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  • Can a web app in xul:iframe access functions from its parent XUL file?

    - by oskar
    I want to deploy a web app as a self-contained program using XULRunner. I'm simply loading it in a xul:iframe tag within the main XUL file. It works, but I want the web app to have access to XUL components, specifically nsiFilePicker. My tentative solution is to run the xul:iframe with escalated privileges (by omitting the "type" attribute), wait for the xul:iframe to load, then define a javascript function that the web app will then call. <window id="main" width="800" height="600" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <iframe id="contentview" src="web/index.html" flex="1"/> <script> //listen for XUL window to load window.addEventListener("load",Listen,false); function Listen() { var frame = document.getElementById("contentview"); frame.addEventListener("DOMContentLoaded", DomLoadedEventHandler, true); } //listen for iframe to load function DomLoadedEventHandler() { //set function in iframe called testMe() var frame = document.getElementById("contentview"); frame.contentWindow.testMe = function () { alert("This is a test"); }; } </script> </window> ...and then in the index.html file of the web app... <script> testMe(); </script> This doesn't seem to work. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • How to display external database data in VBulletin 4 Forums Custom PHP Block?

    - by NJTechGuy
    Hi guys! I want to display data feed from an external database in a sidebar in the forums section. PHP Block Code : $host = 'db.123.net'; $dbUser = 'db49'; $dbPass = 'iReVbY'; $db = 'db6578h8'; mysql_connect("$host", "$dbUser", "$dbPass") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("$db") or die(mysql_error()); ob_start(); $result = mysql_query("SELECT id, title from abc") or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array( $result )) { print"<center>"; print "<a href=\"http://abc.com/?id=" . $row['id'] . "\"></a>"; print "</center>"; } $output .= ob_get_contents(); return $output; ob_end_clean(); How do I return an array to display in a PHP block in the sidebar (forums section)? Please help me out of this! Thank you..

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  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/Documents/TestNote/Documents/AddNote' is not allowed.

    - by priya4
    I am having two user control on a aspx page and one of the user control has a text area for notes. and i am trying to use JSON so that when they click the addnote button it does not reload the page. Below is my java script , but it says that it is giving this error The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/Documents/TestNote/Documents/AddNote' is not allowed. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnAddNote").click(function() { alert("knock knock"); var gnote = getNotes(); //var notes = $("#txtNote").val(); if (gnote == null) { alert("Note is null"); return; } $.post("Documents/AddNote", gnote, function(data) { var msg = data.Msg; $("#resultMsg").html(msg); }); }); }); function getNotes() { alert("I am in getNotes function"); var notes = $("#txtNote").val(); if (notes == "") alert("notes is empty"); return (notes == "") ? null : { Note: notes }; } </script> My controller [HttpPost] public ActionResult AddNote(AdNote note) { string msg = string.Format("Note {0} added", note.Note); return Json(new AdNote { Note = msg }); }

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  • How to access C arrays from assembler for Windows x64?

    - by 0xdword32
    I've written an assembler function to speed up a few things for image processing (images are created with CreateDIBSection). For Win32 the assembler code works without problems, but for Win64 I get a crash as soon as I try to access my array data. I put the relevant info in a struct and my assembler function gets a pointer to this struct. The struct pointer is put into ebx/rbx and with indexing I read the data from the struct. Any idea what I am doing wrong? I use nasm together with Visual Studio 2008 and for Win64 I set "default rel". C++ code: struct myData { tUInt32 ulParam1; void* pData; }; CallMyAssemblerFunction(&myData); Assembler Code: Win32: ... push ebp; mov ebp,esp mov ebx, [ebp + 8]; pointer to our struct mov eax, [ebx]; ulParam1 mov esi, [ebx + 4]; pData, 4 byte pointer movd xmm0, [esi]; ... Win64: ... mov rbx, rcx; pointer to our struct mov eax, [rbx]; ulParam1 mov rsi, [rbx + 4]; pData, 8 byte pointer movd xmm0, [rsi]; CRASH! ...

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  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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  • How do I access the CodeDomProvider from a class inheriting from Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextTemplating.VSHost.BaseCodeGeneratorWithSite?

    - by Charlie
    Does anyone know how to get a CodeDomProvider in the new Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextTemplating.VSHost.BaseCodeGeneratorWithSite from the Visual Studio 2010 SDK? I used to get access to it just by in mere inheritance of the class Microsoft.CustomTool.BaseCodeGeneratorWithSite, but now with this new class it is not there. I see a GlobalServiceProvider and a SiteServiceProvider but I can't find any example on how to use them. Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextTemplating.VSHost.BaseCodeGeneratorWithSite: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb932625.aspx I was to do this: public class Generator : Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextTemplating.VSHost.BaseCodeGeneratorWithSite { public override string GetDefaultExtension() { // GetDefaultExtension IS ALSO NOT ACCESSIBLE... return this.InputFilePath.Substring(this.InputFilePath.LastIndexOf(".")) + ".designer" + base.GetDefaultExtension(); } // This method is being called every time the attached xml is saved. protected override byte[] GenerateCode(string inputFileName, string inputFileContent) { try { // Try to generate the wrapper file. return GenerateSourceCode(inputFileName); } catch (Exception ex) { // In case of a faliure - print the exception // as a comment in the source code. return GenerateExceptionCode(ex); } } public byte[] GenerateSourceCode(string inputFileName) { Dictionary<string, CodeCompileUnit> oCodeUnits; // THIS IS WHERE CodeProvider IS NOT ACCESSIBLE CodeDomProvider oCodeDomProvider = this.CodeProvider; string[] aCode = new MyCustomAPI.GenerateCode(inputFileName, ref oCodeDomProvider); return Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(String.Join(@" ", aCode)); } private byte[] GenerateExceptionCode(Exception ex) { CodeCompileUnit oCode = new CodeCompileUnit(); CodeNamespace oNamespace = new CodeNamespace("System"); oNamespace.Comments.Add(new CodeCommentStatement(MyCustomAPI.Print(ex))); oCode.Namespaces.Add(oNamespace); string sCode = null; using (StringWriter oSW = new StringWriter()) { using (IndentedTextWriter oITW = new IndentedTextWriter(oSW)) { this.CodeProvider.GenerateCodeFromCompileUnit(oCode, oITW, null); sCode = oSW.ToString(); } } return Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(sCode ); } } Thanks for your help!

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  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

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  • Good Starting Points for Optimizing Database Calls in Ruby on Rails?

    - by viatropos
    I have a menu in Rails which grabs a nested tree of Post models, each which have a Slug model associated via a polymorphic association (using the friendly_id gem for slugs and awesome_nested_set for the tree). The database output in development looks like this (here's the full gist): SQL (0.4ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 39) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 40 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 SQL (0.3ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 40) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 41 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 ... Rendered shared/_menu.html.haml (907.6ms) What are some quick things I should always do to optimize this from the start (easy things)? Some things I'm thinking now are: Can Rails 3 eager load the whole Post tree + associated Slugs in one DB call? Can I do that easily with named scopes or custom SQL? What is best practice in this situation? Not really thinking about memcached in this situation as that can be applied to much more than just this.

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  • How to access method variables from within an anonymous function in JavaScript?

    - by Hussain
    I'm writing a small ajax class for personal use. In the class, I have a "post" method for sending post requests. The post method has a callback parameter. In the onreadystatechange propperty, I need to call the callback method. Something like this: this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(this.responseText); } However, I can't access the callback variable from within the anonomous function. How can I bring the callback variable into the scope of the onreadystatechange anonomous function? edit: Here's the full code so far: function request() { this.initialize = function(errorHandeler) { try { try { this.requestObject = new XDomainRequest(); } catch(e) { try { this.requestObject = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e) { try { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); //newer versions of IE5+ } catch (e) { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); //older versions of IE5+ } } } } catch(e) { errorHandeler(); } } this.post = function(url,data) { var response;var escapedData = ""; if (typeof data == 'object') { for (i in data) { escapedData += escape(i)+'='+escape(data[i])+'&'; } escapedData = escapedData.substr(0,escapedData.length-1); } else { escapedData = escape(data); } this.requestObject.open('post',url,true); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-length", data.length); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { if (this.readyState == 4) { // call callback function } } this.requestObject.send(data); }

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  • Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

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  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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  • Why compiling in Flash IDE I cannot access stage in a Sprite constructor before addChild while if I

    - by yuri
    I've created this simple class (omissing package directive and imports) public class Viewer extends Sprite { public function Viewer():void { trace(stage); } } then in Flash IDE I import in first frame this AS: import Viewer var viewer = new Viewer(); stage.addChild(viewer); trace(viewer.stage); and this works as I expected: the first trace called in constructor say stage is "null" because I haven't yet add viewer to a DisplayObjectContainer. The second one output the stage object. So I created a project using AXDT eclipse plugin, I've recreated and compiled only the first class (trashed the AS init script used in Flash IDE because is not needed) and on the first trace ... wow ... the stage is filled with the stage Object. I seems to me that the compiler used by AXDT (Flex4 SDK open source) add the class... before construct it (!?).. to a DisplayObjectContainer already attached to a Stage. I want to understand how can reproduce this behaviour using compiler in Flash IDE so I can directrly access Stage in construction.

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  • Access denied for pdf to read using itextsharp at server level..

    - by apekshabs
    Am facing error after uploadind to server... as access denied .... can anyone help me.... Document myDocument = new Document(PageSize.A5, 26, 72, 180, 180); string strUniqueFn = "onlineinvoice.pdf"; string imgpath = "logo.gif"; string strUser = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.Substring(Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.IndexOf("\\") + 1).ToUpper(); string strFolder = Server.MapPath("."); System.IO.DirectoryInfo di = new System.IO.DirectoryInfo(strFolder); System.IO.FileInfo[] fi = di.GetFiles(strUser + "*.*"); for (i = 0; i <= fi.Length - 1; i++) { System.IO.File.Delete(strFolder + "\\" + strUniqueFn); } string strPath = strFolder + "\\" + strUniqueFn; PdfWriter pdfw = PdfWriter.GetInstance(myDocument, new FileStream(strPath, FileMode.Create)); string iPath = strFolder + "\\" + imgpath; pdfw.CloseStream = false; myDocument.Open(); ...................... myDocument.Close(); Am facing error at PdfWriter pdfw = PdfWriter.GetInstance(myDocument, new FileStream(strPath, FileMode.Create)); can anyone help me... Thank you

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  • How can I access mainframe data with .Net applications and SQL Queries?

    - by orandov
    We have a large amount of data stored on an IBM mainframe using VSAM files. A lot of this data is dropped on the network every night in the form of text files to be processed and dumped into FoxPro and SQL Server databases. There are also many text files produced nightly by custom applications that get uploaded to the mainframe to keep everything in sync. Keeping the everything in sync is very tricky, to say the least. We are not getting rid of the mainframe any time soon and we would like to replace all the nightly batch processing with real time access to the mainframe data. We would like to be able to: Read data directly from the mainframe and produce reports based on it. Possibly using SQL queries. Read and Write data from custom .Net applications. We are not looking for a new platform to interface with the mainframe like Information Builders offers. We don't want to build application modules or reports with new "Business Intelligence" tools. We already know how to generate reports and write custom applications using SQL,.Net, Visual Studio, etc. All we are looking for is some sort of adapter to connect to our mainframe data. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • how to get access to private members of nested class?

    - by macias
    Background: I have enclosed (parent) class E with nested class N with several instances of N in E. In the enclosed (parent) class I am doing some calculations and I am setting the values for each instance of nested class. Something like this: n1.field1 = ...; n1.field2 = ...; n1.field3 = ...; n2.field1 = ...; ... It is one big eval method (in parent class). My intention is -- since all calculations are in parent class (they cannot be done per nested instance because it would make code more complicated) -- make the setters only available to parent class and getters public. And now there is a problem: when I make the setters private, parent class cannot acces them when I make them public, everybody can change the values and C# does not have friend concept I cannot pass values in constructor because lazy evaluation mechanism is used (so the instances have to be created when referencing them -- I create all objects and the calculation is triggered on demand) I am stuck -- how to do this (limit access up to parent class, no more, no less)? I suspect I'll get answer-question first -- "but why you don't split the evaluation per each field" -- so I answer this by example: how do you calculate min and max value of a collection? In a fast way? The answer is -- in one pass. This is why I have one eval function which does calculations and sets all fields at once.

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  • How to access the value of the Label present inside Datagrid asp.net using jquery?

    - by vini
    <asp:DataGrid ID="datagrid1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Width="100%" DataKeyField="Expr1" OnItemCommand="datagrid1_ItemCommand" EmptyDataText="No Records Found" > <HeaderStyle BackColor="#2E882E" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#FFFFCC" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText=""> <ItemTemplate> <table> <tr> <td class="style1"> <asp:Label ID="lblStatus" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Status") %>'></asp:Label> </td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> How can i access this Status Label value using jquery Please help var DataGrid1 = $("<%=datagrid1.ClientID %>"); var status = $(DataGrid1).children("lblStatus").get(0).innerHTML; Will the above code work?

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  • How can I synchronise two datatables and update the target in the database?

    - by Craig
    I am trying to synchronise two tables between two databases. I thought that the best way to do this would be to use the DataTable.Merge method. This seems to pick up the changes, but nothing ever gets committed to the database. So far I have: string tableName = "[Table_1]"; string sql = "select * from " + tableName; using (SqlConnection sourceConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["source"].ConnectionString)) { SqlDataAdapter sourceAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); sourceAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand(sql, sourceConn); sourceConn.Open(); DataSet sourceDs = new DataSet(); sourceAdapter.Fill(sourceDs); using (SqlConnection targetConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["target"].ConnectionString)) { SqlDataAdapter targetAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); targetAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand(sql, targetConn); SqlCommandBuilder builder = new SqlCommandBuilder(targetAdapter); targetAdapter.InsertCommand = builder.GetInsertCommand(); targetAdapter.UpdateCommand = builder.GetUpdateCommand(); targetAdapter.DeleteCommand = builder.GetDeleteCommand(); targetConn.Open(); DataSet targetDs = new DataSet(); targetAdapter.Fill(targetDs); targetDs.Tables[0].TableName = tableName; sourceDs.Tables[0].TableName = tableName; targetDs.Tables[0].Merge(sourceDs.Tables[0]); targetAdapter.Update(targetDs.Tables[0]); } } At the present time, there is one row in the source that is not in the target. This row is never transferred. I have also tried it with an empty target, and nothing is transferred.

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  • How to manage data access / preloading efficiently using web services in C# ?

    - by Amadeus45
    Hello all, Ok, this is very "generic" question. We currently have a SQL Server database for which we need to develop an application in ASP.NET with will contain all the business logic in C# Web Services. The thing is that, architecturally speaking, I'm not sure how to design the web service and the data management. There are many things to consider : We need have very rapid access to data. Right now, we have over a million "sales" and "purchases" record from which we need to often calculate and load the current stock for a given day according to a serie of parameter. I'm not sure how we should preload the data and keep the data in the Web Service. Doing a stock calculation within a SQL query will be very lengthy. They currently have a stock calculation application that preloads all sales and purchases for the day and afterwards calculate the stock on the code-side. We want to develop powerful reporting tools. We want to implement a "pivot table" but not sure how to implement it and have good performances. For the reasons above, I'm not sure how to design the data model. Anybody can give me any guidelines on how to start, or from their personnal experiences (what have you done in the past ?) I'm not sure if it's possible to make a bounty even though the question is new (I'd put 300 rep on it, since I really need something). If you know how, let me know. Thanks

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  • How do I ensure my C# software can access the internet in a Citrix + ISA environment?

    - by TomFromThePool
    Hi everyone, A client recently informed us that deployment of our software in their environment has failed due to a proxy error when the software attempts to access the internet. The client has a combination of Citrix and Microsoft's ISA server. The software allows the use of a proxy and the ability to manually enter authentication information, or automatically retrieve the current system proxy settings. The error returned is the standard 407 authentication error, but the client assures us that they have entered the authentication information required. They have also shown us the snippet of the ISA error logs which identify the client as Anonymous and the authentication protocol as Basic. I have a few questions I suppose: How should I go about dealing with the ISA server in my code? I have no real experience with this environment and am assuming that the ISA server is treated like any other proxy. If I am mistaken, what should I be doing? Does ISA allow the administrator to disallow specific authentication protocols - and if this is the case and 'Basic' auth is disallowed, would it still return a 407 error? Could the Citrix environment have caused this issue? Is there any particular way to ensure that my software will work in such an environment? Code-samples would be much appreciated. I have neither a Citrix test server or an ISA server at my disposal to carry out testing on this so I am currently trying to identify possible causes before I make the case for investment in a more robust testing environment. Thanks for any help!

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  • ASP.NET, C#: timeout when trying to Transaction.Commit() to database; potential deadlock?

    - by user1843921
    I have a web page that has coding structured somewhat as follows: SqlConnection conX =new SqlConnection(blablabla); conX.Open(); SqlTransaction tran=conX.BeginTransaction(); try{ SqlCommand cmdInsert =new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ColX,ColY) VALUES @x,@y",conX); cmdInsert.Transaction=tran; cmdInsert.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlCommand cmdSelect=new SqlCOmmand("SELECT * FROM Table1",conX); cmdSelect.Transaction=tran; SqlDataReader dtr=cmdSelect.ExecuteReader(); //read stuff from dtr dtr.Close(); cmdInsert=new SqlCommand("UPDATE Table2 set ColA=@a",conX); cmdInsert.Transaction=tran; cmdInsert.ExecuteNonQuery(); //display MiscMessage tran.Commit(); //display SuccessMessage } catch(Exception x) { tran.Rollback(); //display x.Message } finally { conX.Close(); } So, everything seems to work until MiscMessage. Then, after a while (maybe 15-ish seconds?) x.Message pops up, saying that: "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." So something wrong with my trans.Commit()? The database is not updated so I assume the trans.Rollback works... I have read that deadlocks can cause timeouts...is this problem cause by my SELECT statement selecting from Table1, which is being used by the first INSERT statement? If so, what should I do? If that ain't the problem, what is?

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  • DD_belatedPNG.js - how to access the vml object? this is for a PNG image-swap.

    - by akc
    I am trying to use Drew Dillard's awesome DD_belatedPNG fix + jQuery to achieve a run-of-the-mill image-swap on hover -- but with PNGs, and to work on IE6. Example: <a id="thelink" href="blah.html"><img src="f-u-ie6.png" /></a> Since DD's script sets the visibility of the original image to "hidden", you can't effectively hover over it. A lot of people, I have noticed, are thwarted by this limitation. Enough so that Drew mentioned he would try to get a work-around into the next version of his PNG fix. Well, in the meantime, I thought I could get around this by handling the hover event on the image's parent instead. So onmouseover, I would hide the VML object created by DD_belatedPNG while setting a background image on "thelink", and onmouseout, show the VML object again and set the background image to nothing. The following code was just to see if I could access the VML object, but it does not work on the VML. It hides all manner of other children, but not the VML. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function(){ $("thelink").hover(function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:hidden" }); }, function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:visible" }); }); }); Alternatively, can anyone suggest a great PNG image-swap method? I know that you can swap a background image of a link. But you still need to have something inside the A tag. That's not my case. Also, you could put a transparent GIF in the A tag and have the background image swapped to achieve the effect, but I really don't want to do that. Thanks for your insights!

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  • php simplexmlelement - I can access most properties (except the one with a dash?)

    - by Matthew Steiner
    So I run some code like this: $quote = simplexml_load_string($xml); $quote = $quote->Stock; echo 'Name: '; echo $quote->Name; echo '<br>'; echo 'Sybmol: '; echo $quote->Symbol; echo '<br>'; echo 'Last Price: '; echo $quote->Last; echo '<br>'; echo 'Earnings To Price Ratio: '; echo $quote->P-E; echo '<br>'; I know that the second to last line ($quote-P-E) is incorrect - I don't think you can use dashes like that. But for some reason I can't figure out how to access that property. The weird thing is that's how it's written if I var_dump($quote) (It's towards the end): object(SimpleXMLElement)#17 (16) { ["Symbol"]=> string(4) "AAPL" ["Last"]=> string(6) "271.87" ["Date"]=> string(9) "6/17/2010" ["Time"]=> string(6) "3:59pm" ["Change"]=> string(5) "+4.62" ["Open"]=> string(6) "270.72" ["High"]=> string(6) "272.90" ["Low"]=> string(6) "269.50" ["Volume"]=> string(8) "31195032" ["MktCap"]=> string(6) "247.4B" ["PreviousClose"]=> string(6) "267.25" ["PercentageChange"]=> string(6) "+1.73%" ["AnnRange"]=> string(15) "132.88 - 272.90" ["Earns"]=> string(6) "11.796" ["P-E"]=> string(5) "22.66" ["Name"]=> string(10) "Apple Inc." } How should I be accessing this attribute/property?

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  • Why is this linq extension method hit the database twice?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have an extension method called ToListIfNotNullOrEmpty(), which is hitting the DB twice, instead of once. The first time it returns one result, the second time it returns all the correct results. I'm pretty sure the first time it hits the database, is when the .Any() method is getting called. here's the code. public static IList<T> ToListIfNotNullOrEmpty<T>(this IEnumerable<T> value) { if (value.IsNullOrEmpty()) { return null; } if (value is IList<T>) { return (value as IList<T>); } return new List<T>(value); } public static bool IsNullOrEmpty<T>(this IEnumerable<T> value) { if (value != null) { return !value.Any(); } return true; } I'm hoping to refactor it so that, before the .Any() method is called, it actually enumerates through the entire list. If i do the following, only one DB call is made, because the list is already enumerated. var pewPew = (from x in whatever select x) .ToList() // This enumerates. .ToListIsNotNullOrEmpty(); // This checks the enumerated result. I sorta don't really want to call ToList() then my extension method. Any ideas, folks?

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