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• php user authentication libraries / frameworks ... what are the options?

  - by es11

  I am using PHP and the codeigniter framework for a project I am working on, and require a user login/authentication system. For now I'd rather not use SSL (might be overkill and the fact that I am using shared hosting discourages this). I have considered using openID but decided that since my target audience is generally not technical, it might scare users away (not to mention that it requires mirroring of login information etc.). I know that I could write a hash based authentication (such as sha1) since there is no sensitive data being passed (I'd compare the level of sensitivity to that of stackoverflow). That being said, before making a custom solution, it would be nice to know if there are any good libraries or packages out there that you have used to provide semi-secure authentication? I am new to codeigniter, but something that integrates well with it would be preferable. Any ideas? (i'm open to criticism on my approach and open to suggestions as to why I might be crazy not to just use ssl). Thanks in advance. Update: I've looked into some of the suggestions. I am curious to try out zend-auth since it seems well supported and well built. Does anyone have experience with using zend-auth in codeigniter (is it too bulky?) and do you have a good reference on integrating it with CI? I do not need any complex authentication schemes..just a simple login/logout/password-management authorization system. Also, dx_auth seems interesting as well, however I am worried that it is too buggy. Has anybody else had success with this? I realized that I would also like to manage guest users (i.e. users that do not login/register) in a similar way to stackoverflow..so any suggestions that have this functionality would be great

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• VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

  - by Alexis Abril

  The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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• MPMoviePlayerView fade in/out of overlay

  - by therobot

  I've got a MPMoviePlayerViewController, and I've added an overlay as a subview to the MPMoviePlayerController.view that it controls. Does anyone know if there's an easy way to make my added overlay fade in and out with the rest of the controls? My code to initialize and present the player is: LandscapeMPVC * theMovieViewController = [[LandscapeMPVC alloc] initWithContentURL:sourceURL]; MPMoviePlayerController * theMoviePlayer = [theMovieViewController moviePlayer]; [theMoviePlayer setRepeatMode:MPMovieRepeatModeOne]; [theMoviePlayer setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFit]; [theMoviePlayer setFullscreen:YES]; // Attemps at overlays MPViewOverlayController * overlayCont = [[MPViewOverlayController alloc] init]; [[theMovieViewController view] addSubview:overlayCont.view]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resetToolbar:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMoviePlayer]; [self presentMoviePlayerViewControllerAnimated:theMovieViewController]; LandscapeMPVC is just a subclass of MoviePlayerViewController where I overwrite the orientation code. When the rest of the controls fade in the movie player, my custom overlay does not. Is there some code in the controller that I need to add, or some notification that is sent? Any input would be greatly appreciated.

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• Customizing orchard theme parts

  - by madcapnmckay

  Hi, I am trying to write a custom theme for orchard and am not having much success so far. I have read Bertrand Le Roy's article on part alternates but I can't seem to get it to work. I am displaying a list of recent blog posts on the front page, pretty standard. I wish to change the markup produced by the meta data part i.e the time format. I have written a IShapeTableProvider to create blog specific alternates for the metadata summary part. public class MetaDataShapeProvider : IShapeTableProvider { private readonly IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor; public MetaDataShapeProvider(IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor) { this.workContextAccessor = workContextAccessor; } public void Discover(ShapeTableBuilder builder) { builder .Describe("Parts_Common_Metadata_Summary") .OnDisplaying(displaying => { ContentItem contentItem = displaying.Shape.ContentItem; if (contentItem != null) displaying.ShapeMetadata.Alternates.Add("Metadata__" + contentItem.ContentType); }); } } This is being caught correctly but the contentItem is null. Should I just create an alternate with a fixed name like "Metadata-BlogPost" and use that, to make this general purpose it should really be a dynamic name so I can use another alternate template elsewhere. Thanks, Ian

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• How to return proper 404 for google while providing user friendly content to the user?

  - by Marek

  I am bouncing between posting this here and on Superuser. Please excuse me if you feel this does not belong here. I am observing the behavior described here - Googlebot is requesting random urls on my site, like aecgeqfx.html or sutwjemebk.html. I am sure that I am not linking these urls from anywhere on my site. I suspect this may be google probing how we handle non existent content - to cite from an answer to the linked question: [google is requesting random urls to] see if your site correctly handles non-existent files (by returning a 404 response header) We have a custom page for nonexistent content - a styled page saying "Content not found, if you believe you got here by error, please contact us", with a few internal links, served (naturally) with a 200 OK. The URL is served directly (no redirection to a single url). I am afraid this may discriminate the site at google - they may not interpret the user friendly page as a 404 - not found and may think we are trying to fake something and provide duplicate content. How should I proceed to ensure that google will not think the site is bogus while providing user friendly message to users in case they click on dead links by accident?

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• How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

  - by spoulson

  The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

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• How do I specify Open ID Realm in spring security ?

  - by Salvin Francis

  We are using Spring security in our application with support for username / password based authentication as well as Open id based authentication. The issue is that google gives a different open id for the return url specified and we have at least 2 different entry points in our application from where open id is configured into our system. Hence we decided to use open id realm. http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/0...ue-per-domain/ http://groups.google.com/group/googl...unts-api?pli=1 how is it possible to integrate realm into our spring configuration/code ? This is how we are doing it in traditional openid library code: AuthRequest authReq = consumerManager.authenticate(discovered, someReturnToUrl,"http://www.example.com"); This works and gives same open id for different urls from our site. our configuration: Code: ... <http auto-config="false"> <!-- <intercept-url> tags are here --> <remember-me user-service-ref="someRememberedService" key="some key" /> <form-login login-page="/Login.html" authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="false" default-target-url="/MainPage.html"/> <openid-login authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="true" default-target-url="/MainPage.html" user-service-ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </http> ... <beans:bean id="someOpenIdUserService" class="com.something.MyOpenIDUserDetailsService"> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="openIdAuthenticationProvider" class="com.something.MyOpenIDAuthenticationProvider"> <custom-authentication-provider /> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </beans:bean> ...

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• Putting a C++ Vector as a Member in a Class that Uses a Memory Pool

  - by Deep-B

  Hey, I've been writing a multi-threaded DLL for database access using ADO/ODBC for use with a legacy application. I need to keep multiple database connections for each thread, so I've put the ADO objects for each connection in an object and thinking of keeping an array of them inside a custom threadInfo object. Obviously a vector would serve better here - I need to delete/rearrange objects on the go and a vector would simplify that. Problem is, I'm allocating a heap for each thread to avoid heap contention and stuff and allocating all my memory from there. So my question is: how do I make the vector allocate from the thread-specific heap? (Or would it know internally to allocate memory from the same heap as its wrapper class - sounds unlikely, but I'm not a C++ guy) I've googled a bit and it looks like I might need to write an allocator or something - which looks like so much of work I don't want. Is there any other way? I've heard vector uses placement-new for all its stuff inside, so can overloading operator new be worked into it? My scant knowledge of the insides of C++ doesn't help, seeing as I'm mainly a C programmer (even that - relatively). It's very possible I'm missing something elementary somewhere. If nothing easier comes up - I might just go and do the array thing, but hopefully it won't come to that. I'm using MS-VC++ 6.0 (hey, it's rude to laugh! :-P ). Any/all help will be much appreciated.

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• Database Functional Programming in Clojure

  - by Ralph

  "It is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail." - Abraham Maslow I need to write a tool to dump a large hierarchical (SQL) database to XML. The hierarchy consists of a Person table with subsidiary Address, Phone, etc. tables. I have to dump thousands of rows, so I would like to do so incrementally and not keep the whole XML file in memory. I would like to isolate non-pure function code to a small portion of the application. I am thinking that this might be a good opportunity to explore FP and concurrency in Clojure. I can also show the benefits of immutable data and multi-core utilization to my skeptical co-workers. I'm not sure how the overall architecture of the application should be. I am thinking that I can use an impure function to retrieve the database rows and return a lazy sequence that can then be processed by a pure function that returns an XML fragment. For each Person row, I can create a Future and have several processed in parallel (the output order does not matter). As each Person is processed, the task will retrieve the appropriate rows from the Address, Phone, etc. tables and generate the nested XML. I can use a a generic function to process most of the tables, relying on database meta-data to get the column information, with special functions for the few tables that need custom processing. These functions could be listed in a map(table name -> function). Am I going about this in the right way? I can easily fall back to doing it in OO using Java, but that would be no fun. BTW, are there any good books on FP patterns or architecture? I have several good books on Clojure, Scala, and F#, but although each covers the language well, none look at the "big picture" of function programming design.

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• Accesing WinCE ComboBox DroppedDown property (.NET CF 2.0)

  - by PabloG

  I'm implementing custom behavior sub-classing the form controls, but I cannot manage to access the DroppedDown property of the ComboBox. Looking in the help, it's supposed to be supported in CF.NET 2.0: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace xCustomControls { public partial class xComboBox : System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox { private ComboBox comboBox1; public xComboBox() { InitializeComponent(); this.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(this.KeyDownHandler); } private void KeyDownHandler(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { // DroppedDown doesn't appear in the IntelliSense of ComboBox. // or this.comboBox1. if (((ComboBox)sender).DroppedDown) // fail! return; switch (e.KeyData) { case Keys.Up: case Keys.Enter: case Keys.Down: e.Handled = true; this.Parent.SelectNextControl((Control)sender, e.KeyData != Keys.Up, true, true, true); ... fails with 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'DroppedDown' and no extension method 'DroppedDown' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' could be found How can I access the property? TIA, Pablo

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• Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

  - by john c

  OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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• Drupal Views api, add simple argument handler

  - by LanguaFlash

  Background: I have a complex search form that stores the query and it's hash in a cache. Once the cache is set, I redirect to something like /searchresults/e6c86fadc7e4b7a2d068932efc9cc358 where that big long string on the end is the md5 hash of my query. I need to make a new argument for views to know what the hash is good for. The reason for all this hastle is because my original search form is way to complex and has way to many arguments to consider putting them all into the path and expecting to do the filtering with the normal views arguments. Now for my question. I have been reading views 2 documentation but not figuring out how to accomplish this custom argument. It doesn't seem to me like this should be as hard as it seems to me like it must be. Leaving aside any knowledge of the veiws api, it would seem that all I need is a callback function that will take the argument from the path as it's only argument and return a list of node id's to filter to. Can anyone point me to a solution or give me some example code? Thanks for your help! You guys are great. PS. I am pretty sure that my design is the best I can come up with, lets don't get off my question and into cross checking my design logic if we can help it.

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• SQL Server 2008 - Shrinking the Transaction Log - Any way to automate?

  - by Albert

  I went in and checked my Transaction log the other day and it was something crazy like 15GB. I ran the following code: USE mydb GO BACKUP LOG mydb WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY GO DBCC SHRINKFILE(mydb_log,8) GO Which worked fine, shrank it down to 8MB...but the DB in question is a Log Shipping Publisher, and the log is already back up to some 500MB and growing quick. Is there any way to automate this log shrinking, outside of creating a custom "Execute T-SQL Statement Task" Maintenance Plan Task, and hooking it on to my log backup task? If that's the best way then fine...but I was just thinking that SQL Server would have a better way of dealing with this. I thought it was supposed to shrink automatically whenever you took a log backup, but that's not happening (perhaps because of my log shipping, I don't know). Here's my current backup plan: Full backups every night Transaction log backups once a day, late morning (maybe hook the Log shrinking onto this...doesn't need to be shrank every day though) Or maybe I just run it once a week, after I run a full backup task? What do you all think?

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• stuck with enable session state

  - by Shrewd Demon

  hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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• Comparing textbox.text value to value in SQL Server

  - by Anicho

  Okay so I am trying to compare a login textbox password and username with a custom validator using linq to get information from the database it always returns false though on the validator could someone please tell me where my code below is going wrong. This will be very much appreciated... thank you in advanced... protected void LoginValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { TiamoDataContext context = new TiamoDataContext(); var UsernameCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Username; var PasswordCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Password; String test1 = PasswordCheck.ToString(); String test2 = UsernameCheck.ToString(); if (test1 == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text && test2 == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text) { args.IsValid = true; Session["Username"] = TextBoxLoginUsername; Response.Redirect("UserProfile.aspx"); } else { args.IsValid = false; } } I dont know where I am going wrong I know its most probably some sort of silly mistake and me being inexperienced at this...

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• Creating an HTTP-Redirected Virtual Directopry in IIS 6.0 without specifying physical path & WMI/ADS

  - by Steve Johnson

  My question is : Is it possible to create a working IIS 6.0 Virtual Directory with providing Physical Path of the Virtual Directory.? I know that manually, it is not possible via IIS but programmatically such a virtual directory can be created. If an HTTPRedirect is set on that virtual directory but the site physical path is not specified, then will it work? Simply stated, how to create an HTTp-redirected Virtual Directory , directly without specifying any physical path to a folder or network share. Here is my code. Try If Directory.Exists(HomeDirectory) = False And Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then Directory.CreateDirectory(HomeDirectory) End If Dim website As DirectoryEntry website = New DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & IISServer & "/W3SVC/" & WebsiteId & "/Root") Dim NewVDir As DirectoryEntry = website.Children.Add(VDirName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") If Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then NewVDir.Properties("Path")(0) = Path NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect").Clear() Else NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect")(0) = Path End If If ((Perm And Permission.Read) = Permission.Read) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessRead")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.Write) = Permission.Write) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessWrite")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.DirBrowse) = Permission.DirBrowse) Then NewVDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.CreatetApplication) = Permission.CreatetApplication) Then NewVDir.Invoke("AppCreate", True) End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptOnly) = Permission.ScriptOnly) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessScript")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptNExecute) = Permission.ScriptNExecute) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessExecute")(0) = True End If NewVDir.Properties("AuthAnonymous")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AuthNTLM")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserName")(0) = AnonUserName NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserPass")(0) = AnonPassword NewVDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName")(0) = AppFriendlyName NewVDir.CommitChanges() website.CommitChanges() NewVDir.Close() website.Close() Success = True Catch Err As Exception Throw New Exception("My Custom Exception Here: " & Err.Message) End Try

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• iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

  - by StuartW

  My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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• Looking for detailed explanation of Hibernate UserType methods for mutable objects

  - by Tom

  I am creating a custom UserType class in Hibernate. The specific case is for an HL7v3 clinical document (I work in health IT). It is a mutable object and most of the documentation around the Hibernate UserType interface seems to center around immutable types. I want a better understanding of how and when the interface methods are used, specifically: assemble - why two parameters (one Serializable, one Object)? What is the use case for this method? disassemble - should I just implement this method to return a serializable form (e.g. String representation)? When and how is this method invoked? equals - is this for update? read? contention? dirty reads? What are the consequences of simply returning false in most cases? replace - I really don't understand where the three Object parameters come from, when this method is invoked, and what Hibernate expects to return, or how that return value is used. Any pointers would be appreciated. I've searched and read all I can find on the subject, but have not found much documentation at all explaining how these methods are used for mutable objects.

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• Why does a non-dynamically created iframe shim show, but a dynamically created one does not?

  - by Carter

  I have a custom control that is made up of a text field and the ajax control toolkit dateextender. In IE6 I'm hitting the z-index bug where the calendar is showing behind select boxes. If I have the shim sitting in the control, initially hidden, it seems to display fine when the calendar is shown, but when I try to dynamically create the shim on showing it doesn't appear. I've tried bgiframe and some examples I found on SO, no luck. Here is my javascript code currently... var dateEditorShim; function dateEditor_OnShown(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = dateControl._width; var shimHeight = dateControl._height; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim = document.createElement('iframe'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('src', 'javascript:"";'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('frameBorder', '0'); dateEditorShim.style.width = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetWidth; dateEditorShim.style.height = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetHeight; dateEditorShim.style.top = dateControl._popupDiv.style.top; dateEditorShim.style.left = dateControl._popupDiv.style.left; dateControl._popupDiv.style.zIndex = 999; dateEditorShim.style.zIndex = 998; dateEditorShim.style.display = "block"; } function dateEditor_OnHiding(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = 0; var shimHeight = 0; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim.style.width = 0; dateEditorShim.style.height = 0; dateEditorShim.style.top = 0; dateEditorShim.style.left = 0; dateEditorShim.style.display = "none"; } You'll notice I have a commented out bit of code that gets an iframe that is embedded into the page, as I said, in this case the iframe at least shows up, but when I dynamically create it like the code above currently, it doesn't. I'm trying to figure out why. Any ideas?

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• Django Testing: Faking User Creation

  - by Ygam

  I want to better write this test: def test_profile_created(self): self.client.post(reverse('registration_register'), data={ 'username':'ygam', 'email':'[email protected]', 'password1':'ygam', 'password2':'ygam' }) """ Test if a profile is created on save """ user = User.objects.get(username='ygam') self.assertTrue(UserProfile.objects.filter(user=user).exists()) and I just came upon this code on django-registration tests that does not actually "create" the user: def test_registration_signal(self): def receiver(sender, **kwargs): self.failUnless('user' in kwargs) self.assertEqual(kwargs['user'].username, 'bob') self.failUnless('request' in kwargs) self.failUnless(isinstance(kwargs['request'], WSGIRequest)) received_signals.append(kwargs.get('signal')) received_signals = [] signals.user_registered.connect(receiver, sender=self.backend.__class__) self.backend.register(_mock_request(), username='bob', email='[email protected]', password1='secret') self.assertEqual(len(received_signals), 1) self.assertEqual(received_signals, [signals.user_registered]) However he used a custom function for this "_mock_request": class _MockRequestClient(Client): def request(self, **request): environ = { 'HTTP_COOKIE': self.cookies, 'PATH_INFO': '/', 'QUERY_STRING': '', 'REMOTE_ADDR': '127.0.0.1', 'REQUEST_METHOD': 'GET', 'SCRIPT_NAME': '', 'SERVER_NAME': 'testserver', 'SERVER_PORT': '80', 'SERVER_PROTOCOL': 'HTTP/1.1', 'wsgi.version': (1,0), 'wsgi.url_scheme': 'http', 'wsgi.errors': self.errors, 'wsgi.multiprocess':True, 'wsgi.multithread': False, 'wsgi.run_once': False, 'wsgi.input': None, } environ.update(self.defaults) environ.update(request) request = WSGIRequest(environ) # We have to manually add a session since we'll be bypassing # the middleware chain. session_middleware = SessionMiddleware() session_middleware.process_request(request) return request def _mock_request(): return _MockRequestClient().request() However, it may be too long of a function for my needs. I want to be able to somehow "fake" the account creation. I have not much experience on mocks and stubs so any help would do. Thanks!

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• Passing Object to Service in WCF

  - by hgulyan

  Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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• MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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• Subsonic, child records, and collections

  - by Dane

  Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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• Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for MSSQL

  - by taspeotis

  Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some psuedo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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• Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for SQL Server

  - by taspeotis

  Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some pseudo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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