first, and this doesn't seem right either, because it feels like everything will come back to the base layer of the main form, where everything begins. Somehow it feels like I am missing a crucial piece of the puzzle. Where do you start? You have to create an instance of something somewhere, but I'm struggling to understand where that should be. public class Plc() { public bool Connect(CommsMode commsMode) { bool success = false; // Create new comms channel. this._commsChannel = this.GetCommsChannel(commsMode); // Attempt connection success = this._commsChannel.Connect(); return this._connected; } private CommsChannel GetCommsChannel(CommsMode mode) { CommsChannel channel; switch (mode) { case CommsMode.RS232: channel = new SerialCommsChannel( SerialCommsSettings.Default.ComPort, SerialCommsSettings.Default.BaudRate, SerialCommsSettings.Default.DataBits, SerialCommsSettings.Default.Parity, SerialCommsSettings.Default.StopBits); break; case CommsMode.Tcp: channel = new TcpCommsChannel( TCPCommsSettings.Default.IP_Address, TCPCommsSettings.Default.Port); break; default: // Throw unknown comms channel exception. } return channel; } }

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  • Speeding up templates in GAE-Py by aggregating RPC calls

    - by Sudhir Jonathan
    Here's my problem: class City(Model): name = StringProperty() class Author(Model): name = StringProperty() city = ReferenceProperty(City) class Post(Model): author = ReferenceProperty(Author) content = StringProperty() The code isn't important... its this django template: {% for post in posts %} <div>{{post.content}}</div> <div>by {{post.author.name}} from {{post.author.city.name}}</div> {% endfor %} Now lets say I get the first 100 posts using Post.all().fetch(limit=100), and pass this list to the template - what happens? It makes 200 more datastore gets - 100 to get each author, 100 to get each author's city. This is perfectly understandable, actually, since the post only has a reference to the author, and the author only has a reference to the city. The __get__ accessor on the post.author and author.city objects transparently do a get and pull the data back (See this question). Some ways around this are Use Post.author.get_value_for_datastore(post) to collect the author keys (see the link above), and then do a batch get to get them all - the trouble here is that we need to re-construct a template data object... something which needs extra code and maintenance for each model and handler. Write an accessor, say cached_author, that checks memcache for the author first and returns that - the problem here is that post.cached_author is going to be called 100 times, which could probably mean 100 memcache calls. Hold a static key to object map (and refresh it maybe once in five minutes) if the data doesn't have to be very up to date. The cached_author accessor can then just refer to this map. All these ideas need extra code and maintenance, and they're not very transparent. What if we could do @prefetch def render_template(path, data) template.render(path, data) Turns out we can... hooks and Guido's instrumentation module both prove it. If the @prefetch method wraps a template render by capturing which keys are requested we can (atleast to one level of depth) capture which keys are being requested, return mock objects, and do a batch get on them. This could be repeated for all depth levels, till no new keys are being requested. The final render could intercept the gets and return the objects from a map. This would change a total of 200 gets into 3, transparently and without any extra code. Not to mention greatly cut down the need for memcache and help in situations where memcache can't be used. Trouble is I don't know how to do it (yet). Before I start trying, has anyone else done this? Or does anyone want to help? Or do you see a massive flaw in the plan?

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  • Crashes in Core Data's Inferred Mapping Model Creation (Lightweight Migration). Threading Issue?

    - by enchilada
    I'm getting random crashes when creating an inferred mapping model (with Core Data's lightweight migration) within my application. By the way, I have to do it programmatically in my application while it is running. This is how I create this model (after I have made proper currentModel and newModel objects, of course): NSMappingModel *mappingModel = [NSMappingModel inferredMappingModelForSourceModel:currentModel destinationModel:newModel error:&error]; The problem is this: This method is crashing randomly. When it works, it works just fine without issues. But when it crashes, it crashes my application (instead of returning nil to signify that the method failed, as it should). By randomly, I mean that sometimes it happens and sometimes not. It is unpredictable. Now, here is the deal: I'm running this method in another thread. More precisely, it is located inside a block that is passed via GCD to run on the global main queue. I need to do this for my UI to appear crisp to the user, i.e. so that I can display a progress indicator while the work is underway. The strange thing seems to be that if I remove the GCD stuff and just let it run on the main thread, it seems to be working fine and never crashing. Thus, could it be because I'm running this on a different thread that this is crashing? I somehow find that weird because I don't believe I'm breaking any Core Data rules regarding multi-threading. In particular, I'm not passing any managed objects around, and whenever I need access to the MOC, I create a new MOC, i.e. I'm not relying on any MOC (or for that matter: anything) that has been created earlier on the main thread. Besides the little MOC stuff that occurs, occurs after the mapping model creation method, i.e. after the point at which the app crashes, so it can't possibly be a cause of the crashes under consideration here. All I'm doing is taking two MOMs and asking for a mapping model between them. That can't be wrong even under threading, now can it? Any ideas on what could be going on?

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  • How to Force an Exception from a Task to be Observed in a Continuation Task?

    - by Richard
    I have a task to perform an HttpWebRequest using Task<WebResponse>.Factory.FromAsync(req.BeginGetRespone, req.EndGetResponse) which can obviously fail with a WebException. To the caller I want to return a Task<HttpResult> where HttpResult is a helper type to encapsulate the response (or not). In this case a 4xx or 5xx response is not an exception. Therefore I've attached two continuations to the request task. One with TaskContinuationOptions OnlyOnRanToCompletion and the other with OnlyOnOnFaulted. And then wrapped the whole thing in a Task<HttpResult> to pick up the one result whichever continuation completes. Each of the three child tasks (request plus two continuations) is created with the AttachedToParent option. But when the caller waits on the returned outer task, an AggregateException is thrown is the request failed. I want to, in the on faulted continuation, observe the WebException so the client code can just look at the result. Adding a Wait in the on fault continuation throws, but a try-catch around this doesn't help. Nor does looking at the Exception property (as section "Observing Exceptions By Using the Task.Exception Property" hints here). I could install a UnobservedTaskException event handler to filter, but as the event offers no direct link to the faulted task this will likely interact outside this part of the application and is a case of a sledgehammer to crack a nut. Given an instance of a faulted Task<T> is there any means of flagging it as "fault handled"? Simplified code: public static Task<HttpResult> Start(Uri url) { var webReq = BuildHttpWebRequest(url); var result = new HttpResult(); var taskOuter = Task<HttpResult>.Factory.StartNew(() => { var tRequest = Task<WebResponse>.Factory.FromAsync( webReq.BeginGetResponse, webReq.EndGetResponse, null, TaskCreationOptions.AttachedToParent); var tError = tRequest.ContinueWith<HttpResult>( t => HandleWebRequestError(t, result), TaskContinuationOptions.AttachedToParent |TaskContinuationOptions.OnlyOnFaulted); var tSuccess = tRequest.ContinueWith<HttpResult>( t => HandleWebRequestSuccess(t, result), TaskContinuationOptions.AttachedToParent |TaskContinuationOptions.OnlyOnRanToCompletion); return result; }); return taskOuter; } with: private static HttpDownloaderResult HandleWebRequestError( Task<WebResponse> respTask, HttpResult result) { Debug.Assert(respTask.Status == TaskStatus.Faulted); Debug.Assert(respTask.Exception.InnerException is WebException); // Try and observe the fault: Doesn't help. try { respTask.Wait(); } catch (AggregateException e) { Log("HandleWebRequestError: waiting on antecedent task threw inner: " + e.InnerException.Message); } // ... populate result with details of the failure for the client ... return result; } (HandleWebRequestSuccess will eventually spin off further tasks to get the content of the response...) The client should be able to wait on the task and then look at its result, without it throwing due to a fault that is expected and already handled.

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  • Autocomplete server-side implementation

    - by toluju
    What is a fast and efficient way to implement the server-side component for an autocomplete feature in an html input box? I am writing a service to autocomplete user queries in our web interface's main search box, and the completions are displayed in an ajax-powered dropdown. The data we are running queries against is simply a large table of concepts our system knows about, which matches roughly with the set of wikipedia page titles. For this service obviously speed is of utmost importance, as responsiveness of the web page is important to the user experience. The current implementation simply loads all concepts into memory in a sorted set, and performs a simple log(n) lookup on a user keystroke. The tailset is then used to provide additional matches beyond the closest match. The problem with this solution is that it does not scale. It currently is running up against the VM heap space limit (I've set -Xmx2g, which is about the most we can push on our 32 bit machines), and this prevents us from expanding our concept table or adding more functionality. Switching to 64-bit VMs on machines with more memory isn't an immediate option. I've been hesitant to start working on a disk-based solution as I am concerned that disk seek time will kill performance. Are there possible solutions that will let me scale better, either entirely in memory or with some fast disk-backed implementations? Edits: @Gandalf: For our use case it is important the the autocompletion is comprehensive and isn't just extra help for the user. As for what we are completing, it is a list of concept-type pairs. For example, possible entries are [("Microsoft", "Software Company"), ("Jeff Atwood", "Programmer"), ("StackOverflow.com", "Website")]. We are using Lucene for the full search once a user selects an item from the autocomplete list, but I am not yet sure Lucene would work well for the autocomplete itself. @Glen: No databases are being used here. When I'm talking about a table I just mean the structured representation of my data. @Jason Day: My original implementation to this problem was to use a Trie, but the memory bloat with that was actually worse than the sorted set due to needing a large number of object references. I'll read on the ternary search trees to see if it could be of use.

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  • how get fully result from Asynchronism communication?

    - by rima
    Hi all refer to these post : here1 and here2 at last I solve my problem by build a asynchronous solution,and it work well!!! but there is a problem that i face with it,now my code is like this: class MyProcessStarter { private Process process; private StreamWriter myStreamWriter; private static StringBuilder shellOutput = null; public String GetShellOutput { get { return shellOutput.ToString(); }} public MyProcessStarter(){ shellOutput = new StringBuilder(""); process = new Process(); process.StartInfo.FileName = "sqlplus"; process.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; process.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; process.OutputDataReceived += new DataReceivedEventHandler(ShellOutputHandler); process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = true; process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); myStreamWriter = process.StandardInput; process.BeginOutputReadLine(); } private static void ShellOutputHandler(object sendingProcess,DataReceivedEventArgs outLine) { if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(outLine.Data)) shellOutput.Append(Environment.NewLine + outLine.Data); } public void closeConnection() { myStreamWriter.Close(); process.WaitForExit(); process.Close(); } public void RunCommand(string arguments) { myStreamWriter.WriteLine(arguments); myStreamWriter.Flush(); process.WaitForExit(100); Console.WriteLine(shellOutput); Console.WriteLine("============="+Environment.NewLine); process.WaitForExit(2000); Console.WriteLine(shellOutput); } } and my input is like this: myProcesStarter.RunCommand("myusername/mypassword"); Console.writeline(myProcesStarter.GetShellOutput); but take a look at my out put: SQL*Plus: Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production on Thu May 20 11:57:38 2010 Copyright (c) 1982, 2007, Oracle. All rights reserved. ============= SQL*Plus: Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production on Thu May 20 11:57:38 2010 Copyright (c) 1982, 2007, Oracle. All rights reserved. Enter user-name: Connected to: Oracle Database 11g Enterprise Edition Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production With the Partitioning, OLAP, Data Mining and Real Application Testing options as u see the output for run a function is not same in different time!So now would you do me a faver and help me that how I can wait until all the output done in other mean how I can customize my process to wait until output finishing ?? because I want to write a sqlcompiler so I need the exact output of shell. plz help me soon.thanxxxxxxxxxxxx :X

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  • Looping through siblings of a specific row/setting up function

    - by Matt
    Trying to work through my javascript book I am referencing to learn the language and got stuck on looping through siblings of a specific row. W3schools and W3 didnt have what i was looking for. Below is a function walk-through... It reads: Create the countRecords() function. The purpose of this function is to count the number of visible rows in the data table after the table headings. The total is then displayed in the table cell with the id "records". Add the follow commands to the function: a. Create a object named headRow that points to the table row with the id "titleRow". Create a variable named rowCount, setting its initial value to 0. b. Create a for loop that uses familial references starting with the first sibling of headRow and moving to the next sibling until there are no siblings left. Within the for loop. test whether the node name of the currentnext sibling until there are no sibilings left. Within the for loop test whether the node name of the current node is equal to "TR". If it is, test wheter the value of its display style is equal to an empty text string. If it is (indicating that it is visible in the document) increate the value of the rowCount variable by 1. c. Change the text of the "records" table cell to the value of the rowCount variable. Don't use innerHTML. Create a text node that contains the value of the rowCount variable and assign it to a variable called txt. Create a variable called record to store the reference to the element "records" table cell. d. Insert an if condition that test whether the "records" cell has any child nodes. If it does, replace the replace the text node of the "record" table cell with the created text node (txt). If it doesn't append the text node to the cell. var headRow; // part a var rowCount = 0; //part b this is where I get lost. I know I need to access the id titleRow but unsure how to set my loop up specifically for this headRow = document.getElementById("titleRow"); for(var i=0; i<headrow.length; i++) { if (something is not equal == "TH") { make code happen here } if (is "TR" == ""){ rowCount = +1; } //part c var txt = document.createTextNode(rowCount); var record = document.getElementsById("records") //part d holding off on this part until I get a,b,c figured out. The HTML supporting snippet: <table id="filters"> <tr><th colspan="2">Filter Product List</th></tr> <tr> <td>Records: </td> <td id="records"></td> </tr> <table id="prodTable"> <tr><th colspan="8">Digital Cameras</th></tr> <tr id="titleRow"> <th>Model</th> <th>Manufacturer</th> <th>Resolution</th> <th>Zoom</th> <th>Media</th> <th>Video</th> <th>Microphone</th> </tr> Thanks for the help!

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • CSS Rollovers: how to main "hit area" size when hidden image is larger than anchor area

    - by nukefusion
    I have a small problem and I don't think what I want to do can be achieved with just pure CSS, but I figured I'd ask anyway. Basically, I have one DIV which contains a hyperlinked element that is smaller in size to it's parent DIV. So in effect I have a square within a square with the inner square being the "hit area". When I mouse over this inner square I want the background of the outer square to change. I know it's not possible to change the parent DIV's background on a:hover, but I figured I could give the illusion of it happening by nesting a hidden image inside the anchor. This works great until I want to "roll off". The problem is that I want the image to disappear when I leave the area of the anchor tag, not the larger hidden image. Is this possible? For the benefit of everyone I've provided an example to demonstrate what I mean: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="Content-Type" /> <title>Test Rollover</title> <link href="main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> <body> <div id="d1"> <a href="#nogo"> <b id="b1"></b> <b id="b2"></b> </a> </div> </body> And the css: #b1 { width: 200px; height: 200px; top: 100px; left: 100px; background-color:aqua; position: absolute; } #b2 { width: 400px; height: 400px; background-color:lime; position: absolute; display: none; } #d1 { width: 400px; height: 400px; background-color:fuchsia; position: relative; } #d1 a:hover #b2 { display: block; } In this example I want the green outer square to disappear when I leave the bounds of the hidden inner blue square.

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