Search Results

Search found 17816 results on 713 pages for 'variable names'.

Page 576/713 | < Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >

  • Setting up Mercurial/TortoiseHg to work with UltraCompare

    - by Tim Pietzcker
    Hi, I'm trying to get my favorite Windows diff/merge tool, UltraCompare (V7.00) to work with Mercurial/TortoiseHg. I have set up UltraCompare in my Mercurial.ini like this (only relevant bits shown): [merge-tools] UltraCompare.executable = C:\Programme\IDM Computer Solutions\UltraCompare\uc.com UltraCompare.args = $base $local $other UltraCompare.priority = 1 UltraCompare.gui = True UltraCompare.binary = True UltraCompare.checkconflicts = True UltraCompare.checkchanged = True However, the three-way-merge fails. The path names get messed up if the path to the repository that is being merged to contains a space. I have done some more testing, and I've found out (using Process Explorer) that uc.com is called with a broken command line if there is a space in the repository's path: Compare "C:\Programme\IDM Computer Solutions\UltraCompare\uc.exe" " "c:\dokume~1\tim~1.pie\lokale~1\temp\test.txt~base.akr6au" "E:\Eigene Dateien\test\test-merge\test.txt" "c:\dokume~1\tim~1.pie\lokale~1\temp\test.txt~other.b92442" and "C:\Programme\IDM Computer Solutions\UltraCompare\uc.com" "c:\dokume~1\tim~1.pie\lokale~1\temp\test.txt~base.e7vryp" "E:\test\test-merge\test.txt" "c:\dokume~1\tim~1.pie\lokale~1\temp\test.txt~other.u_qxme" There is an extraneous " after the path of the executable in the first example - not in the second (which works fine). To me, it seems as if UltraCompare is doing everything right, and that Mercurial/TortoiseHg are passing a defective command line to it. Would you say so, too? Is there a workaround? I've just updated to Mercurial 1.5/TortoiseHg 1.0, and the problem persists. Support for other merge tools (Beyond Compare and others) has been added, sadly not UltraCompare...

    Read the article

  • C#: Is it possible to use expressions or functions as keys in a dictionary?

    - by Svish
    Would it work to use Expression<Func<T>> or Func<T> as keys in a dictionary? For example to cache the result of heavy calculations. For example, changing my very basic cache from a different question of mine a bit: public static class Cache<T> { // Alternatively using Expression<Func<T>> instead private static Dictionary<Func<T>, T> cache; static Cache() { cache = new Dictionary<Func<T>, T>(); } public static T GetResult(Func<T> f) { if (cache.ContainsKey(f)) return cache[f]; return cache[f] = f(); } } Would this even work? Edit: After a quick test, it seems like it actually works. But I discovered that it could probably be more generic, since it would now be one cache per return type... not sure how to change it so that wouldn't happen though... hmm Edit 2: Noo, wait... it actually doesn't. Well, for regular methods it does. But not for lambdas. They get various random method names even if they look the same. Oh well c",)

    Read the article

  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • Using libcurl to create a valid POST

    - by Haraldo
    static int get( const char * cURL, const char * cParam ) { CURL *handle; CURLcode result; std::string buffer; char errorBuffer[CURL_ERROR_SIZE]; //struct curl_slist *headers = NULL; //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "Content-Type: Multipart/Related"); //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "type: text/xml"); // Create our curl handle handle = curl_easy_init(); if( handle ) { curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_ERRORBUFFER, errorBuffer); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headers); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, cParam); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDSIZE, strlen(cParam)); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, Request::writer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, &buffer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "libcurl-agent/1.0"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_URL, cURL); result = curl_easy_perform(handle); curl_easy_cleanup(handle); } if( result == CURLE_OK ) { return atoi( buffer.c_str() ); } return 0; } Hi there, first of all I'm having trouble debugging this in visual studio express 2008 so I'm unsure what buffer.c_str() might actually be returning but I am outputting 1 or 0 to the web page being posted to. Therefore I'm expecting the buffer to be one or the other, however I seem to only be returning 0 or equivalent. Does the code above look like it will return what I expect or should my variable types be different? The conversion using "atoi" may be an issue. Any thought would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Warning in image_graphviz

    - by garcon1986
    Hello, I have got a warning in image_graphviz, i have viewed a post, who has a similar error. I have installed pear image_graphviz package(Image_GraphViz-1.2.1), I also installed graphviz.msi(Graphviz2.25.msi) in windows(But i don't know if does something with image_graphviz and if it does have some effects when i use image_graphviz). Do i need to do something else? Here is my code from pear image_graphviz site. <?php require_once 'Image/GraphViz.php'; error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); //Added E_NOTICE $gv = new Image_GraphViz(); $gv->addEdge(array('wake up' => 'visit bathroom')); $gv->addEdge(array('visit bathroom' => 'make coffee')); $gv->image(); ?> This is the warning: Warning: fopen(C:\WINDOWS\Temp\gra50.tmp.svg) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 210 Notice: Undefined variable: data in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 218 Thanks Pekka Gaiser, I used error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE);. I don't know how to change the temp directory, but c:/windows/temp exists in my computer. I haven't solve the problem. Thanks all for advice.

    Read the article

  • Setting up a domain using WAMP and NameCheap's DNS service

    - by Mike Jones
    So, I've been working on this for far longer than I should be and I'm quite thoroughly perplexed and lost. I apologize if this turns out to be a facile question, but I'm entirely befuddled and very much in need of some guidance. Earlier today I registered a cheap .info domain on NameCheap just to play around with as I learn webdev. I have WAMP installed on my computer and I've been testing my projects through localhost. I thought it would be a good idea to have a domain at my disposal in order to understand how it works and better test my work. NameCheap has a complimentary DNS service (not that I entirely understand what DNS is, although I tried), so I'm using that. I direct both the "@" and "www" host names to my IP address, as shown in the below tutorial: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/319/78/how-can-i-setup-an-a-address-record-for-my-domain However, now when I go to the URL of the domain I bought, it confronts me with a login box that seems to be coming from my wifi network. How do I set this up so that it hosts the information in my WAMP server? Thanks in advance for any help, I really appreciate it. And, as a side-note, what should read (print or online) to better understand the structure of the internet? I've been studying HTML/CSS/Javascript, but I'm not sure where to look for pragmatic and comprehensive information on how the internet works and how to utilize it as a website administrator. Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Destructuring assignment in JavaScript

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    As can be seen in the Mozilla changlog for JavaScript 1.7 they have added destructuring assignment. Sadly I'm not very fond of the syntax (why write a and b twice?): var a, b; [a, b] = f(); Something like this would have been a lot better: var [a, b] = f(); That would still be backwards compatible. Python-like destructuring would not be backwards compatible. Anyway the best solution for JavaScript 1.5 that I have been able to come up with is: function assign(array, map) { var o = Object(); var i = 0; $.each(map, function(e, _) { o[e] = array[i++]; }); return o; } Which works like: var array = [1,2]; var _ = assign[array, { var1: null, var2: null }); _.var1; // prints 1 _.var2; // prints 2 But this really sucks because _ has no meaning. It's just an empty shell to store the names. But sadly it's needed because JavaScript doesn't have pointers. On the plus side you can assign default values in the case the values are not matched. Also note that this solution doesn't try to slice the array. So you can't do something like {first: 0, rest: 0}. But that could easily be done, if one wanted that behavior. What is a better solution?

    Read the article

  • HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

    - by pq
    Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

    Read the article

  • Parsing back to 'messy' API strcuture

    - by Eric Fail
    I'm fetching data from an online database (REDcap) via API and the data gets delivered in as comma separated string like this, RAW.API <- structure("id,event_arm,name,dob,pushed_text,pushed_calc,complete\n\"01\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"John\",\"1979-05-01\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"01\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-02\",\"abc\",\"123\",1\n\"01\",\"event_3_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-10\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"02\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1951-09-10\",\"def\",\"456\",2\n\"02\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1978-09-12\",\"\",\"\",2\n", "`Content-Type`" = structure(c("text/html", "utf-8"), .Names = c("", "charset"))) I have this script that nicely parses it into a data frame, (df <- read.table(file = textConnection(RAW.API), header = TRUE, sep = ",", na.strings = "", stringsAsFactors = FALSE)) id event_arm name dob pushed_text pushed_calc complete 1 1 event_1_arm_1 John 1979-05-01 <NA> NA 2 2 1 event_2_arm_1 John 2012-09-02 abc 123 1 3 1 event_3_arm_1 John 2012-09-10 <NA> NA 2 4 2 event_1_arm_1 Mary 1951-09-10 def 456 2 5 2 event_2_arm_1 Mary 1978-09-12 <NA> NA 2 I then do some calculations and write them to pushed_text and pushed_calc whereafter I need to format the data back to the messy comma separated structure it came in. I imagine something like this, API.back <- `some magic command`(df, ...) identical(RAW.API, API.back) [1] TRUE Some command that can format my data from the data frame I made, df, back to the structure that the raw API-object came in, RAW.API. Any help would be very appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

    Read the article

  • strange behavior in python

    - by fsm
    The tags might not be accurate since I am not sure where the problem is. I have a module where I am trying to read some data from a socket, and write the results into a file (append) It looks something like this, (only relevant parts included) if __name__ == "__main__": <some init code> for line in file: t = Thread(target=foo, args=(line,)) t.start() while nThreads > 0: time.sleep(1) Here are the other modules, def foo(text): global countLock, nThreads countLock.acquire() nThreads += 1 countLock.release() """connect to socket, send data, read response""" writeResults(text, result) countLock.acquire() nThreads -= 1 countLock.release() def writeResults(text, result): """acquire file lock""" """append to file""" """release file lock""" Now here's the problem. Initially, I had a typo in the function 'foo', where I was passing the variable 'line' to writeResults instead of 'text'. 'line' is not defined in the function foo, it's defined in the main block, so I should have seen an error, but instead, it worked fine, except that the data was appended to the file multiple times, instead of being written just once, which is the required behavior, which I got when I fixed the typo. My question is, 1) Why didn't I get an error? 2) Why was the writeResults function being called multiple times?

    Read the article

  • Using map/reduce for mapping the properties in a collection

    - by And
    Update: follow-up to MongoDB Get names of all keys in collection. As pointed out by Kristina, one can use Mongodb 's map/reduce to list the keys in a collection: db.things.insert( { type : ['dog', 'cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { egg : ['cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { type : [] }); db.things.insert( { hello : [] } ); mr = db.runCommand({"mapreduce" : "things", "map" : function() { for (var key in this) { emit(key, null); } }, "reduce" : function(key, stuff) { return null; }}) db[mr.result].distinct("_id") //output: [ "_id", "egg", "hello", "type" ] As long as we want to get only the keys located at the first level of depth, this works fine. However, it will fail retrieving those keys that are located at deeper levels. If we add a new record: db.things.insert({foo: {bar: {baaar: true}}}) And we run again the map-reduce +distinct snippet above, we will get: [ "_id", "egg", "foo", "hello", "type" ] But we will not get the bar and the baaar keys, which are nested down in the data structure. The question is: how do I retrieve all keys, no matter their level of depth? Ideally, I would actually like the script to walk down to all level of depth, producing an output such as: ["_id","egg","foo","foo.bar","foo.bar.baaar","hello","type"] Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • Who architected / designed C++'s IOStreams, and would it still be considered well-designed by today'

    - by stakx
    First off, it may seem that I'm asking for subjective opinions, but that's not what I'm after. I'd love to hear some well-grounded arguments on this topic. In the hope of getting some insight into how a modern streams / serialization framework ought to be designed, I recently got myself a copy of the book Standard C++ IOStreams and Locales by Angelika Langer and Klaus Kreft. I figured that if IOStreams wasn't well-designed, it wouldn't have made it into the C++ standard library in the first place. After having read various parts of this book, I am starting to have doubts if IOStreams can compare to e.g. the STL from an overall architectural point-of-view. Read e.g. this interview with Alexander Stepanov (the STL's "inventor") to learn about some design decisions that went into the STL. What surprises me in particular: It seems to be unknown who was responsible for IOStreams' overall design (I'd love to read some background information about this — does anyone know good resources?); Once you delve beneath the immediate surface of IOStreams, e.g. if you want to extend IOStreams with your own classes, you get to an interface with fairly cryptic and confusing member function names, e.g. getloc/imbue, uflow/underflow, snextc/sbumpc/sgetc/sgetn, pbase/pptr/epptr (and there's probably even worse examples). This makes it so much harder to understand the overall design and how the single parts co-operate. Even the book I mentioned above doesn't help that much (IMHO). Thus my question: If you had to judge by today's software engineering standards (if there actually is any general agreement on these), would C++'s IOStreams still be considered well-designed? (I wouldn't want to improve my software design skills from something that's generally considered outdated.)

    Read the article

  • Use AJAX to reload captcha

    - by arik-so
    Hello! This question may have been asked already - but unfortunately, I could not find any satisfactory answers. I will just ask it for my concrete case and ask the admins not to delete the question for at least a few days so I can try it out... I have a page. It uses a captcha. Like so: <?php session_start(); // the captcha saves the md5 into the session ?> <img src="captcha.php" onclick="this.src = this.src" /> That was my first code. It did not work, because the browser condsidered it useless to reload an image if the source is the same. My current solution is to pass a get parameter: onclick="this.src = 'captcha.php?randomNumber='+ranNum" The JavaScript variable var ranNum is generated randomly every time the onclick event fires. It works fine, still, I don't like the possibility, if the - though improbable - case of two numbers being the same twice in a row. Although the random number varies between -50,000 and 50,000 - I still do not like it. And I don't think the method is right. I would like to know the 'righter' method, by means of AJAX. I know it's possible. I hope you know how it's possible ^^ In that case, please show me. Thanks in advance! By the way - if I spell cap(t)cha differently, never mind, the reference to the PHP file is right in my code: I use randomImage.php

    Read the article

  • Calculating bounding box a certain distance away from a lat/long coordinate in Java

    - by Bryce Thomas
    Given a coordinate (lat, long), I am trying to calculate a square bounding box that is a given distance (e.g. 50km) away from the coordinate. So as input I have lat, long and distance and as output I would like two coordinates; one being the south-west (bottom-left) corner and one being the north-east (top-right) corner. I have seen a couple of answers on here that try to address this question in Python, but I am looking for a Java implementation in particular. Just to be clear, I intend on using the algorithm on Earth only and so I don't need to accommodate a variable radius. It doesn't have to be hugely accurate (+/-20% is fine) and it'll only be used to calculate bounding boxes over small distances (no more than 150km). So I'm happy to sacrifice some accuracy for an efficient algorithm. Any help is much appreciated. Edit: I should have been clearer, I really am after a square, not a circle. I understand that the distance between the center of a square and various points along the square's perimeter is not a constant value like it is with a circle. I guess what I mean is a square where if you draw a line from the center to any one of the four points on the perimeter that results in a line perpendicular to a side of the perimeter, then those 4 lines have the same length.

    Read the article

  • How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

    - by Pindatjuh
    While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

    Read the article

  • Simple way to repeat a String in java

    - by e5
    I'm looking for a simple commons method or operator that allows me to repeat some String n times. I know I could write this using a for loop, but I wish to avoid for loops whenever necessary and a simple direct method should exist somewhere. String str = "abc"; String repeated = str.repeat(3); repeated.equals("abcabcabc"); Related to: repeat string javascript Create NSString by repeating another string a given number of times Edited I try to avoid for loops when they are not completely necessary because: They add to the number of lines of code even if they are tucked away in another function. Someone reading my code has to figure out what I am doing in that for loop. Even if it is commented and has meaningful variables names, they still have to make sure it is not doing anything "clever". Programmers love to put clever things in for loops, even if I write it to "only do what it is intended to do", that does not preclude someone coming along and adding some additional clever "fix". They are very often easy to get wrong. For loops that involving indexes tend to generate off by one bugs. For loops often reuse the same variables, increasing the chance of really hard to find scoping bugs. For loops increase the number of places a bug hunter has to look.

    Read the article

  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

    Read the article

  • How can I search an XML file without a dynamic language?

    - by jeph perro
    Let me try to explain my situation: We are using a CMS which 'bakes' a website, and you publish it to a webserver. The published site contains only static HTML ( or XML ) pages ( generated from the content in the CMS database ). I imported an XML file with the names and phone numbers from the company phone directory. Using only XSLT, can I create a way to search that directory? For example, if my XML file, directory.xml looks like this: <directory> <person> <fname>Ryan</fname> <lname>Purple</lname> <phone>887 778 5544</phone> </person> <person> <fname>Tanya</fname> <lname>Orange</lname> <phone>887 998 5541</phone> </person> <directory> Can I create a way to search for a person with the last name starting with "Pur" ? Can I pass a parameter to the XSLT? Can I search the XML tree to match the string in the parameter?

    Read the article

  • android python full integration

    - by Grzegorz Oledzki
    Is there a way to fully integrate Python with Java code on Android platform? Yes, I saw the question about running Python on Android and Android Scripting Environment (ASE). But that doesn't seem to be enough (correct me if I am wrong). I wanted to be able not only to invoke a Python script from within Java code, but have a full integration. The feature I need the most is the ability to have a state of execution of python code saved and be able to run several parts of code on demand against the same execution state. On JavaSE I would rely on Jython. I believe its simplest example shows it all (and some other features too, like something I would call variable state introspection): http://www.jython.org/archive/21/docs/embedding.html PythonInterpreter interp = new PythonInterpreter(); System.out.println("Hello, brave new world"); interp.exec("import sys"); interp.exec("print sys"); interp.set("a", new PyInteger(42)); interp.exec("print a"); interp.exec("x = 2+2"); PyObject x = interp.get("x"); System.out.println("x: "+x); System.out.println("Goodbye, cruel world"); Is it possible on Android? Is ASE a way to go?

    Read the article

  • Bizarre Javascript JSON undefined error

    - by Nate C-K
    I'm experiencing an error that I haven't been able to find any mention of anywhere. I'm developing an AJAX-enabled WCF web service with ASP.NET. In my ASP.NET master page's , I included the json.js file, copied fresh from json.org. When I run the page, it fails (VS 2008 catches a Javascript exception) on the first line of code in json.js (following lots of comments), which is: JSON = JSON || {}; The error says that JSON is undefined: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'JSON' is undefined Well, duh! That's why the line is testing if it's defined and if so setting it to an empty object! It is supposed to be undefined, right? Last I heard it was not an error in Javascript to perform such an operation on an undefined variable. Can anyone give me a clue as to what's going on here? I suspect it's something gone wrong elsewhere that's somehow causing this problem. I don't have deep experience with either Javascript or ASP.NET so it might be that I'm missing some common gotcha in the setup.

    Read the article

  • Safe way to set computed environment variables

    - by sfink
    I have a bash script that I am modifying to accept key=value pairs from stdin. (It is spawned by xinetd.) How can I safely convert those key=value pairs into environment variables for subprocesses? I plan to only allow keys that begin with a predefined prefix "CMK_", to avoid IFS or any other "dangerous" variable getting set. But the simplistic approach function import () { local IFS="=" while read key val; do case "$key" in CMK_*) eval "$key=$val";; esac done } is horribly insecure because $val could contain all sorts of nasty stuff. This seems like it would work: shopt -s extglob function import () { NORMAL_IFS="$IFS" local IFS="=" while read key val; do case "$key" in CMK_*([a-zA-Z_]) ) IFS="$NORMAL_IFS" eval $key='$val' IFS="=" ;; esac done } but (1) it uses the funky extglob thing that I've never used before, and (2) it's complicated enough that I can't be comfortable that it's secure. My goal, to be specific, is to allow key=value settings to pass through the bash script into the environment of called processes. It is up to the subprocesses to deal with potentially hostile values getting set. I am modifying someone else's script, so I don't want to just convert it to Perl and be done with it. I would also rather not change it around to invoke the subprocesses differently, something like #!/bin/sh ...start of script... perl -nle '($k,$v)=split(/=/,$_,2); $ENV{$k}=$v if $k =~ /^CMK_/; END { exec("subprocess") }' ...end of script...

    Read the article

  • Storing multiple inputs with the same name in a CodeIgniter session

    - by Joshua Cody
    I've posted this in the CodeIgniter forum and exhausted the forum search engine as well, so apologies if cross-posting is frowned upon. Essentially, I've got a single input, set up as <input type="text" name="goal">. At a user's request, they may add another goal, which throws a duplicate to the DOM. What I need to do is grab these values in my CodeIgniter controller and store them in a session variable. My controller is currently constructed thusly: function goalsAdd(){ $meeting_title = $this->input->post('topic'); $meeting_hours = $this->input->post('hours'); $meeting_minutes = $this->input->post('minutes'); $meeting_goals = $this->input->post('goal'); $meeting_time = $meeting_hours . ":" . $meeting_minutes; $sessionData = array( 'totaltime' => $meeting_time, 'title' => $meeting_title, 'goals' => $meeting_goals ); $this->session->set_userdata($sessionData); $this->load->view('test', $sessionData); } Currently, obviously, my controller gets the value of each input, writing over previous values in its wake, leaving only a string of the final value. I need to store these, however, so I can print them on a subsequent page. What I imagine I'd love to do is extend the input class to be able to call $this-input-posts('goal'). Eventually I will need to store other arrays to session values. But I'm totally open to implementation suggestion. Thanks so much for any help you can give.

    Read the article

  • Whats wrong with my cookies?

    - by William
    For some reason This php script won't echo my cookie variable: <?php require 'connection.php'; require 'variables.php'; $name = $_POST['name']; $pass = $_POST['pass']; if(($name == $admin_name) && ($pass == $admin_pass)){ setcookie($forum_url."name",$name,time()+604800); setcookie($forum_url."pass",$pass,time()+604800); } else echo 'Failed'; ?> heres the html that gets sent to admin_login.php <form method=post action=admin_login.php> <div id="formdiv"> <div class="fieldtext1">Name</div> <div class="fieldtext1">Pass</div> <input type="text" name=name size=25 /> <input type="password" name=pass size=25 /> </div> <input type=submit value="Submit" id="submitbutton"> </form> here is the index, where I want the info echoed <?php echo $_COOKIE[$forum_url."name"]; ?> What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >