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  • Lightcore IoC is returning the same instance when it should give a new one

    - by Anthony
    I have the following code using the lightcore IoC container. But it fails with "NUnit.Framework.AssertionException: Contained objects are equal" which indicates that the objects that should be transient, are not. Is this a bug in lightcore, or am I doing it wrong? [Test] public void JellybeanDispenserHasNewInstanceEachTimeWithDefault() { var builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.Register<IJellybeanDispenser, VanillaJellybeanDispenser>(); builder.Register<SweetVendingMachine>().ControlledBy<TransientLifecycle>(); builder.Register<SweetShop>(); builder.DefaultControlledBy<TransientLifecycle>(); IContainer container = builder.Build(); SweetShop sweetShop = container.Resolve<SweetShop>(); SweetShop sweetShop2 = container.Resolve<SweetShop>(); Assert.IsFalse(ReferenceEquals(sweetShop, sweetShop2), "Root objects are equal"); Assert.IsFalse(ReferenceEquals(sweetShop.SweetVendingMachine, sweetShop2.SweetVendingMachine), "Contained objects are equal"); Assert.IsFalse(ReferenceEquals(sweetShop.SweetVendingMachine.JellybeanDispenser, sweetShop2.SweetVendingMachine.JellybeanDispenser), "services are equal"); } PS: I would tag this question with "lightcore", but suddenly my reputation isn't good enough to make a new tag. Huh.

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  • XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NRE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm.... UPDATE 2: This does cause an NRE: protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.End(); // boned here //screenManager.Draw(gameTime); base.Draw(gameTime); }

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  • NSTask Launch causing crash

    - by tripskeet
    Hi, I have an application that can import an XML file through this terminal command : open /path/to/main\ app.app --args myXML.xml This works great with no issues. And i have used Applescript to launch this command through shell and it works just as well. Yet when try using Cocoa's NSTask Launcher using this code : NSTask *task = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [task setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/open"]; [task setCurrentDirectoryPath:@"/Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/"]; [task setArguments:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[(NSURL *)foundApplicationURL path], @"--args", @"ImportP.xml", nil]]; [task launch]; the applications will start up to the initial screen and then crash when either the next button is clicked or when trying to close the window. Ive tried using NSAppleScript with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"Terminal\" do script \"open /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/Main\\\\ App.app\" end tell"]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; This will launch the program and it will crash as well and i get this error in my Xcode debug window : 12011-01-04 17:41:28.296 LaunchAppFile[4453:a0f] Error loading /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: dlopen(/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types, 262): no suitable image found. Did find: /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: no matching architecture in universal wrapper LaunchAppFile: OpenScripting.framework - scripting addition "/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax" declares no loadable handlers. So with research i came up with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"do shell script \"arch -i386 osascript /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/test.scpt\""]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; But this causes the same results as the last command. Any ideas on what causes this crash?

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Ruby on Rails controller and architecture with cells

    - by dt
    I decided to try to use the cells plugin from rails: http://cells.rubyforge.org/community.html given that I'm new to Ruby and very used to thinking in terms of components. Since I'm developing the app piecemeal and then putting it together piece by piece, it makes sense to think in terms of components. So, I've been able to get cells working properly inside a single view, which calls a partial. Now, what I would like to be able to do (however, maybe my instincts need to be redirected to be more "Rails-y"), is call a single cell controller and use the parameters to render one output vs. another. Basically, if there were a controller like: def index params[:responsetype] end def processListResponse end def processSearchResponse end And I have two different controller methods that I want to respond to based on the params response type, where I have a single template on the front end and want the inner "component" to render differently depending on what type of request is made. That allows me to reuse the same front-end code. I suppose I could do this with an ajax call instead and just have it rerender the component on the front end, but it would be nice to have the option to do it either way and to understand how to architect Rails a bit better in the process. It seems like there should be a "render" option from within the cells framework to render to a certain controller or view, but it's not working like I expect and I don't know if I'm even in the ballpark. Thanks!

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  • Obfuscator for .NET assembly (Maybe just a C++ obfuscator?)

    - by Pirate for Profit
    The software company I work for is using a ton of open source LGPL/BSD/MIT C++ code that we have written wrappers around to port "helper classes" into a .NET assembly, via C++/CLI. These libraries have wrapped old cryptic APIs into easy-to-use ones based on common sense, and will be very helpful for a lot of different tasks will be included in many future client's applications, and we might even license it to other software companies in the same field. So naturally we are tasked with looking into solutions for securing the code from prying eyes. What we're trying to do is stop the casual observer from seeing what's going on. Now I have hacked some crazy shit in EverQuest and other video games in my day so I know with enough tireless effort anything can be done. But we don't want to make it easy for whomever. To the point, besides the Visual Studio compiler's optimizations, is there's a C++ obfuscator or .NET assembly obfuscator (after it's been built o.O) or something that would scramble everything up, re-arrange data structures, string constants, etc. idk? And if such a thing exists, we'd be curious to know how that would impact performance, as some sections of code are time critical (funny saying that using a managed M$ framework).

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  • C# XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NRE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm.... UPDATE 2: This does cause an NRE: protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.End(); // boned here //screenManager.Draw(gameTime); base.Draw(gameTime); }

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  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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  • How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

    - by Shreerang
    I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

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  • could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

    - by user1144695
    i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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  • How can I take advantage of IObservable/IObserver to get rid of my "god object"?

    - by Will
    In a system I'm currently working on, I have many components which are defined as interfaces and base classes. Each part of the system has some specific points where they interact with other parts of the system. For example, the data readying component readies some data which eventually needs to go to the data processing portion, the communications component needs to query different components for their status for relaying to the outside, etc. Currently, I glue these parts of the system together using a "god object", or an object with intimate knowledge of different parts of the system. It registers with events over here and shuttles the results to methods over there, creates a callback method here and returns the result of that method over there, and passes many requests through a multi-threaded queue for processing because it "knows" certain actions have to run on STA threads, etc. While its convenient, it concerns me that this one type knows so much about how everybody else in the system is designed. I'd much prefer a more generic hub that can be given instances which can expose events or methods or callbacks or that can consume these. I've been seeing more about the IObservable/IObserver features of the reactive framework and that are being rolled into .NET 4.0 (I believe). Can I leverage this pattern to help replace my "god object"? How should I go about doing this? Are there any resources for using this pattern for this specific purpose?

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  • What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

    - by MainMa
    Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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  • How to "wrap" implementation in C#

    - by igor
    Hello, I have these classes in C# (.NET Framework 3.5) described below: public class Base { public int State {get; set;} public virtual int Method1(){} public virtual string Method2(){} ... public virtual void Method10(){} } public class B: Base { // some implementation } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; public class Proxy(B b) { _b = b; } public override int Method1() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method1(); else return base.Method1(); } public override string Method2() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method2(); else return base.Method2(); } public override void Method10() { if (State == Running) _b.Method10(); else base.Method10(); } } I want to get something this: public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) // may be some other rule return _b; else return base; // compile error } and my Proxy's implementation will be: public class Proxy: Base { ... public override int Method1() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method1(); } public override string Method2() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method2(); } ... } Of course, I can do this (aggregation of base implementation): public RepeaterOfBase: Base // no any overrides, just inheritance { } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; private RepeaterOfBase _Base; public class Proxy(B b, RepeaterOfBase aBase) { _b = b; _base = aBase; } } ... public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) return _b; else return _Base; } ... But instance of Base class is very huge and I have to avoid to have other additional copy in memory. So I have to simplify my code have to "wrap" implementation have to avoid a code duplication have to avoid aggregation of any additional instance of Base class (duplication) Is it possible to reach these goals?

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  • MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

    - by lcf
    Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

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  • jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

    - by Wipqozn
    I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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  • TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

    - by CFP
    Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

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  • How do I structure my tests with Python unittest module?

    - by persepolis
    I'm trying to build a test framework for automated webtesting in selenium and unittest, and I want to structure my tests into distinct scripts. So I've organised it as following: base.py - This will contain, for now, the base selenium test case class for setting up a session. import unittest from selenium import webdriver # Base Selenium Test class from which all test cases inherit. class BaseSeleniumTest(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.browser = webdriver.Firefox() def tearDown(self): self.browser.close() main.py - I want this to be the overall test suite from which all the individual tests are run. import unittest import test_example if __name__ == "__main__": SeTestSuite = test_example.TitleSpelling() unittest.TextTestRunner(verbosity=2).run(SeTestSuite) test_example.py - An example test case, it might be nice to make these run on their own too. from base import BaseSeleniumTest # Test the spelling of the title class TitleSpelling(BaseSeleniumTest): def test_a(self): self.assertTrue(False) def test_b(self): self.assertTrue(True) The problem is that when I run main.py I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "H:\Python\testframework\main.py", line 5, in <module> SeTestSuite = test_example.TitleSpelling() File "C:\Python27\lib\unittest\case.py", line 191, in __init__ (self.__class__, methodName)) ValueError: no such test method in <class 'test_example.TitleSpelling'>: runTest I suspect this is due to the very special way in which unittest runs and I must have missed a trick on how the docs expect me to structure my tests. Any pointers?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How do I fix a "Request format is unrecognized for URL..." error in a web service running in IIS?

    - by Hary
    I am get the following error while running web service in IIS: Server Error in '/Inbox Sevice' Application. Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'.] System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory.CoreGetHandler(Type type, HttpContext context, HttpRequest request, HttpResponse response) +490982 System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory.GetHandler(HttpContext context, String verb, String url, String filePath) +104 System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory.GetHandler(HttpContext context, String requestType, String url, String pathTranslated) +127 System.Web.HttpApplication.MapHttpHandler(HttpContext context, String requestType, VirtualPath path, String pathTranslated, Boolean useAppConfig) +175 System.Web.MapHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +120 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.42; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.42 Does anyone know why I am seeing this error and if there is any way to fix it?

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  • Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

    - by Zachary G. Schroeder
    I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

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  • StreamReader returning another char

    - by Fernando
    I'm trying to read the content of a file with a StreamReader, that receives a FileStream. The file has some spaces inside (char 32) and the StreamReader is reading them as 0 (char 48). The screenshot shows the FileStream buffer and the StreamReader buffer. Both have the value 32, but when I call Read(), it returns 48. Am I missing something here? By the way, the code is running under .NET Compact Framework. The code that reads the data: public void Read() { using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(InputStream, Encoding.ASCII)) { foreach (var property in DataObject.EnumerateProperties()) { OffsetInfo offset = property.GetTextOffset(); reader.BaseStream.Position = offset.Start - 1; StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(offset.Size); int count = 0; while (reader.Peek() >= 0 && count < offset.Size) { char c = (char)reader.Read(); if ((int)c != 32 && c != '\r' && c != '\n') { builder.Append(c); count++; } else { reader.BaseStream.Position++; } } property.SetValue(DataObject, Convert.ChangeType(builder.ToString(), property.PropertyType, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), null ); } } }

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  • Playframework sends 2 queries for fetched query

    - by MRu
    I currently have problems with the JPA at the play framework 1.2.4. I need to have a UserOptions model in a separate database and want to join it lazyly cause its only needed in one query. In this query I want to load the options eagerly and by searching I found out that can only be done by using a join query. If I use eager instead oder lazy, everything would be fine by using User.findById() and the options and the user is found in one query. But play sends two queries when I use a 'left join fetch' query. So heres the query: User.find(" SELECT user FROM User user LEFT JOIN FETCH user.options options WHERE user.id = ? ", Long.parseLong(id)).first(); And here the models: @Entity public class User extends Model { @OneToOne(mappedBy = "user", fetch = FetchType.LAZY) public UserOptions options; // ... } @Entity public class UserOptions extends Model { @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) public User user; } The question is why play sends two query for the fetch query? Thanks in advance

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  • How to efficiently implement a strategy pattern with spring ?

    - by Anth0
    I have a web application developped in J2EE 1.5 with Spring framework. Application contains "dashboards" which are simple pages where a bunch of information are regrouped and where user can modify some status. Managers want me to add a logging system in database for three of theses dashboards. Each dashboard has different information but the log should be traced by date and user's login. What I'd like to do is to implement the Strategy pattern kind of like this : interface DashboardLog { void createLog(String login, Date now); } // Implementation for one dashboard class PrintDashboardLog implements DashboardLog { Integer docId; String status; void createLog(String login, Date now){ // Some code } } class DashboardsManager { DashboardLog logger; String login; Date now; void createLog(){ logger.log(login,now); } } class UpdateDocAction{ DashboardsManager dbManager; void updateSomeField(){ // Some action // Now it's time to log dbManagers.setLogger = new PrintDashboardLog(docId, status); dbManagers.createLog(); } } Is it "correct" (good practice, performance, ...) to do it this way ? Is there a better way ? Note :I did not write basic stuff like constructors and getter/setter.

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  • Execute a block of database querys

    - by Nightmare
    I have the following task to complete: In my program a have a block of database querys or questions. I want to execute these questions and wait for the result of all questions or catch an error if one question fails! My Question object looks like this (simplified): public class DbQuestion(String sql) { [...] } [...] //The answer is just a holder for custom data... public void SetAnswer(DbAnswer answer) { //Store the answer in the question and fire a event to the listeners this.OnAnswered(EventArgs.Empty); } [...] public void SetError() { //Signal an Error in this query! this.OnError(EventArgs.Empty); } So every question fired to the database has a listener that waits for the parsed result. Now I want to fire some questions asynchronous to the database (max. 5 or so) and fire an event with the data from all questions or an error if only one question throws one! Which is the best or a good way to accomplish this task? Can I really execute more then one question parallel and stop all my work when one question throws an error? I think I need some inspiration on this... Just a note: I´m working with .NET framework 2.0

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  • What wrapper class in C++ should I use for automated resource management?

    - by Vilx-
    I'm a C++ amateur. I'm writing some Win32 API code and there are handles and weirdly compositely allocated objects aplenty. So I was wondering - is there some wrapper class that would make resource management easier? For example, when I want to load some data I open a file with CreateFile() and get a HANDLE. When I'm done with it, I should call CloseHandle() on it. But for any reasonably complex loading function there will be dozens of possible exit points, not to mention exceptions. So it would be great if I could wrap the handle in some kind of wrapper class which would automatically call CloseHandle() once execution left the scope. Even better - it could do some reference counting so I can pass it around in and out of other functions, and it would release the resource only when the last reference left scope. The concept is simple - but is there something like that in the standard library? I'm using Visual Studio 2008, by the way, and I don't want to attach a 3rd party framework like Boost or something.

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