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• Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

  - by Greg

  Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

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• Issues accessing an object's array values - returns null or 0s

  - by PhatNinja

  The function below should return an array of objects with this structure: TopicFrequency = { name: "Chemistry", //This is dependent on topic data: [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12] //This would be real data }; so when I do this: myData = this.getChartData("line"); it should return two objects: {name : "Chemistry", data : [1,2,3,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 31]} {name : "Math", data : [0,0,41,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 90]} so when I do console.log(myData); it's perfect, returns exactly this. However when I do console.log(myData[0].data) it returns all 0s, not the values. I'm not sure what this issues is known as, and my question is simple what is this problem known as? Here is the full function. Somethings were hardcoded and other variables (notable server and queryContent) removed. Those parts worked fine, it is only when manipulated/retreiving the returned array's values that I run into problems. Note this is async. so not sure if that is also part of the problem. getChartData: function (chartType) { var TopicsFrequencyArray = new Array(); timePairs = this.newIntervalSet("Month"); topicList = new Array("Chemistry", "Math");//Hard coded for now var queryCopy = { //sensitive information }; for (i = 0; i < topicList.length; i++) { var TopicFrequency = { name: null, data: this.newFilledArray(12, 0) }; j = 0; TopicFrequency.name = topicList[i]; while (j < timePairs.length) { queryCopy.filter = TopicFrequency.name; //additional queryCopy parameter changes made here var request = esri.request({ url: server, content: queryCopy, handleAs: "json", load: sucess, error: fail }); j = j + 1; function sucess(response, io) { var topicCountData = 0; query = esri.urlToObject(io.url); var dateString = query.query.fromDate.replace("%", " "); dateString = dateString.replace(/-/g, "/"); dateString = dateString.split("."); date = new Date(dateString[0]); dojo.forEach(response.features, function (feature) { if (feature.properties.count > 0) { topicCountData = feature.properties.count; } TopicFrequency.data[date.getMonth()] = topicCountData; }); } function fail(error) { j = j + 1; alert("There was an unspecified error with this request"); console.log(error); } } TopicsFrequencyArray.push(TopicFrequency); } },

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• SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

  - by Workshop Alex

  I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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• mootools fx working except in ie9

  - by Craig

  This is my first attempt with Mootools, so I welcome a critique of the code. I have a dynamic list of images that expand on the 'click" event and contract on the 'mouseout' event. The code works fine in all browsers (FF, Safari, Chrome, even the smartphones) but not in IE9 (JS is enabled) Anyone with similar problem or solution? I plan to use a lightbox effect, downloading a larger & clearer image to the center of the page, instead of just resizing a small image. However, I am hesitant to attempt this, if there is problems with IE9. I have coded three image sizes with the upload commit, so the larger image is available for the lightbox, but, I don't see anything in mootools for a lightbox, or am I missing it? $i = 0; while($i < count($validate)) { <div class="validate"> <div class="validate_image_<?php echo $validate[$i]['validate_type']; ?>"> <div class="validate_image" id="validate_image_wrapper_<?php echo $i; ?>"> <?php if ($validate[$i]['validate_image_filename'] != '') { if (file_exists(UPLOAD_DIR . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_medium.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']))) { echo '<img src="' . UPLOAD_URL . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_medium.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']) . '" alt="Listing Image" />'; } else { echo '<img src="' . UPLOAD_URL . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_large.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']) . '" alt="Listing image" />'; } } else { ?> <img src="/images/no_image_posted_validate.png" alt="no image posted" /> <?php } ?> </div> ... remainder of HTML display code function setupEnlargeImage() { window.myFx = new Fx({ duration: 200, transition: Fx.Transitions.Sine.easeOut }); $$('.validate_image').addEvent('click', function() { window.selectedImage = this.id; myFx.start(1,2.0); }); $$('.validate_image').addEvent('mouseout', function() { window.selectedImage = this.id; myFx.start(1.0,1); }); myFx.set = function(value) { var style = "scale(" + (value) + ")"; $(window.selectedImage).setStyles({ "-webkit-transform": style, "-moz-transform": style, "-o-transform": style, "-ms-transform": style, transform: style }); } }

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• using a connection string in web.config for crystal report

  - by zombiegx

  I`m having problems between two servers, wich use differente odbc dsn. My apps work great but crystal reports uses the original odbc connection, how can I fix this? I'm thinking of using the same connection string in the web.config, but I don't know how. found this but is too confusing for me this is an example of my code, its a aspx file that loads as a pdf protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { var par = Request.QueryString; int pidmun = 0; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Request["id"])) { pidmun = int.Parse(Request["id"]); } string pFechaIni = Request["fi"]; string pFechaFin = Request["ff"]; string pTipo = Request["t"]; string pNombreMunicipio = Request["nm"]; var pos = Request.Form; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaIni)) { pFechaIni = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaFin)) { pFechaFin = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pTipo)) { pTipo = "FOLIO"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pNombreMunicipio)) { pNombreMunicipio = "NombreMunicipio"; } ReporteIngresos report = new ReporteIngresos(); TextObject nom; TextObject periodo; nom = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtNombreMunicipio"]; periodo = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtPeriodo"]; nom.Text = "Ingresos Municipio de " + pNombreMunicipio; periodo.Text = "Periodo del " + pFechaIni + " al " + pFechaFin; report.SetParameterValue("pidMun", pidmun); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaIni", pFechaIni); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaFin", pFechaFin); report.SetParameterValue("pTipo", pTipo); MemoryStream oStream; oStream = (MemoryStream)report.ExportToStream(CrystalDecisions.Shared.ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat); Response.Clear(); Response.Buffer = true; Response.AddHeader("CustomHeader", "ReporteIngresos"); Response.CacheControl = "No-cache"; Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.BinaryWrite(oStream.ToArray()); Response.End(); } catch (Exception ex) { ExBi.log(ex); throw ex; } } thanks.

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• Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

  - by rhinds

  I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

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• sequence generators are getting ignored

  - by luvfort

  I'm getting the following error while saving a object. However similar configuration is working for other model objects in my projects. Any help would be greatly appreciated. @Entity @Table(name = "ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class EnrollmentGroupMembership implements Serializable, Comparable,Auditable { @javax.persistence.SequenceGenerator(name = "enrollmentGroupMemID", sequenceName = "S_ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "enrollmentGroupMemID") @Column(name = "ID") private Long id; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID", updatable = false, insertable = false) private TierWeight tierWeight; public EnrollmentGroupMembership() { } } Code: @Entity @Table(name = "TIER_WEIGHT", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class TierWeight implements Serializable, Auditable { @SequenceGenerator(name = "tierSequence",sequenceName = "S_TIER_WEIGHT") @Column(name = "OID") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "tierSequence") private Long id; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID") private Set<EnrollmentGroupMembership> memberships; public TierWeight() { } } The logic layer's code is @Override public void createTier(String tierName, float weight) { TierWeight tier = new TierWeight(); tier.setWeight(weight); tier.setTier(tierName); tierWeightDAO.create(tier); } Similar Many-one configuration is working through out the project. I don't know why this one instance is failing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The following is the error that I'm getting Caused by: org.hibernate.id.IdentifierGenerationException: ids for this class must be manually assigned before calling save(): edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight at org.hibernate.id.Assigned.generate(Assigned.java:3 3) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener. saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java :99) The log file is telling that the sequence generator tierSequence is not getting created. However other sequence generators are getting created. 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column DATE_CREATED unique false ....................................... ....................................... 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.CounselorAvailability.id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID While debugging, I see that the org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl is returning the "Assigned" identifierGenerator. This is horrible. I've specified the identifierGenerator as "Auto". Please see the above code. As a sidenote, I was trying to debug and seeing how the objects are getting retrieved from the database. Looks like the enrollmentgroupmembership records have the tierweight value populated. However if I look at the tierweight object, it doesn't have the enrollmentgroupmembership records. I'm puzzled. I think these two problems must be related. Maddy.

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• Using Kal calendar without doing the initialization (and so on) in the AppDelegate

  - by testing

  I'm using the Kal calendar. For the code shown below I'm referring to the Holiday example. In this example the allocation and initialization of Kal is done in the applicationDidFinishLaunching in the AppDelegate. The UITableViewDelegate protocol (e.g. didSelectRowAtIndexPath) is also positioned in the AppDelegate class. The AppDelegate: #import "HolidayAppDelegate.h" #import "HolidaySqliteDataSource.h" #import "HolidaysDetailViewController.h" ## Heading ###import "Kal.h" @implementation HolidayAppDelegate @synthesize window; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { kal = [[KalViewController alloc] init]; kal.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Today" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(showAndSelectToday)] autorelease]; kal.delegate = self; dataSource = [[HolidaySqliteDataSource alloc] init]; kal.dataSource = dataSource; // Setup the navigation stack and display it. navController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:kal]; [window addSubview:navController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } // Action handler for the navigation bar's right bar button item. - (void)showAndSelectToday { [kal showAndSelectDate:[NSDate date]]; } #pragma mark UITableViewDelegate protocol conformance // Display a details screen for the selected holiday/row. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Holiday *holiday = [dataSource holidayAtIndexPath:indexPath]; HolidaysDetailViewController *vc = [[[HolidaysDetailViewController alloc] initWithHoliday:holiday] autorelease]; [navController pushViewController:vc animated:YES]; } #pragma mark - - (void)dealloc { [kal release]; [dataSource release]; [window release]; [navController release]; [super dealloc]; } @end I don't want to put this into the AppDelegate, because there could be some overlapping code with other views. It should be a separate "component" which I can call and put on the stack. In my navigation based project I have a main view, the RootViewController. From there I want to push the Kal view on the stack. Currently I'm pushing an additional ViewController on the stack. In the viewWillAppear method from this ViewController I do the things shown in the code above. The following problems appear: Navigation back has to be done two times (one for the Kal calendar, one for my created view) Navigation to my main view is not possible anymore In the moment I don't know where to put this code. So the question is where to put the methods for allocation/initialization as well as the methods for the UITableViewDelegate protocol.

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• UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

  - by AlexR

  I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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• Javascript and VERY LONG string

  - by StealthRT

  Hey all, i am having problems with the below code: function showTableData() { var tableArray; var x = 0; var theHTML; for (i = 0; i < 7032; i++) { if (x = 0) { theHTML = '<tr>' + '<th scope="row" class="spec">' + partNum[i] + '</th>' + '<td>' + Msrp[i] + '</td>' + '<td>' + blah[i] + '</td>' + '<td>' + blahs[i] + '</td>' + '</tr>' + theHTML; x++; }else{ theHTML = '<tr>' + '<th scope="row" class="specalt">' + partNum[i] + '</th>' + '<td class="alt">' + Msrp[i] + '</td>' + '<td class="alt">' + blah[i] + '</td>' + '<td class="alt">' + blahs[i] + '</td>' + '</tr>' + theHTML; x--; } } theHTML = '<table id="mytable" cellspacing="0">' + '<tr>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Configurations" class="nobg">Part Number</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 1.8">Msrp Price</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 2">blahs Price</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 2.5">Low Price</th>' + '</tr>' + theHTML + '</table>'; $('#example').append(theHTML); } </script> <div id="example"> </div> The problem being that the $('#example').append(theHTML); never executes (or shows on the page). I think its because the string is soooooo long! It has over 7,000 items in the array so im not sure if thats the reason or if its something else? Any help would be great! Thanks! David

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• Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

  - by Scott Mitchell

  I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

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• ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

  - by Sam

  i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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• passing pipe to threads

  - by alaamh

  I see it's easy to open pipe between two process using fork, but how we can passing open pipe to threads. Assume we need to pass out of PROGRAM A to PROGRAM B "may by more than one thread", PROGRAM B send his output to PROGRAM C #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> struct targ_s { int fd_reader; }; void *thread1(void *arg) { struct targ_s *targ = (struct targ_s*) arg; int status, fd[2]; pid_t pid; pipe(fd); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { dup2(STDIN_FILENO, targ->fd_reader); close(fd[0]); dup2(fd[1], STDOUT_FILENO); close(fd[1]); execvp ("PROGRAM B", NULL); exit(1); } else { close(fd[1]); dup2(fd[0], STDIN_FILENO); close(fd[0]); execl("PROGRAM C", NULL); wait(&status); return NULL; } } int main(void) { FILE *fpipe; char *command = "PROGRAM A"; char buffer[1024]; if (!(fpipe = (FILE*) popen(command, "r"))) { perror("Problems with pipe"); exit(1); } char* outfile = "out.dat"; FILE* f = fopen (outfile, "wb"); int fd = fileno( f ); struct targ_s targ; targ.fd_reader = fd; pthread_t thid; if (pthread_create(&thid, NULL, thread1, &targ) != 0) { perror("pthread_create() error"); exit(1); } int len; while (read(fpipe, buffer, sizeof (buffer)) != 0) { len = strlen(buffer); write(fd, buffer, len); } pclose(fpipe); return (0); }

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• Implementing a scalable and high-performing web app

  - by Christopher McCann

  I have asked a few questions on here before about various things relating to this but this is more of a consolidation question as I would like to check I have got the gist of everything. I am in the middle of developing a social media web app and although I have a lot of experience coding in Java and in PHP I am trying things a bit different this time. I have modularised each component of the application. So for example one component of the application allows users to private message each other and I have split this off into its own private messaging service. I have also created a user data service the purpose of which is to return data about the user for example their name, address, age etc etc from the database. Their is also another service, the friends service, which will work off the neo4j database to create a social graph. My reason for doing all this is to allow me up to update seperate modules when I need to - so while they mostly all run off MySQL right now I could move one to Cassandra later if I thought it approriate. The actual code of the web app is really just used for the final construction. The modules behind it dont really follow any strict REST or SOAP protocol. Basically each method on our API is turned into a PHP procedural script. This then may make calls to other back-end code which tends to be OO. The web app makes CURL requests to these pages and POSTs data to them or GETs data from them. These pages then return JSON where data is required. I'm still a little mixed up about how I actually identify which user is logged in at that moment. Do I just use sessions for that? Like if we called the get-messages.php script which equates to the getMessages() method for that user - returning all the private messages for that user - how would the back-end code know which user it is as posting the users ID to the script would not be secure. Anyone could do that and get all the messages. So I thought I would use sessions for it. Am I correct on this? Can anyone spot any other problems with what I am doing here? Thanks

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• Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

  - by Corey O.

  I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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• Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

  - by Naif

  I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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• Google Code + SVN or GitHub + Git

  - by Nazgulled

  Let me start by telling you that I never used anything besides SVN and I'm also a Windows user. I have a couple of simple projects that are open-source, others are on there way when I'm happy enough to release their source code but either way, I was thinking of using Google Code and SVN to share the source code of my projects instead of providing a link to the source on my website. This as always been a pain cause I had to update the binaries and the code every time I released a new version. This would also help me out to have a backup of my code some where instead of just my local machine (I used to have a local Subversion server running). What I want from a service like this is very simple... I just want a place to store my source code that people can download if they want, allows me to control revisions and provide a simple and easy issue system so people can submit bugs and stuff like that. I guess both of them have this. But I don't want to host any binaries in their websites, I want this to be hosted on my website so I can control download statistics with my own scripts, I also don't have the need for wiki pages as I prefer to have all the documentation in my own website. Does anyone of this services provide a way to "disable" features like wiki and downloads and don't show them at all for my project(s)? Now, I'm sure there are lots of pros and cons about using Google Code with SVN and GitHub with Git (of course) but here's what it's important for me on each one and why I like them: Google Code: As with any Google page, the complexity is almost non-existent Everyone (or almost) as a Google account and this is nice if people want to report problems using the issues system GitHub: May (or may not) be a little more complex (not a problem for me though) than Google's pages but... ...has a much prettier interface than Google's service It needs people to be registered on GitHub to post about issues I like the fact that with Git, you have your own revisions locally (can I use TortoiseGit for this or?) Basically that's it, not much I know... What other, most common, pros and cons can you tell me about each site/software? Keep in mind that my projects are simple, I'm probably the only one who will ever develop these projects on these repositories (or maybe not, for now I will)

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• Running out of memory.. How?

  - by maxdj

  I'm attempting to write a solver for a particular puzzle. It tries to find a solution by trying every possible move one at a time until it finds a solution. The first version tried to solve it depth-first by continually trying moves until it failed, then backtracking, but this turned out to be too slow. I have rewritten it to be breadth-first using a queue structure, but I'm having problems with memory management. Here are the relevant parts: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ... int solved = 0; do { solved = solver(queue); } while (!solved && !pblListIsEmpty(queue)); ... } int solver(PblList *queue) { state_t *state = (state_t *) pblListPoll(queue); if (is_solution(state->pucks)) { print_solution(state); return 1; } state_t *state_cp; puck new_location; for (int p = 0; p < puck_count; p++) { for (dir i = NORTH; i <= WEST; i++) { if (!rules(state->pucks, p, i)) continue; new_location = in_dir(state->pucks, p, i); if (new_location.x != -1) { state_cp = (state_t *) malloc(sizeof(state_t)); state_cp->move.from = state->pucks[p]; state_cp->move.direction = i; state_cp->prev = state; state_cp->pucks = (puck *) malloc (puck_count * sizeof(puck)); memcpy(state_cp->pucks, state->pucks, puck_count * sizeof(puck)); /*CRASH*/ state_cp->pucks[p] = new_location; pblListPush(queue, state_cp); } } } return 0; } When I run it I get the error: ice(90175) malloc: *** mmap(size=2097152) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Bus error The error happens around iteration 93,000. From what I can tell, the error message is from malloc failing, and the bus error is from the memcpy after it. I have a hard time believing that I'm running out of memory, since each game state is only ~400 bytes. Yet that does seem to be what's happening, seeing as the activity monitor reports that it is using 3.99GB before it crashes. I'm using http://www.mission-base.com/peter/source/ for the queue structure (it's a linked list). Clearly I'm doing something dumb. Any suggestions?

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• Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

  - by Muffinbubble

  Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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• java web application best practices

  - by Bruce

  Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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• How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

  - by Stuart Lange

  Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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• Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

  - by MikeH

  I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

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• How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

  - by Larry

  I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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• Postgresql count+sort performance

  - by invictus

  I have built a small inventory system using postgresql and psycopg2. Everything works great, except, when I want to create aggregated summaries/reports of the content, I get really bad performance due to count()'ing and sorting. The DB schema is as follows: CREATE TABLE hosts ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255) ); CREATE TABLE items ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, description TEXT ); CREATE TABLE host_item ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, host INTEGER REFERENCES hosts(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, item INTEGER REFERENCES items(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ); There are some other fields as well, but those are not relevant. I want to extract 2 different reports: - List of all hosts with the number of items per, ordered from highest to lowest count - List of all items with the number of hosts per, ordered from highest to lowest count I have used 2 queries for the purpose: Items with host count: SELECT i.id, i.description, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM items AS i LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (i.id=hi.item) GROUP BY i.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Hosts with item count: SELECT h.id, h.name, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM hosts AS h LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (h.id=hi.host) GROUP BY h.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Problem is: the queries runs for 5-6 seconds before returning any data. As this is a web based application, 6 seconds are just not acceptable. The database is heavily populated with approximately 50k hosts, 1000 items and 400 000 host/items relations, and will likely increase significantly when (or perhaps if) the application will be used. After playing around, I found that by removing the "ORDER BY count DESC" part, both queries would execute instantly without any delay whatsoever (less than 20ms to finish the queries). Is there any way I can optimize these queries so that I can get the result sorted without the delay? I was trying different indexes, but seeing as the count is computed it is possible to utilize an index for this. I have read that count()'ing in postgresql is slow, but its the sorting that are causing me problems... My current workaround is to run the queries above as an hourly job, putting the result into a new table with an index on the count column for quick lookup. I use Postgresql 9.2.

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• Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

  - by irkenInvader

  I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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