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• Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

  - by john c

  OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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• iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

  - by StuartW

  My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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• Customizing orchard theme parts

  - by madcapnmckay

  Hi, I am trying to write a custom theme for orchard and am not having much success so far. I have read Bertrand Le Roy's article on part alternates but I can't seem to get it to work. I am displaying a list of recent blog posts on the front page, pretty standard. I wish to change the markup produced by the meta data part i.e the time format. I have written a IShapeTableProvider to create blog specific alternates for the metadata summary part. public class MetaDataShapeProvider : IShapeTableProvider { private readonly IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor; public MetaDataShapeProvider(IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor) { this.workContextAccessor = workContextAccessor; } public void Discover(ShapeTableBuilder builder) { builder .Describe("Parts_Common_Metadata_Summary") .OnDisplaying(displaying => { ContentItem contentItem = displaying.Shape.ContentItem; if (contentItem != null) displaying.ShapeMetadata.Alternates.Add("Metadata__" + contentItem.ContentType); }); } } This is being caught correctly but the contentItem is null. Should I just create an alternate with a fixed name like "Metadata-BlogPost" and use that, to make this general purpose it should really be a dynamic name so I can use another alternate template elsewhere. Thanks, Ian

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• How to nest joins with CakePHP?

  - by Daren Thomas

  I'm trying to behave. So, instead of using following SQL syntax: select * from tableA INNER JOIN tableB on tableA.id = tableB.tableA_id LEFT OUTER JOIN ( tableC INNER JOIN tableD on tableC.tableD_id = tableD.id) on tableC.tableA_id = tableA.id I'd like to use the CakePHP model->find(). This will let me use the Paginator too, since that will not work with custom SQL queries as far as I understand (unless you hardcode one single pagination query to the model which seems a little inflexible to me). What I've tried so far: /* inside tableA_controller.php, inside an action, e.g. "view" */ $this->paginate['recursive'] = -1; # suppress model associations for now $this->paginate['joins'] = array( array( 'table' => 'tableB', 'alias' => 'TableB', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableB.tableA_id = TableA.id', ), array( 'table' => 'tableC', 'alias' => 'TableC', 'type' => 'left', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableA_id = TableA.id', 'joins' = array( # this would be the obvious way to do it, but doesn't work array( 'table' => 'tableD', 'alias' => 'TableD', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableD_id = TableD.id' ) ) ) ) That is, nesting the joins into the structure. But that doesn't work (CakePHP just ignores the nested 'joins' element which was kind of what I expected, but sad. I have seen hints in comments on how to do subqueries (in the where clause) using a statement builder. Can a similar trick be used here?

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• Protocol specific channel handlers

  - by Mickael Marrache

  I'm writing an application server that will receive SIP and DNS messages from the network. When I receive a message from the network, I understand from the documentation that at first, I get a ChannelBuffer. I would like to determine which kind of message has been received (SIP or DNS) and to decode it. To determine the message type, I can dedicate port to each type of message, but I would be interested to know if there exist another solution for that. My question is more about how to decode the ChannelBuffer. Is there a ChannelHandler provided by Netty to decode SIP or DNS messages? If not, what would be the right place in the type hierarchy to write my custom ChannelHandler? To illustrate my question, let's take as example the HttpRequestDecoder, the hierarchy is: java.lang.Object org.jboss.netty.channel.SimpleChannelUpstreamHandler org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.frame.FrameDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.replay.ReplayingDecoder<HttpMessageDecoder.State> org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpMessageDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpRequestDecoder Also, do I need to use two different ChannelHandler for decoding and encoding, or is there a possibility to use a single ChannelHandler for both? Thanks

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• Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for MSSQL

  - by taspeotis

  Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some psuedo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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• Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for SQL Server

  - by taspeotis

  Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some pseudo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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• Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

  - by rwmnau

  I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

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• Creating an HTTP-Redirected Virtual Directopry in IIS 6.0 without specifying physical path & WMI/ADS

  - by Steve Johnson

  My question is : Is it possible to create a working IIS 6.0 Virtual Directory with providing Physical Path of the Virtual Directory.? I know that manually, it is not possible via IIS but programmatically such a virtual directory can be created. If an HTTPRedirect is set on that virtual directory but the site physical path is not specified, then will it work? Simply stated, how to create an HTTp-redirected Virtual Directory , directly without specifying any physical path to a folder or network share. Here is my code. Try If Directory.Exists(HomeDirectory) = False And Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then Directory.CreateDirectory(HomeDirectory) End If Dim website As DirectoryEntry website = New DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & IISServer & "/W3SVC/" & WebsiteId & "/Root") Dim NewVDir As DirectoryEntry = website.Children.Add(VDirName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") If Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then NewVDir.Properties("Path")(0) = Path NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect").Clear() Else NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect")(0) = Path End If If ((Perm And Permission.Read) = Permission.Read) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessRead")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.Write) = Permission.Write) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessWrite")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.DirBrowse) = Permission.DirBrowse) Then NewVDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.CreatetApplication) = Permission.CreatetApplication) Then NewVDir.Invoke("AppCreate", True) End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptOnly) = Permission.ScriptOnly) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessScript")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptNExecute) = Permission.ScriptNExecute) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessExecute")(0) = True End If NewVDir.Properties("AuthAnonymous")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AuthNTLM")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserName")(0) = AnonUserName NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserPass")(0) = AnonPassword NewVDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName")(0) = AppFriendlyName NewVDir.CommitChanges() website.CommitChanges() NewVDir.Close() website.Close() Success = True Catch Err As Exception Throw New Exception("My Custom Exception Here: " & Err.Message) End Try

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• Subsonic, child records, and collections

  - by Dane

  Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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• Looking for detailed explanation of Hibernate UserType methods for mutable objects

  - by Tom

  I am creating a custom UserType class in Hibernate. The specific case is for an HL7v3 clinical document (I work in health IT). It is a mutable object and most of the documentation around the Hibernate UserType interface seems to center around immutable types. I want a better understanding of how and when the interface methods are used, specifically: assemble - why two parameters (one Serializable, one Object)? What is the use case for this method? disassemble - should I just implement this method to return a serializable form (e.g. String representation)? When and how is this method invoked? equals - is this for update? read? contention? dirty reads? What are the consequences of simply returning false in most cases? replace - I really don't understand where the three Object parameters come from, when this method is invoked, and what Hibernate expects to return, or how that return value is used. Any pointers would be appreciated. I've searched and read all I can find on the subject, but have not found much documentation at all explaining how these methods are used for mutable objects.

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• Control Attributes render Encoded on dot net 4 - how to disable the encoding ?

  - by Aristos

  I have an issue in asp.net 4. When I add an attribute on controls, then the render it encoded. For example, when I type this code txtQuestion.Attributes["onfocus"] = "if(this.value == this.title) { this.value = ''; this.style.backgroundColor='#FEFDE0'; this.style.color='#000000'; }"; I get render onfocus="if(this.value == this.title){this.value = &#39;&#39;;this.style.backgroundColor=&#39;#FEFDE0&#39;; this.style.color=&#39;#000000&#39;;}" And every ' hash been change to & #39; Is there a way to disable this new future only on some controls ? or an easy way to make a custom render ? My Fail tries I have all ready try some thinks but I fail. For example this fails. txtQuestion.RenderingCompatibility = new Version("3.5"); I also locate the point that this attributes renders and is on public virtual void RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag tagKey) function, there every attribute have a flag if he wish to be encoded, but I do not know how can anyone set it or not. Anyway, thank you in advanced.

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• UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

  - by Larry Fransson

  This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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• ListView Final Column Autosize creates scrollbar

  - by Courtney de Lautour

  Hi There, I am implementing a custom control which derives from ListView. I would like for the final column to fill the remaining space (Quite a common task), I have gone about this via overriding the OnResize method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (Columns.Count == 0) return; Columns[Columns.Count - 1].Width = -2; // -2 = Fill remaining space } or via another method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (!_autoFillLastColumn) return; if (Columns.Count == 0) return; int TotalWidth = 0; int i = 0; for (; i < Columns.Count - 1; i++) { TotalWidth += Columns[i].Width; } Columns[i].Width = this.DisplayRectangle.Width - TotalWidth; } Edit: This works fine until I dock the ListView into a parent container and resize via that control. Every second time the control size shrinks (IE, drag the the border one pixel), I get a scroll bar on the bottom which can't move at all (not even one pixel). The result of which is when I drag the size of the parent I am left with a flickering scroll bar in the ListView, and a 50% chance it will be there when the dragging stops.

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• UISlider how to set the initial value

  - by slim

  I'm pretty new at this iphone dev stuff and i'm working on some existing code at a company. The uislider i'm trying to set the initial value on is actually in a UITableViewCell and is a custom control. I was thinking in the cell init cell = (QuantitiesCell *)[self loadCellWithNibName:@"QuantitiesCell" forTableView:ltableView withStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault]; i could just call something like ((QuantitiesCell *)cell).value = 5; The actual QuantitiesCell class has the member value and the following functions -(void)initCell;{ if (listOfValues == nil) { [self initListOfValues]; } quantitiesSLider.maximumValue = [listOfValues count]-1; quantitiesSLider.minimumValue = 0; quantitiesSLider.value = self.value; } -(void)initListOfValues;{ listOfValues = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; int j =0; for (float i = minValue; i <= maxValue+increment; i=i+increment) { [listOfValues addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat: i]]; if (i == value) { quantitiesSLider.value = j; } j++; } } like i said, i'm pretty new at this so if i need to post more of the code to show whats going to get help, let me know, This slider always is defaulting to 1, the slider ranges usually from 1-10, and i want to set it to a specific value of the item i'm trying to edit.

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• ASP.NET output caching - dynamically update dependencies

  - by ColinE

  Hi All, I have an ASP.NET application which requires output caching. I need to invalidate the cached items when the data returned from a web service changes, so a simple duration is not good enough. I have been doing a bit of reading about cache dependencies and think I have the right idea. It looks like I will need to create a cache dependency to my web service. To associate the page output with this dependency I think I should use the following method: Response.AddCacheItemDependency(cacheKey); The thing I am struggling with is what I should add to the cache? The dependency my page has is to a single value returned by the web service. My current thinking is that I should create a Custom Cache Dependency via subclassing CacheDependency, and store the current value in the cache. I can then use Response.AddCacheItemDependency to form the dependency. I can then periodically check the value and for a NotifyDependencyChange in order to invalidate my cached HTTP response. The problem is, I need to ensure that the cache is flushed immediately, so a periodic check is not good enough. How can I ensure that my dependant object in the cache which represents the value returned by the web service is re-evaluated before the HTTP response is fetched from the cache? Regards, Colin E.

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• How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

  - by Boydski

  I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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• spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

  - by mdma

  I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

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• UITextField to show UIPickerView in xcode 4.3.2 using textField.inputView

  - by ChromeBlue

  I'm looking to have a UITextField display a UIPickerView when touched. I found quite a few questions on the same topic that say to use UITextField.inputView. However, when I try, nothing changes. I have a very simple code: setupViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> extern NSString *setupRightChannel; @interface setupViewController : UIViewController { UITextField* rightChannelField; UIPickerView *channelPicker; } @property (retain, nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField* rightChannelField; @property (retain, readwrite) IBOutlet UIPickerView *channelPicker; setupViewController.m #import "setupViewController.h" @Interface setupViewController() @end @implementation setupViewController @synthesize rightChannelField; - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = @"Setup"; // Do any additional setup after loading the view from its nib. rightChannelField.inputView = channelPicker; } -(IBAction)okClicked:(id)sender { setupRightChannel = rightChannelField.text; } I feel like I might be missing something fundamental here, but I honestly cannot think of what it is.

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• CallbackValidator called with empty string

  - by Paolo Tedesco

  I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

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• MEF and ASP.NET MVC

  - by denis_n

  I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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• Is there a way to automaticly call all versions of an inherited method?

  - by Eric

  I'm writing a plug-in for a 3D modeling program. I have a custom class that wraps instances of elements in the 3D model, and in turn derives it's properties from the element it wraps. When the element in the model changes I want my class(es) to update their properties based on the new geometry. In the simplified example below. I have classes AbsCurveBasd, Extrusion, and Shell which are all derived from one another. Each of these classes implement a RefreshFromBaseShape() method which updates specific properties based on the current baseShape the class is wrapping. I can call base.RefreshFromBaseShape() in each implementation of RefreshFromBaseShape() to ensure that all the properties are updated. But I'm wondering if there is a better way where I don't have to remember to do this in every implementation of RefershFromBaseShape()? For example because AbsCurveBased does not have a parameterless constructor the code wont even compile unless the constructors call the base class constructors. public abstract class AbsCurveBased { internal Curve baseShape; double Area{get;set;} public AbsCurveBased(Curve baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public virtual void RefreshFromBaseShape() { //sets the Area property from the baseShape } } public class Extrusion : AbsCurveBased { double Volume{get;set;} double Height{get;set;} public Extrusion(Curve baseShape):base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public override void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets the Volume property based on the area and the height } } public class Shell : Extrusion { double ShellVolume{get;set;} double ShellThickness{get;set;} public Shell(Curve baseShape): base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets this Shell Volume from the Extrusion properties and ShellThickness property } }

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• Problem with Spring security's logout

  - by uther-lightbringer

  Hello, I've got a problem logging out in Spring framework. First when I want j_spring_security_logout to handle it for me i get 404 j_spring_security_logout not found: sample-security.xml: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout/> </http> Sample url link to logout in JSP page: <a href="<c:url value="/j_spring_security_logout" />">Logout</a> When i try to use a custom JSP page i.e. I use login form for this purpose then I get better result at least it gets to login page, but another problem is that you dont't get logged off as you can diretcly type url that should be guarded buy you get past it anyway. Slightly modified from previous listings: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout logout-success-url="/login.jsp" /> </http> <a href="<c:url value="/login.jsp" />">Logout</a> Thank you for help

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• WPF, notify a child in the element tree about an event in a parent

  - by jester

  I am developing a WPF app and I want an event in a parent to be notified to several of its children in the element tree, so that each of them can take an action accordingly. I know that a custom RoutedEvent can be used to signal in the other direction from a child to one of its ancestors by bubbling the event upwards, so that any of the ancestor elements can handle the event. What I want is the children to be notified about an event in the parent and they handle them appropriately. What is the best strategy to achieve this? EDIT: Clarifying the comments : Say I have a parent UserControl. It has a TabControl and its contents are several nested child UserControls. Now consider a scenario where I want the TabControl.SelectionChanged() event to cause some changes in each of the child UserControl. How to achieve this? (The contents of each tab is a UserControl which themselves may contain another few levels of children UserControls. I want the UserControl in the bottom level to know about the SelectionChanged() event and respond accordingly).

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• Different ways to use properties file in j2ee app

  - by Omnipresent

  I have a j2ee app using Struts2. I have a gloabl properties file which is declared in struts.properties which resides in WEB-INF/classes. It has the following setting: struts.custom.i18n.resources=mypropertyfile mypropertyfile also resides in WEB-INF/classes Say for example it contains the following: pdf.test.title=PDF Test then on jsp I use the following to make use of the property file <s:text name="pdf.test.title"/> This setup was working on Sun App server 8.2 but is not working on GlassFish App Server (I see pdf.test.title on the browser rather than PDF Test). I do not have access to GlassFish App server to try and tweak the setting to make it work. So I want to make changes to the code and see if that will help. My question is: What are some other ways to use properties file in a J2EE app? (using Struts2 or not). I'm also open to ways suggested to make changes on glassfish to make this work? Build/version #'s GlassFish = 9.1_02 (build b04-fcs) Struts2 = 2.0.6 JRE6

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