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• Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

  - by Jack

  Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

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• Retrieving ids from MySQL query

  - by Matt Maclennan

  I am having trouble accessing the "model_id" and "brand_id" from the foreach loop that I am using. They are the right field names, because I have echoed them successfully, and I have also "var_dumped" the array, and the IDs are there. It is just a case of implementing the relevant links on each list section. Below is the code I have. <? $output = mysqli_query("SELECT * FROM bikes, bikeTypes WHERE bikes.model_id = bikeTypes.model_id"); $result = array(); while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($output)) { $result[$row['model']][] = $row; } foreach ($result as $category => $values) { echo "<li><a href='test.php?id=" . $row['model_id'] . "'>".$category.'</a><ul>'; foreach ($values as $value) { echo "<li><a href='details.php?id=" . $row['brand_id'] . "'>" . $value['bikeName'] . "</a></li>"; } echo '</ul>'; echo '</li>'; } ?>

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• Select ID in table ...

  - by Kris-I

  Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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• how to place dropdown list box in jquery grid column

  - by kumar

  Hello friends, I have a jquery grid columns defined like this.. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using Trirand.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace JQGridMVCExamples.Models { public class OrdersJqGridModel { public OrdersJqGridModel() { OrdersGrid = new JQGrid { Columns = new List<JQGridColumn>() { new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderID", Width = 50 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderDate", Width = 100, DataFormatString = "{0:d}" }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "CustomerID", Width = 100 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "Freight", Width = 75 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "ShipName" } }, Width = Unit.Pixel(640) }; OrdersGrid.ToolBarSettings.ShowRefreshButton = true; } public JQGrid OrdersGrid { get; set; } } } and in the view I am caling like this <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> I am getting result perfect.. but for column Freight in the Jquery grid I need to place a dropdown list dynamically for all result rows.. can anyone help me out.. THanks

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• Implicit Type Conversions in Reflection

  - by bradhe

  So I've written a quick bit of code to help quickly convert between business objects and view models. Not to pimp my own blog, but you can find the details here if you're interested or need to know. One issue I've run in to is that I have a custom collection type, ProductCollection, and I need to turn that in to a string[] in on my model. Obviously, since there is no default implicit cast, I'm getting an exception in my contract converter. So, I thought I would write the next little bit of code and that should solve the problem: public static implicit operator string[](ProductCollection collection) { var list = new List<string>(); foreach (var product in collection) { if (product.Id == null) { list.Add(null); } else { list.Add(product.Id.ToString()); } } return list.ToArray(); } However, it still fails with the same cast exception. I'm wondering if it has something to do with being in reflection? If so, is there anything that I can do here?? I'm open to architectural solutions, too!

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• Alternative for table mark-up in ASP.NET not working properly

  - by yetanothercoder

  Using Visual WebDeveloper 2010 Express and ASP.NET 4.0 Don't know whether its relevant but the whole thing is in a ContentPlaceHolder and inside an UpdatePanel. To avoid using the old table tr td model, I have created a simple form like this <div class="admin-form"> <asp:Label ID="UserNameLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="User Name" /> <asp:TextBox ID="UserNameText" runat="server" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="PasswordLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Password" /> <asp:TextBox ID="PasswordText" runat="server" TextMode="Password" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="ConfirmPasswordLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Confirm Password" /> <asp:TextBox ID="ConfirmPasswordText" runat="server" TextMode="Password" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="EmailLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Email" /> <asp:TextBox ID="EmailText" runat="server" Width="200px"/> <br /> <br /> <br /> <span class="form-label"></span> <asp:Button ID="CreateUserButton" runat="server" CssClass="button blue" Text="Create New User"/> </div> And the CSS .form-label { width: 300px !important; } This renders incorrectly as I would like to have all textboxes vertically lined after taking 300px. What is wrong? P.S: I cannot use HTML Controls like label as I have resx for globalization

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• Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

  - by Alex Cruise

  Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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• How do I get Asp.net MVC BeginForm to add closing tag correctly?

  - by Matt

  I seem to be missing something obvious here, but cannot see what it is. My problem is that the closing form tag for BeginForm is not being added to my markup. I am looping through a collection and creating a form for each item, but the forms arent closing properly. Any suggestions please? Thanks <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("EditUser","Users")) { %> <tr> <td> <input id="contactID" type="hidden" value="<%= item.ContactID %>" /> <%=item.Email %> </td> <td> <%=item.Market.MarketName%> </td> <td> <%=item.ContactType.ContactTypeName%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Edit" /> </td> </tr> <%} %> <% } %>

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• How can I unit test my custom validation attribute

  - by MightyAtom

  I have a custom asp.net mvc class validation attribute. My question is how can I unit test it? It would be one thing to test that the class has the attribute but this would not actually test that the logic inside it. This is what I want to test. [Serializable] [EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute(ErrorMessage = "You must answer yes or no to all questions")] public class Eligability { [BooleanRequiredToBeTrue(ErrorMessage = "You must agree to the statements listed")] public bool StatementAgree { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please choose an option")] public bool? Income { get; set; } .....removed for brevity } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute : ValidationAttribute { // If AnyDebts is true then // StudentDebts must be true or false public override bool IsValid(object value) { Eligability elig = (Eligability)value; bool ok = true; if (elig.AnyDebts == true) { if (elig.StudentDebts == null) { ok = false; } } return ok; } } I have tried to write a test as follows but this does not work: [TestMethod] public void Eligability_model_StudentDebts_is_required_if_AnyDebts_is_true() { // Arrange var eligability = new Eligability(); var controller = new ApplicationController(); // Act controller.ModelState.Clear(); controller.ValidateModel(eligability); var actionResult = controller.Section2(eligability,null,string.Empty); // Assert Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actionResult, typeof(ViewResult)); Assert.AreEqual(string.Empty, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewName); Assert.AreEqual(eligability, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.Model); Assert.IsFalse(((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } The ModelStateDictionary does not contain the key for this custom attribute. It only contains the attributes for the standard validation attributes. Why is this? What is the best way to test these custom attributes? Thanks

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• Modelling in Agile Development

  - by bertzzie

  I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

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• .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

  - by mathee

  Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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• How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

  - by jboxer

  In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

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• App crashes every second time a tableview row is selected in navigation controller setup

  - by Thaurin

  Disclaimer first: I'm pretty new to Objective-C and the retain model. I've been developing in a garbage collected .NET environment for the last five years, so I've been spoiled. I'm still learning. I'm having my iPhone app crash with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. It happens in a navigtation controller/tableview setup. When I select a row the first time, no problems. It switches in the child controller without problems. I go back and select the same row again. Program then proceeds to crash. Every other row works fine, but every second time a row is accessed, it's a crash. I've pinpointed the location where this happens. The child controller (which is a class that I reuse for every row of the same type) that's being switched into has an array of NSString's representing the rows that will be displayed. I set it before pushing the child viewcontroller. It's there where this apparently happens. I'm having a hard time debugging this problem, still wrestling with xcode and all. I fear there may be some vital information missing here, but maybe there is something you recognize here.

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• JTable data only shown after scrolling

  - by Christian 'fuzi' Orgler

  I wrote a method, that creates my DefaultTableModel and there I'm going to add my records. When I set the model to my JTable, the data rows are blank. After scrolling the data gets displayed correct. How can I avoid this and display the data from the first moment? EDIT: I imported the javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel -- is this correct? private DefaultTableModel _dtm; private void loadTable(Vector<Member> members) { loadTableModel(); try { lbl_state.setText("Please wait"); for (Member actMember : members) { String gender = ""; if (actMember.getGender() == MemberView.MEMBER_MALE) { gender = "männlich"; } else { gender = "weiblich"; } _dtm.addRow(new Object[]{ actMember.getNname(), actMember.getVname(), actMember.getCity(), actMember.getStreet(), actMember.getPlz(), actMember.getMail(), actMember.getPhonenumber(), actMember.getBirthdayString(), actMember.getStartDateString(), gender, actMember.getBankname(), actMember.getAccountnumber(), actMember.getBanknumber(), actMember.getGroup().toString(), (actMember.hasAccess() ? "JA" : "NEIN"), actMember.getWriteDateString(), (actMember.hasDrinkAbo() ? "JA" : "NEIN") }); } } catch (Exception ex) { System.err.println(ex.getMessage()); } tbl_results.setModel(_dtm); } private void loadTableModel() { _dtm = new DefaultTableModel(new Object[]{"Nachname", "Vorname", "Ort", "Straße", "PLZ", "E-Mail", "Telefon", "Geburtsdatum", "Beitrittsdatum", "Geschlecht", "Bankname", "Kontonummer", "Bankleitzahl", "Gruppe", "hat Zugriff", "Einschreibdatum", "Getränkeabo"}, 0); tbl_results.setAutoResizeMode(JTable.AUTO_RESIZE_ALL_COLUMNS); }

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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• EF/LINQ: Where() against a property of a subtype

  - by ladenedge

  I have a set of POCOs, all of which implement the following simple interface: interface IIdObject { int Id { get; set; } } A subset of these POCOs implement this additional interface: interface IDeletableObject : IIdObject { bool IsDeleted { get; set; } } I have a repository hierarchy that looks something like this: IRepository<T <: BasicRepository<T <: ValidatingRepository<T (where T is IIdObject) I'm trying to add a FilteringRepository to the hierarchy such that all of the POCOs that implement IDeletableObject have a Where(p => p.IsDeleted == false) filter applied before any other queries take place. My goal is to avoid duplicating the hierarchy solely for IDeletableObjects. My first attempt looked like this: public override IQueryable<T> Query() { return base.Query().Where(t => ((IDeletableObject)t).IsDeleted == false); } This works well with LINQ to Objects, but when I switch to an EF backend I get: "LINQ to Entities only supports casting Entity Data Model primitive types." I went on to try some fancier parameterized solutions, but they ultimately failed because I couldn't make T covariant in the following case for some reason I don't quite understand: interface IQueryFilter<out T> // error { Expression<Func<T, bool>> GetFilter(); } I'd be happy to go into more detail on my more complicated solutions if it would help, but I think I'll stop here for now in hope that someone might have an idea for me to try. Thanks very much in advance!

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• Codeigniter - accessing variables from an array passed into a page.

  - by Matt

  Hello, I have a controller with an index function as follows: function index() { $this->load->model('products_model'); $data['product'] = $this->products_model->get(3); // 3 = product id $data['product_no'] = 3; $data['main_content'] = 'product_view'; //print_r($data['products']); $this->load->view('includes/template', $data); } This is the get function in the products_model file function get($id) { $results = $this->db->get_where('products', array('id' => $id))->result(); //get the first item $result = $results[0]; return $result; } The products table contains fields such as name, price etc. Please can you tell me how to output variables from $data['product'] after it is passed into the view? I have tried so many things but nothing is working, even though the print_r (commented out) shows the data - it is not being passed into the view. I thought it may have been because the view calls a template file which references the main_content variable: Template file contents: <?php $this->load->view('includes/header'); ?> <?php $this->load->view($main_content); ?> <?php $this->load->view('includes/footer'); ?> but i tried creating a flat view file and still couldn't access the variables. Many thanks,

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• Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

  - by ags

  I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

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• Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

  - by Curtis White

  Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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• Automapping Collections

  - by vaibhav

  I am using Automapper for mapping my domain model and DTO. When I map Mapper.Map<SiteDTO, SiteEntity> it works fine. But when I use collections of the same entities, it doesn't map. Mapper.Map<Collection<SiteEntity>, Collection<SiteDTO>>(siteEntityCollection); AS per Automapper Wiki, it says the lists implementing ICollection would be mapped, I am using Collection that implements ICollection, but automapper doesn't map it. Am I doing something wrong. public class SiteEntity //SiteDTO has exactly the same properties, so I am not posting it here. { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public byte Status { get; set; } public int ModifiedBy { get; set; } public DateTime ModifiedDate{ get; set; } public long TimeStamp{ get; set; } public string Description{ get; set; } public string Notes{ get; set; } public ObservableCollection<AreaEntity> Areas{ get; set; } }

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• How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

  - by KevinDeus

  I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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• Core Data Predicates with Subclassed NSManagedObjects

  - by coneybeare

  I have an AUDIO class. This audio has a SOUND_A subclass and a SOUND_B subclass. This is all done correctly and is working fine. I have another model, lets call it PLAYLIST_JOIN, and this can contain (in the real world) SOUND_A's and SOUND_B's, so we give it a relationship of AUDIO and PLAYLIST. This all works in the app. The problem I am having now is querying the PLAYLIST_JOIN table with an NSPredicate. What I want to do is find an exact PLAYLIST_JOIN item by giving it 2 keys in the predicate sound_a._sound_a_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ and sound_b.sound_b_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ The main problem is that because the table does not store sound_a and sound_b, but stored audio, I cannot use this syntax. I do not have the option of reorganizing the sound_a and sound_b to use the same _id attribute name, so how do I do this? Can I pass a method to the predicate? something like this: [audio getID] = %@ && playlist_id = %@

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• How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

  - by Parris

  Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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• MVC and jQuery data retrieval.

  - by user337542

  Hello, I am using mvc and jQuery and I am trying to display someone's profile with some additional institutions that the person belongs to. I am new to this but I've done something like this in ProfileControler: public ActionResult Institutions(int id) { var inst = fr.getInstitutions(id); return Json(inst); } getInstitutions(id) returns Institution objects(with Name, City, Post Code etc.) Then in a certain View I am trying to get the data with jQuery and display them as follows: $(document).ready(function () { $.post("/Profile/Institutions", { id: <%= Model.Profile.userProfileID %> }, function (data) { $.each(data, function () { var new_div = $("<div>"); var new_label = $("<label>"); new_label.html(this.City); var new_input_b = $("<input>"); new_input_b.attr("type", "button"); new_div.append(new_label); new_div.append(new_input_b); $("#institutions").append(new_div); }); }); }); $("#institutions") is a div where i want to display all of the results. .post works correct for sure because certain institutions are retrieved from database, and passed to the view as Json result. But then I am affraid it wont itterate with .each. Any help, coments or pointing in some direction would be much appriciated

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