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  • Website running JavaScript setInterval starts to fail after ~1day

    - by Martin Clemens Bloch
    I wish I could be more specific here, but unfortunately this might be hard. I basically hope this is some "well"-known timeout or setup issue. We have a website running an (JS/html - ASP.net project) website overview on a screen at a factory. This screen has no keyboard so it should keep refreshing the page forever - years perhaps (though 1 week might be okay). (It is used by factory workers to see incoming transports etc.) This all works perfectly; the site continuously updates itself and gets the new correct data. Then, sometimes, in the morning this "overview" screen has no data and the workers have to manually refresh the site using the simple refresh button or F5 - which fixes everything. I have tried a few things trying to reproduce the error myself including: Cutting the internet connection and MANY other ways of making it timeout (breakpoints, stopping services etc.). Setting the refresh time of setInterval to 100ms and letting the site run 3-5 minutes. (normal timer is 1 minute) setInterval SHOULD run forever according to the internet searching I have done. Checked that "JavaScript frequency" has not been turned down in power saving settings. No matter what; the site resumes correct function WITHOUT a refresh as soon as I plug in the internet cable or whatever again - I can't reproduce the error. The website is dependent on a backend WCF service and project integration, but since the workers are fixing this with a simple refresh I am assuming this has not crashed. EDIT: The browser I tried to reproduce the error in was IE/win7. I will ask about the factory tomorrow, but I am guessing IE/win? also. Is setInterval in fact really infinite or is there something else wrong here? All help much appreciated. 0.5 bitcoin reward for solving answer ;)

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  • Closing Connections on asynchronous messaging in JMS

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi Everyone! I have created a JMS wrapper (similar to Springs JmsTemplate since I'm not using Springs) and I was wondering: If I setup asynchronous messaging, when is a good time to close connections and JMS relates resources (so that the Connection Factory in the Resource Pool can be available)? Thanks Here's the source code for receiving JMS messages public Message receive() throws JMSException { QueueConnection connection = null; QueueSession session = null; QueueReceiver consumer = null; try { // TODO Auto-generated method stub connection = factory.createQueueConnection(); if (connection != null && getExceptionListener() != null) { connection.setExceptionListener(getExceptionListener()); } session = connection.createQueueSession(isSessionTransacted(), getAcknowledgeMode()); consumer = session.createReceiver(queue); if (getMessageListener() != null) { consumer.setMessageListener(getMessageListener()); } //Begin connection.start(); if (getMessageListener() == null) { return null; } return receive(session, consumer); } catch (JMSException e) { // TODO: handle exception logger.error(e.getLocalizedMessage(), e); throw e; } finally { JMSUtil.closeMessageConsumer(consumer); JMSUtil.closeSession(session, false); //false = don't commit. JMSUtil.closeConnection(connection, true); //true = stop before close. } As you can see, if getMessageListener() != null then apply it to the MessageConsumer. Am I doing this correctly? The same approach has also been taken for JMS Topic.

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  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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  • Can I use pdb files to step through a 3rd party assembly?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, my friend has made a really helpful class library which I use all the time. I usually use Reflector to see what his code does. What I really wanted to do was to step through his code while I'm debugging. So he gave me his .pdb file. Foo.dll (release configuration, compile) Foo.pdb Now, I'm not sure how I can get it to auto break into his code when it throws an exception (his code, at various points, thorws exceptions .. like A first chance exception of type 'System.Web.HttpException' occurred in Foo.dll ... Can I do this? Do i need to setup something with the Symbol Server settings in Visual Studio ? Do i need to get the dll compiled into Debug Configuration and be passed the .dll and .pdb files? Or (and i'm really afraid of this one) .. do i need to have both the .dll, .pdb AND his source code ... I also had a look at this previous SO question, but it sorta didn't help (but proof I've tried to search before asking a question). Can someone help me please?

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  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

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  • Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

    - by murat
    Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

    - by Blair Holloway
    In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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  • Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

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  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

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  • What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

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  • Identify machines behind a router uniquely based on ipaddress

    - by Amith George
    Some background first. I have a .net client agent installed on each of the machines in the lan. They are interacting with my central server [website] also on the same lan. It is important for my website to figure out which of the machines can talk to each other. For example, machines of one subnet cannot directly talk to machines of another subnet without configuring the routers and such. But machines in the same subnet should be able to talk to each other directly. The problem I am facing is when the lan setup is like in Figure 1. Because Comp1, Comp2 and Comp3 are behind a router, they have got the ipaddress 192.168.1.2 till 192.168.1.4. My client agent on these machines report the same ipaddress back to the server. However, machines Comp4, Comp5 also have the same ipaddresses. Thus, as far as my server is concerned, there are 2 machines with the same ipaddress. Not just that, because the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 for all machines, my server is fooled into thinking that Comp1 can directly talk to Comp5, which is not possible. So, how do I solve this? What do I need to change in my client or in my server, so that I can support this scenario. These two are the only things in my control.

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  • Cucumber-rails on jruby installs gem into my apps root directory with bundler

    - by brad
    Just installed cucumber 0.7.2 and cucumber-rails 0.3.1 with jruby-1.4.0 on OSX. When I run a bundle install, it places a cucumber-rails directory in my main app with all of the gem code/dependencies. First off, this is definitely not what I want and I'm not sure why this happens for cucumber-rails only. Second, if I delete this folder and just manually install cucumber-rails, when I run script/generate feature blah I get /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/source_index.rb:344:in `refresh!': source index not created from disk (RuntimeError) from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:34:in `refresh!' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:29:in `initialize' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `new' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `add_frozen_gem_path' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:298:in `add_gem_load_paths' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:132:in `process' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run' from /Users/bradrobertson/Repos/app/source/trunk/config/environment.rb:13 from /Users/bradrobertson/Repos/app/source/trunk/config/environment.rb:1:in `require' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/commands/generate.rb:1 from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/commands/generate.rb:3:in `require' from script/generate:3 Similarly running rake cucumber I get rake aborted! source index not created from disk So something obviously doesn't work. If I add that cucumber-rails directory back in, then my rake cucumber actually runs. Can someone tell me why it would need to install the gem right in my rails app? I've never seen this before. setup jruby-1.4.0 cucumber-0.7.2 cucumber-rails 0.3.1 bundler 0.9.23 webrat 0.7.1

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  • wscript.shell running file with space in path with PHP

    - by ermac2014
    I was trying to use wscript.shell through COM objects with php to pass some cmd commands to cURL library (the DOS version). here is what I use to perform this task: function windExec($cmd,$mode=''){ // Setup the command to run from "run" $cmdline = "cmd /C $cmd"; // set-up the output and mode if ($mode=='FG'){ $outputfile = uniqid(time()) . ".txt"; $cmdline .= " > $outputfile"; $m = true; } else $m = false; // Make a new instance of the COM object $WshShell = new COM("WScript.Shell"); // Make the command window but dont show it. $oExec = $WshShell->Run($cmdline, 0, $m); if ($outputfile){ // Read the tmp file. $retStr = file_get_contents($outputfile); // Delete the temp_file. unlink($outputfile); } else $retStr = ""; return $retStr; } now when I run this function like: windExec("\"C:/Documents and Settings/ermac/Desktop/my project/curl\" http://www.google.com/", 'FG'); curl doesn't run because there is a problem with the path. but when I remove the spaces from the path it works great. windExec("\"C:/curl\" http://www.google.com/", 'FG'); so my question is how can I escape these spaces in wscript.shell commands? is there anyway I can fix this? thanks in advance :)

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  • Intel IA-32 Assembly

    - by Kay
    I'm having a bit of difficulty converting the following java code into Intel IA-32 Assembly: class Person() { char name [8]; int age; void printName() {...} static void printAdults(Person [] list) { for(int k = 0; k < 100; k++){ if (list[k].age >= 18) { list[k].printName(); } } } } My attempt is: Person: push ebp; save callers ebp mov ebp, esp; setup new ebp push esi; esi will hold name push ebx; ebx will hold list push ecx; ecx will hold k init: mov esi, [ebp + 8]; mov ebx, [ebp + 12]; mov ecx, 0; k=0 forloop: cmp ecx, 100; jge end; if k>= 100 then break forloop cmp [ebx + 4 * ecx], 18 ; jl auxloop; if list[k].age < 18 then go to auxloop jmp printName; printName: auxloop: inc ecx; jmp forloop; end: pop ecx; pop ebx; pop esi; pop ebp; Is my code correct? NOTE: I'm not allowed to use global variables.

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  • How do I create a dynamic data transfer object dynamically from ADO.net model

    - by Richard
    I have a pretty simple database with 5 tables, PK's and relationships setup, etc. I also have an ASP.net MVC3 project I'm using to create simple web services to feed JSON/XML to a mobile app using post/get. To access my data I'm using an ADO.net entity model class to handle generation of the entities, etc. Due to issues with serialization/circular references created by the auto-generated relations from ADO.net entity model, I've been forced to create "Data transfer objects" to strip out the relations and data that doesn't need to be transferred. Question 1: is there an easier way to create DTOs using the entity framework itself? IE, specify only the entity properties I want to convert to Jsonresults? I don't wish to use any 3rd party frameworks if I can help it. Question 2: A side question for Entity Framework, say I create an ADO.net entity model in one project within a solution. Because that model relies on the connection to the database specified in project A, can project B somehow use that model with a similar connection? Both projects are in the same solution. Thanks!

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  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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  • How to correctly waitFor() a saveScreenShot() end of execution.

    - by Alain
    Here is my full first working test: var expect = require('chai').expect; var assert = require('assert'); var webdriverjs = require('webdriverjs'); var client = {}; var webdriverOptions = { desiredCapabilities: { browserName: 'phantomjs' }, logLevel: 'verbose' }; describe('Test mysite', function(){ before(function() { client = webdriverjs.remote( webdriverOptions ); client.init(); }); var selector = "#mybodybody"; it('should see the correct title', function(done) { client.url('http://localhost/mysite/') .getTitle( function(err, title){ expect(err).to.be.null; assert.strictEqual(title, 'My title page' ); }) .waitFor( selector, 2000, function(){ client.saveScreenshot( "./ExtractScreen.png" ); }) .waitFor( selector, 7000, function(){ }) .call(done); }); after(function(done) { client.end(done); }); }); Ok, it does not do much, but after working many hours to get the environement correctly setup, it passed. Now, the only way I got it working is by playing with the waitFor() method and adjust the delays. It works, but I still do not understand how to surely wait for a png file to be saved on disk. As I will deal with tests orders, I will eventually get hung up from the test script before securely save the file. Now, How can I improve this screen save sequence and avoid loosing my screenshot ? Thanks.

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  • Paypal Encrypted Website payments

    - by John Isaacks
    I am trying to integrate a PayPal Website Payments Standard Cart Upload payment type into my shopping cart. I integrated Google Checkout a while back and I did not find it overly confusing as I do paypal. I am getting info on how to encrypt it from here: https://cms.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/?&cmd=_render-content&content_ID=developer/e_howto_html_encryptedwebpayments#id08A3I0P017Q Paypal says I need to generate a private key and a public certificate using OpenSSL. I went to OpenSSL and downloaded the latest release, which is just a folder containing various files but I see no application I can use, not sure what to do here. Even if I were to get OpenSSL to generate me a private key and public cert, the next step is to download either an MS or Java command line tool to create the encrypted cart ahead of time with the cart-total, tax, etc. which sounds crazy to me, like I am supposed to manually do this prior to every order?? Obviously I do not know the items in the cart the customer is going to buy before hand so I need this to be done on the fly on my website using PHP. But I am completely lost. There has to be a way to setup dynamic secure cart uploads to paypal. Can someone please point me in the right direction?

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  • Redirect parent of a page from a cfwindow

    - by Ryan French
    Hi All, I have a page with cfwindow that require the user to be logged in to view the content on the page. The problem at the moment is if the user logs into the site, then does nothing and the session times out, I have no way that I can think of to redirect the parent of the window to the login screen when the user opens it. So far I have tried using cflocation but that has no way of specifying the container that should be redirected (i.e. the page in the window is being redirected but not the windows parent). I have also thought about using a hidden input with a value based on the session which is then check with Body onLoad event but currently this doesnt work with how the pages have been setup. The last option I have is to check the session variable on loading the window and then closing it if the user is not logged in, which will cause the parent to refresh and redirect to login anyway. However I cant find a way to close a cfwindow without using javascript. Thanks for any help you can give.

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  • FILE* issue PPU side code

    - by Cristina
    We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

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  • How to model parent to child pair in MySQL (SQL)

    - by mikeschuld
    I have a data model that includes element types Stage, Actor, and Form. Logically, Stages can be assigned pairs of ( Form <--- Actor ) which can be duplicated many times (i.e. same person and same form added to the same stage at a later date/time). Right now I am modeling this with these tables: Stage Form Actor Form_Actor _______________ |Id | |FormId | --> Id in Form |ActorId | --> Id in Actor Stage_FormActor __________________ |Id | |StageId | --> Id in Stage |FormActorId | --> Id in Form_Actor I am using CodeSmith to generate the data layer for this setup and none of the templates really know how to handle this type of relationship correctly when generating classes. Ideally, the ORM would have Stage.FormActors where FormActor would be the pair Form, Actor. Is this the correct way to model these relationships. I have tried using all three Ids in one table as well Stage_Form_Actor ______________ |Id | |StageId | --> Id in Stage |FormId | --> Id in Form |ActorId | --> Id in Actor This doesn't really get generated very well either. Ideas?

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  • What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

    - by Yishai
    I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

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  • CATransaction: Layer Changes But Does Not Animate

    - by macinjosh
    I'm trying to animate part of UI in an iPad app when the user taps a button. I have this code in my action method. It works in the sense that the UI changes how I expect but it does not animate the changes. It simply immediately changes. I must be missing something: - (IBAction)someAction:(id)sender { UIViewController *aViewController = <# Get an existing UIViewController #>; UIView *viewToAnimate = aViewController.view; CALayer *layerToAnimate = viewToAnimate.layer; [CATransaction begin]; [CATransaction setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; CATransform3D rotateTransform = CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.3, 0, 0, 1); CATransform3D scaleTransform = CATransform3DMakeScale(0.10, 0.10, 0.10); CATransform3D positionTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(24, 423, 0); CATransform3D combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(rotateTransform, scaleTransform); combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(combinedTransform, positionTransform); layerToAnimate.transform = combinedTransform; [CATransaction commit]; // rest of method... } I've tried simplifying the animation to just change the opacity (for example) and it still will not animate. The opacity just changes instantly. That leads me to believe something is not setup properly. Any clues would be helpful!

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  • Sphinx - Python modules, classes and functions documentation

    - by user343934
    Hi everyone, I am trying to document my small project through sphinx which im recently trying to get familiar with. I read some tutorials and sphinx documentation but couldn't make it. Setup and configurations are ok! just have problems in using sphinx in a technical way. My table of content should look like this --- Overview .....Contents ----Configuration ....Contents ---- System Requirements .....Contents ---- How to use .....Contents ---- Modules ..... Index ......Display ----Help ......Content Moreover my focus is on Modules with docstrings. Details of Modules are Directory:- c:/wamp/www/project/ ----- Index.py >> Class HtmlTemplate: .... def header(): .... def body(): .... def form(): .... def header(): .... __init_main: ##inline function ----- display.py >> Class MainDisplay: .... def execute(): .... def display(): .... def tree(): .... __init_main: ##inline function My Documentation Directory:- c:/users/abc/Desktop/Documentation/doc/ --- _build --- _static --- _templates --- conf.py --- index.rst I have added Modules directory to the system environment and edited index.rst with following codes just to test Table of content. But i couldn't extract docstring directly Index.rst T-Alignment Documentation The documentation covers general overview of the application covering functionalities and requirements in details. To know how to use application its better to go through the documentation. .. _overview: Overview .. _System Requirement: System Requirement Seq-alignment tools can be used in varied systems base on whether all intermediary applications are available or not like in Windows, Mac, Linux and UNIX. But, it has been tested on the Windows working under a beta version. System Applications Server .. _Configuration:: Configuration Basic steps in configuration involves in following categories Environment variables Apache setting .. _Modules:: Modules How can i continue from here... Moreover, i am just a beginner to sphinx documentation tool I need your suggestions to brings my modules docstring to my documentation page Thanks

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