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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

    - by MikeH
    I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

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  • How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

    - by Larry
    I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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  • Postgresql count+sort performance

    - by invictus
    I have built a small inventory system using postgresql and psycopg2. Everything works great, except, when I want to create aggregated summaries/reports of the content, I get really bad performance due to count()'ing and sorting. The DB schema is as follows: CREATE TABLE hosts ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255) ); CREATE TABLE items ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, description TEXT ); CREATE TABLE host_item ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, host INTEGER REFERENCES hosts(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, item INTEGER REFERENCES items(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ); There are some other fields as well, but those are not relevant. I want to extract 2 different reports: - List of all hosts with the number of items per, ordered from highest to lowest count - List of all items with the number of hosts per, ordered from highest to lowest count I have used 2 queries for the purpose: Items with host count: SELECT i.id, i.description, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM items AS i LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (i.id=hi.item) GROUP BY i.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Hosts with item count: SELECT h.id, h.name, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM hosts AS h LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (h.id=hi.host) GROUP BY h.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Problem is: the queries runs for 5-6 seconds before returning any data. As this is a web based application, 6 seconds are just not acceptable. The database is heavily populated with approximately 50k hosts, 1000 items and 400 000 host/items relations, and will likely increase significantly when (or perhaps if) the application will be used. After playing around, I found that by removing the "ORDER BY count DESC" part, both queries would execute instantly without any delay whatsoever (less than 20ms to finish the queries). Is there any way I can optimize these queries so that I can get the result sorted without the delay? I was trying different indexes, but seeing as the count is computed it is possible to utilize an index for this. I have read that count()'ing in postgresql is slow, but its the sorting that are causing me problems... My current workaround is to run the queries above as an hourly job, putting the result into a new table with an index on the count column for quick lookup. I use Postgresql 9.2.

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  • How do I solve "405 Method Not Allowed" for our subversion setup?

    - by macke
    We're serving our source code using VisualSVN running on Windows Server 2003. Recently, we split a portion of a project into a new project in it's own repository, and then linked it back to the original project using svn:externals. Since then, we've been having issues when we try to commit files with Subclipse. The error we're getting is: svn: Commit failed (details follow): svn: PROPFIND of '/svn': 405 Method Not Allowed (https://svn.ourserver.com) Googling for a while didn't really help, our config seems to be correct. It should also be noted that we've been running this server for a while no without these problems and apart from splitting the project into two repositories, no changes have been made to the server (ie, config files are the same). It should also be noted that these errors only appear when we try to check in multiple files at once. If we check in one file at a time there are no errors. Also, it only appears in Subclipse as far as we know right now, Versions.app (OS X) seems to work fine so that is our current workaround. So, the questions is how do I analyze the error to find the cause and subsequently fix it? I'm by no means a svn guru and right now I'm clueless. EDIT: It seems we can check in multiple files in the same package, but not files from multiple packages. Also, when I "split" the project into two repositories, I imported the original repository with a new name. I did not do a dump and then import that dump. Could that be the source of our issues, and if so, how would I solve that? EDIT: After some jerking around it seems as though it is indeed related to when checking in files in different repositories. If I try to do a single commit in both Repo A and Repo B (referenced by svn:externals) at the same time, I get the error. Versions.app handles this correctly, but I guess it might just be doing two commits, not a single one. Subclipse fails miserably. For now, we simply do multiple commits, one for Repo A and one for Repo B, that works just fine. If anyone smarter than me could fill in the details why this is happening, whether or not this kind of setup is stupid etc, please go right ahead.

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • Android: onListItemClick not getting called in ListActivity

    - by user521469
    I'm having problems with my first Android app. I have subclassed ListActivity, and I'm having no luck getting the overridden onListItemClick() to respond to click events. I've read focus can be a problem, but changing focus in the XML files does not seem to work. Here's the relevant bits of code. Anyone see what's I've buggered up? public class Notepadv1 extends ListActivity { private int mNoteNumber = 1; private NotesDbAdapter mDbHelper; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.notepad_list); mDbHelper = new NotesDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); fillData(); } private void fillData() { // Get all of the notes from the database and create the item list Cursor c = mDbHelper.fetchAllNotes(); startManagingCursor(c); String[] from = new String[] { NotesDbAdapter.KEY_TITLE }; int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; SimpleCursorAdapter notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.notes_row, c, from, to); setListAdapter(notes); } @Override public void onListItemClick (ListView l, View v, int position, long id){ super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); AlertDialog alert = new AlertDialog.Builder(this).create(); String message = "row clicked!"; alert.setMessage(message); alert.show(); } notepad_list.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <ListView android:id="@android:id/list" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:dividerHeight="6dp"/> <TextView android:id="@android:id/empty" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/no_notes" /> </LinearLayout> And notes_row.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="60dp" android:focusable="false"/>

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • using Object input\ output Streams with files and array list

    - by soad el-hayek
    hi every one .. i'm an it student , and it's time to finish my final project in java , i've faced too many problems , this one i couldn't solve it and i'm really ubset ! :S my code is like this : in Admin class : public ArrayList cos_info = new ArrayList(); public ArrayList cas_info = new ArrayList(); public int cos_count = 0 ; public int cas_count = 0 ; void coustmer_acount() throws FileNotFoundException, IOException{ String add=null; do{ person p = new person() ; cos_info.add(cos_count, p); cos_count ++ ; add =JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Do you want to add more coustmer..\n'y'foryes ..\n 'n'for No .."); } while(add.charAt(0) == 'Y'||add.charAt(0)=='y'); writenew_cos(); // add_acounts(); } void writenew_cos() throws IOException{ ObjectOutputStream aa = new ObjectOutputStream(new FileOutputStream("coustmer.txt")); aa.writeObject(cos_info); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Added to file done sucessfuly.."); aa.close(); } in Coustmer class : void read_cos() throws IOException, ClassNotFoundException{ person p1= null ; int array_count = 0; ObjectInputStream d = new ObjectInputStream(new FileInputStrea ("coustmer.txt")); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); for(int i = 0;d.available() == 0;i++){ a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); array_count++; JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Haaaaai :D" ); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count ); } d.close(); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count +"1111" ); for(int i = 0 ; i<a.size()&& found!= true ; i++){ count++ ; p1 =(person)a.get(i); user=p1.user; pass = p1.pass; cas_checkpass(); } } it just print JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); and having excep. here a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); p.s : person object from my own class and it's Serializabled

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  • C++ addition overload ambiguity

    - by Nate
    I am coming up against a vexing conundrum in my code base. I can't quite tell why my code generates this error, but (for example) std::string does not. class String { public: String(const char*str); friend String operator+ ( const String& lval, const char *rval ); friend String operator+ ( const char *lval, const String& rval ); String operator+ ( const String& rval ); }; The implementation of these is easy enough to imagine on your own. My driver program contains the following: String result, lval("left side "), rval("of string"); char lv[] = "right side ", rv[] = "of string"; result = lv + rval; printf(result); result = (lval + rv); printf(result); Which generates the following error in gcc 4.1.2: driver.cpp:25: error: ISO C++ says that these are ambiguous, even though the worst conversion for the first is better than the worst conversion for the second: String.h:22: note: candidate 1: String operator+(const String&, const char*) String.h:24: note: candidate 2: String String::operator+(const String&) So far so good, right? Sadly, my String(const char *str) constructor is so handy to have as an implicit constructor, that using the explicit keyword to solve this would just cause a different pile of problems. Moreover... std::string doesn't have to resort to this, and I can't figure out why. For example, in basic_string.h, they are declared as follows: template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc> operator+(const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __rhs) template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc> operator+(const _CharT* __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>& __rhs); and so on. The basic_string constructor is not declared explicit. How does this not cause the same error I'm getting, and how can I achieve the same behavior??

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  • deallocated memory in tableview: message sent to deallocated instance

    - by Kirn
    I tried looking up other issues but couldn't find anything to match so here goes: I'm trying to display text in the table view so I use this bit of code: // StockData is an object I created and it pulls information from Yahoo APIs based on // a stock ticker stored in NSString *heading NSArray* tickerValues = [heading componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; StockData *chosenStock = [[StockData alloc] initWithContents:[tickerValues objectAtIndex:0]]; [chosenStock getData]; // Set up the cell... NSDictionary *tempDict = [chosenStock values]; NSArray *tempArr = [tempDict allValues]; cell.textLabel.text = [tempArr objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; This is all under cellForRowAtIndexPath When I try to release the chosenStock object though I get this error: [CFDictionary release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x434d3d0 Ive tried using NSZombieEnabled and Build and Analyze to detect problems but no luck thus far. Ive even gone so far as to comment bits and pieces of the code with NSLog but no luck. I'll post the code for StockData below this. As far as I can figure something is getting deallocated before I do the release but I'm not sure how. The only place I've got release in my code is under dealloc method call. Here's the StockData code: // StockData contains all stock information pulled in through Yahoo! to be displayed @implementation StockData @synthesize ticker, values; - (id) initWithContents: (NSString *)newName { if(self = [super init]){ ticker = newName; } return self; } - (void) getData { NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://download.finance.yahoo.com/d/quotes.csv?s=%@&f=%@&e=.csv", ticker, @"chgvj1"]]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSData *stockData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; if(stockData) { NSString *tempStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:stockData encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSArray *receivedValuesArr = [tempStr componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; [tempStr release]; values = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:receivedValuesArr forKeys:[@"change, high, low, volume, market" componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed: %@", error); } } - (void)dealloc { [ticker release]; [values release]; [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"Release took place fine"); } @end

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  • Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

    - by Moshe
    1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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  • On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

    - by bradenkeith
    If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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  • Why is this simple Mobile Form not closed when using the player

    - by ajhvdb
    Hi, I created this simple sample Form with the close button. Everything is working as expected when NOT using the Interop.WMPLib.dll I've seen other applications using this without problems but why isn't the Form process closed when I just add the line: SoundPlayer myPlayer = new SoundPlayer(); and of course dispose it: if (myPlayer != null) { myPlayer.Dispose(); myPlayer = null; } The Form closes but the debugger VS2008 is still active. The Form project and the dll are still active. If you send me an email to [email protected], I can send you the zipped project. Below is the class for the dll: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Threading; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using WMPLib; namespace WindowsMobile.Utilities { public delegate void SoundPlayerStateChanged(SoundPlayer sender, SoundPlayerState newState); public enum SoundPlayerState { Stopped, Playing, Paused, } public class SoundPlayer : IDisposable { [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutSetVolume(int hwo, uint dwVolume); [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutGetVolume(int hwo, out uint dwVolume); WindowsMediaPlayer myPlayer = new WindowsMediaPlayer(); public SoundPlayer() { myPlayer.uiMode = "invisible"; myPlayer.settings.volume = 100; } string mySoundLocation = string.Empty; public string SoundLocation { get { return mySoundLocation; } set { mySoundLocation = value; } } public void Pause() { myPlayer.controls.pause(); } public void PlayLooping() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.settings.setMode("loop", true); } public int Volume { get { return myPlayer.settings.volume; } set { myPlayer.settings.volume = value; } } public void Play() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.controls.play(); } public void Stop() { myPlayer.controls.stop(); myPlayer.close(); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { try { Stop(); } catch (Exception) { } // need this otherwise the process won't exit?! try { int ret = Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(myPlayer); } catch (Exception) { } myPlayer = null; GC.Collect(); } #endregion } }

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

    - by songdogtech
    Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

    - by AJ
    I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

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  • How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Template function as a template argument

    - by Kos
    I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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  • Google Maps rendering locally but not in live environment

    - by marcusstarnes
    I have a page that renders a simple google map for a specified location. This map renders without any problems at all when I run it locally on localhost, however, when I deploy this code to our live web servers (using our LIVE google API key for the appropriate domain) it fails to render, and upon putting a series of alerts within the javascript on the page, it appears that the 'Initialize' method (which should be called within body onLoad) is not being called. When I view the HTML source that is rendered on the live server it appears exactly as per the local version of the site (including the call to initialize() within the body onLoad event), albeit with the different maps API key. I have output the host (alert(window.location.host);) to ensure that the key I generated via the google maps api site, corresponds exactly to the live server, which it does. Does anyone have any ideas why it would be working locally but not when deployed to the live servers? The live site is hosted on 2 load-balanced web servers. This is the javascript that is rendered: <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=false&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-BU8POZj19wRlTaKIXVM9xTz76xxk4yAELG9u79oXrhnLTB5NRRvAZ-bkKn1x8J68nfRTVOIWNPJEA" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var geocoder; alert(window.location.host); function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("businessMap")); map.setUIToDefault(); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); showAddress('St Margarets Street SW1P 3 London'); } } function showAddress(address) { geocoder.getLatLng( address, function(point) { if (!point) { // Address could not be located. jQuery('#googleMap').hide(); } else { map.setCenter(point, 13); var marker = new GMarker(point); map.addOverlay(marker); var html = 'Address info for the marker'; marker.openInfoWindow(html); GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); }); } } ); } </script> Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

    - by krismeld
    I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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  • Parsing XML file using a for loop

    - by Johnny Spintel
    I have been working on this program which inserts an XML file into a MYSQL database. I'm new to the whole .jar idea by inserting packages. Im having an issue with parse(), select(), and children(). Can someone inform me how I could fix this issue? Here is my stack trace and my program below: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problems: The method select(String) is undefined for the type Document The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element at jdbc.parseXML.main(parseXML.java:28) import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; import org.jsoup.Jsoup; import org.w3c.dom.*; import javax.xml.parsers.*; public class parseXML{ public static void main(String xml) { try{ BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(new File("C:\\staff.xml"))); String line; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); while((line=br.readLine())!= null){ sb.append(line.trim()); } Document doc = Jsoup.parse(line); StringBuilder queryBuilder; StringBuilder columnNames; StringBuilder values; for (Element row : doc.select("row")) { // Start the query queryBuilder = new StringBuilder("insert into customer("); columnNames = new StringBuilder(); values = new StringBuilder(); for (int x = 0; x < row.children().size(); x++) { // Append the column name and it's value columnNames.append(row.children().get(x).tagName()); values.append(row.children().get(x).text()); if (x != row.children().size() - 1) { // If this is not the last item, append a comma columnNames.append(","); values.append(","); } else { // Otherwise, add the closing paranthesis columnNames.append(")"); values.append(")"); } } // Add the column names and values to the query queryBuilder.append(columnNames); queryBuilder.append(" values("); queryBuilder.append(values); // Print the query System.out.println(queryBuilder); } }catch (Exception err) { System.out.println(" " + err.getMessage ()); } } }

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