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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • PHP: saving multiple tuples to the same table

    - by Binaryrespawn
    Hi all, I am trying to save data into the same table several times from the same $_POST array. You see, on my registration form a family is allowed to specify the names, gender and age of all members they wish to bring along. This data is being stored in a database table called aditional_member. Based on family size, I am dynamically generating html table rows where each row has the number of input fields required. <tr id="additionalmember_3"> <td><input type="text" name="first_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> <td><input type="text" name="last_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> td><select name="gender1" value="" ><option value='Male'>Male</option><option value='Female'>Female</option></select></td> <td><select name="age_group"value="" ><option value='18 to 30'>18 to 30</option><option value='31 to 60'>31 to 60</option></select></td> </tr> When I POST, let us say I have three sets of input(3 table rows as above), Is there a simple way to insert into the addional_member table the data from row one, then row two, and so on. I tried looping the insert statement, which failed. I am basically open to suggestions, I do not need to use a table. Any ideas, Thank you.

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  • C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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  • How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

    - by paxdiablo
    As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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  • RegisterClientScriptInclude doesn't work for some reason...

    - by Andrew
    Hey, I've spent at least 2 days trying anything and googling this...but for some reason I can't get RegisterClientScriptInclude to work the way everyone else has it working? First off, I am usting .NET 3.5 Ajax,...and I am including javascript in my partial page refreshes...using this code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, typeof(Page), "MyClientCode", script, true); It works perfectly, my javascript code contained in the script variable is included every partial refresh. The javascript in script is actually quite extensive though, and I would like to store it in a .js file,..so logically I make a .js file and try to include it using RegisterClientScriptInclude ...however i can't for the life of my get this to work. here's the exact code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this, typeof(Page), "mytestscript", "/js/testscript.js"); the testscript.js file is only included in FULL page refreshes...ie. when I load the page, or do a full postback....i can't get the file to be included in partial refreshes...have no idea why..when viewing the ajax POST in firebug I don't see a difference whether I include the file or not.... both of the ScriptManager Includes are being ran from the exact same place in "Page_Load"...so they should execute every partial refresh (but only the ScriptBlock does). anyways,..any help or ideas,..or further ways I can trouble shoot this problem, would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

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  • Primary key/foreign Key naming convention

    - by Jeremy
    In our dev group we have a raging debate regarding the naming convention for Primary and Foreign Keys. There's basically two schools of thought in our group: 1) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called ID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID 2) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called EmployeeID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID I prefer not to duplicate the name of the table in any of the columns (So I prefer option 1 above). Conceptually, it is consisted with a lot of the recommended practices in other languages, where you don't use the name of the object in its property names. I think that naming the foreign key EmployeeID (or Employee_ID might be better) tells the reader that it is the ID column of the Employee Table. Some others prefer option 2 where you name the primary key prefixed with the table name so that the column name is the same throughout the database. I see that point, but you now can not visually distinguish a primary key from a foreign key. Also, I think it's redundant to have the table name in the column name, because if you think of the table as an entity and a column as a property or attribute of that entity, you think of it as the ID attribute of the Employee, not the EmployeeID attribute of an employee. I don't go an ask my coworker what his PersonAge or PersonGender is. I ask him what his Age is. So like I said, it's a raging debate and we go on and on and on about it. I'm interested to get some new perspective.

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  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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  • C++ destructos causing crash's

    - by larsonator
    ok, so i got a some what intricate program that simulates the uni systems of students, units, and students enrolling in units. Students are stored in a binary search tree, Units are stored in a standard list. Student has a list of Unit Pointers, to store which units he/she is enrolled in Unit has a list of Student pointers, to store students which are enrolled in that unit. The unit collections (storing units in a list) as made as a static variable where the main function is, as is the Binary search tree of students. when its finaly time to close the program, i call the destructors of each. but at some stage, during the destructors on the unit side, Unhandled exception at 0x002e4200 in ClassAllocation.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000. UnitCollection destructor: UnitCol::~UnitCol() { list<Unit>::iterator itr; for(itr = UnitCollection.begin(); itr != UnitCollection.end();) { UnitCollection.pop_front(); itr = UnitCollection.begin(); } } Unit Destructor Unit::~Unit() { } now i got the same sorta problem on the student side of things BST destructors void StudentCol::Destructor(const BTreeNode * r) { if(r!= 0) { Destructor(r->getLChild()); Destructor(r->getRChild()); delete r; } } StudentCol::~StudentCol() { Destructor(root); } Student Destructor Student::~Student() { } so yeah any help would be greatly appreciated

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  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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  • jquery: Writing a method

    - by Mark
    This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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  • Can I connect to SQL from JavaScript MVC?

    - by user54197
    I am populating a list of names that will be added to my Sql Database. In this simple case, how do I send the information to SQL server without my page being refreshed? <script type="text/javascript"> function addNewRow() { $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last').after('<tr><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td></tr>'); var $tr = $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last'); var propertyCondition = $('#txtPropAddress').val(); if (propertyCondition != "") { $tr.find('.name').text($('#txtPropName').val()); $tr.find('.address').text($('#txtPropAddress').val()); } } </script> ... <table id="displayPropertyTable" width= "100%"> <tr> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td> </tr> </table> ... <table> <tr> <td><b>Name</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropName" type="text" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><b>Address</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropAddress" type="text" /></td> </tr> </table> ... <button onclick="addNewRow();">Add</button>

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  • c++ multithread

    - by chnet
    I use C++ to implement a thread class. My code shows in the following. I have a problem about how to access thread data. In the class Thread, I create a thread use pthread_create() function. then it calls EntryPoint() function to start thread created. In the Run function, I want to access the mask variable, it always shows segment fault. So, my question is whether the new created thread copy the data in original class? How to access the thread own data? class Thread { public: int mask; pthread_t thread; Thread( int ); void start(); static void * EntryPoint (void *); void Run(); }; Thread::Thread( int a) { mask =a; } void Thread::Run() { cout<<"thread begin to run" <<endl; cout << mask <<endl; // it always show segmentfault here } void * Thread::EntryPoint(void * pthis) { cout << "entry" <<endl; Thread *pt = (Thread *) pthis; pt->Run(); } void Thread::start() { pthread_create(&thread, NULL, EntryPoint, (void *)ThreadId ); pthread_join(thread, NULL); } int main() { int input_array[8]={3,1,2,5,6,8,7,4}; Thread t1(1); t1.start(); }

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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  • Netbeans PHP Validation sees endif as a syntax error

    - by Asaf
    I have this part of code <?php for ($j=0; $j < $count; $j++): ?> <?php if(isset(votes[$j])): ?> <dt>something something</dt> <dd> <span><?php echo $result; ?>%</span> <div class="bar"> </div> </dd> <?php else: ?> <dt>info</dt> <dd> <span>0</span> <div class="bar"> <div style="width: 0px"></div> </div> </dd> <?php endif; ?> <?php endfor; ?> now Netbeans insists that on the endif line (near the end) there's a syntax error: Error Syntax error: expected: exit, identifier, variable, function... Is there some sort of known problem with the validation of endif on Netbeans ?

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  • Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

    - by superselector
    I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

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  • Perl : get substring which matches refex error

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I am very new to Perl, so please bear with my simple question: Here is the sample output: Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-8008) 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 3. agent10479475hv ($-10663) Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-7142) 2. agent10479475hv ($-8982) 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) I am interested only in agent names as well as their corresponding balances, so I am hoping to get the following output: agent10896761 -8008 flightsandroomsonly -10102 agent10479475hv -10663 agent10896761 -7142 agent10479475hv -8982 flightsandroomsonly -9124 For later processes. This is the code I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -w open(MYINPUTFILE, $ARGV[0]); while(<MYINPUTFILE>) { my($line) = $_; chomp($line); # regex match test if($line =~ m/agent10479475/) { if($line =~ m/($-[0-9]+)/) { print "$1\n"; } } if($line =~ m/flightsandroomsonly/) { print "$line\n"; } } The second regex match has nothing wrong, 'cause that is printing out the whole line. However, for the first regex match, I've got some other output such like: $ ./compareResults.pl 3.txt 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 0479475 0479475 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-8053) 0479475 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-6126) 0479475 If I "escape" the braces like this if($line =~ m/\($-[0-9]+\)/) { print "$1\n"; } Then there is never a match for the first regex... So I stuck with a problem of making that particular regex work. Any hints for this? Many thanks in advance.

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  • How to detect if a file is PDF or TIFF ?

    - by eviljack
    Please bear with me as I've been thrown into the middle of this project without knowing all the background. If you've got WTF questions, trust me, I have them too. Here is the scenario: I've got a bunch of files residing on an IIS server. They have no file extension on them. Just naked files with names like "asda-2342-sd3rs-asd24-ut57" and so on. Nothing intuitive. The problem is I need to serve up files on an ASP.NET (2.0) page and display the tiff files as tiff and the PDF files as PDF. Unfortunately I don't know which is which and I need to be able to display them appropriately in their respective formats. For example, lets say that there are 2 files I need to display, one is tiff and one is PDF. The page should show up with a tiff image, and perhaps a link that would open up the PDF in a new tab/window. The problem: As these files are all extension-less I had to force IIS to just serve everything up as TIFF. But if I do this, the PDF files won't display. I could change IIS to force the MIME type to be PDF for unknown file extensions but I'd have the reverse problem. http://support.microsoft.com/kb/326965 Is this problem easier than I think or is it as nasty as I am expecting?

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  • Inereritance of clousure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })();` Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

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  • Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

    - by MarceloRamires
    I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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  • Pointing to array element

    - by regular
    What I'm trying to achieve is say i have an array, i want to be able to modify a specific array element throughout my code, by pointing at it. for example in C++ i can do this int main(){ int arr [5]= {1,2,3,4,5}; int *c = &arr[3]; cout << arr[3] <<endl; *c = 0; cout << arr[3]<<endl; } I did some googling and there seems to be a way to do it through 'unsafe', but i don't really want to go that route. I guess i could create a variable to store the indexes, but I'm actually dealing with slightly more complexity (a list within a list. so having two index variables seems to add complexity to the code.) C# has a databinding class, so what I'm currently doing is binding the array element to a textbox (that i have hidden) and modifying that textbox whenever i want to modify the specific array element, but that's also not a good solution (since i have a textbox that's not being used for its intended purpose - a bit misleading).

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