Search Results

Search found 17734 results on 710 pages for 'values'.

Page 594/710 | < Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >

  • CUDA - multiple kernels to compute a single value

    - by Roger
    Hey, I'm trying to write a kernel to essentially do the following in C float sum = 0.0; for(int i = 0; i < N; i++){ sum += valueArray[i]*valueArray[i]; } sum += sum / N; At the moment I have this inside my kernel, but it is not giving correct values. int i0 = blockIdx.x * blockDim.x + threadIdx.x; for(int i=i0; i<N; i += blockDim.x*gridDim.x){ *d_sum += d_valueArray[i]*d_valueArray[i]; } *d_sum= __fdividef(*d_sum, N); The code used to call the kernel is kernelName<<<64,128>>>(N, d_valueArray, d_sum); cudaMemcpy(&sum, d_sum, sizeof(float) , cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); I think that each kernel is calculating a partial sum, but the final divide statement is not taking into account the accumulated value from each of the threads. Every kernel is producing it's own final value for d_sum? Does anyone know how could I go about doing this in an efficient way? Maybe using shared memory between threads? I'm very new to GPU programming. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

    Read the article

  • problem with joomla, php and json

    - by sebastian
    hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

    Read the article

  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

    Read the article

  • As3 printing problem, blanks swf after print or cancel

    - by Carlos Barbosa
    Hey all! ok back at another issues in as3 printing Code: //Function to print entire screen function printFunction(event:MouseEvent):void { var myPrintJob:PrintJob = new PrintJob(); var oldScaleX:Number = root.scaleX; var oldScaleY:Number = root.scaleY; //Start the print job myPrintJob.start(); //Figure out the new scale var newScaleX:Number = myPrintJob.paperWidth/root.width; var newScaleY:Number = myPrintJob.paperHeight/root.height; //Shrink in both the X and Y directions by the same amount (keep the same ratio) if(newScaleX < newScaleY) newScaleY = newScaleX; else newScaleX = newScaleY; root.scaleX = newScaleX; root.scaleY = newScaleY; //Print the page myPrintJob.addPage(Sprite(root)); myPrintJob.send(); //Reset the scale to the old values root.scaleX = oldScaleX; root.scaleY = oldScaleY; } I cant seem to find anything thats really helpful with this. When i click cancel on the print dialog box, i get error below and it blanks out my swf.

    Read the article

  • Why adding custom objects to List<T> in ApplicationSettingsBase via constructor doesn't work?

    - by BadNinja
    This is pretty closely related to another SO question. Using the example below, could someone explain to me why adding a new List<Foo> where each of Foo's properties are explicitly set causes the ApplicationSettingsBase.Save() method to correctly store the data, whereas adding a new Foo to the list via a constructor (where the constructor sets the property values) does not work? Thanks! public class Foo { public Foo(string blah, string doh) { this.Blah = blah; this.Doh = doh; } public Foo() { } public string Blah { get; set; } public string Doh { get; set; } } public sealed class MySettings : ApplicationSettingsBase { [UserScopedSetting] public List<Foo> MyFoos { get { return (List<Foo>)this["MyFoos"]; } set { this["MyFoos"] = value; } } } // Here's the question... private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MySettings mySettings = new MySettings(); // Adding new Foo's to the list like this doesn't work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo("doesn't","work") }; // But doing it like this DOES work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo() {Blah = "DOES", Doh = "work"} }; mySettings.MyFoos = theList; mySettings.Save(); }

    Read the article

  • Python for statement giving an Invalid Syntax error with list

    - by Cold Diamondz
    I have some code in which is throwing an error (I'm using repl.it) import random students = ['s1:0','s2:0','s3:0'] while True: print'\n'*50 print'Ticket Machine'.center(80) print'-'*80 print'1. Clear Student Ticket Values'.center(80) print'2. Draw Tickets'.center(80) menu = raw_input('-'*80+'\nChoose an Option: ') if menu == '1': print'\n'*50 print'CLEARED!' students = ['s1:0','s2:0','s3:0'] raw_input('Press enter to return to the main menu!') elif menu == '2': tickets = [] print'\n'*50 times = int(raw_input('How many tickets to draw? ') for a in students: for i in range(a.split(':')[1]): tickets.append(a.split(':')[0]) for b in range(1,times+1): print str(b) + '. ' + random.choice(tickets) else: print'\n'*50 print'That was not an option!' raw_input('Press enter to return to the main menu!') But it is throwing this error: File "<stdin>", line 19 for a in students: ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax I am planning on using this in a class, but I can't use it until the bug is fixed, also, student names have been removed for privacy reasons.

    Read the article

  • Query String to Object with strongly typed properties

    - by Kamar
    Let’s say we track 20 query string parameters in our site. Each request which comes will have only a subset of those 20 parameters. But we definitely look for all/most of the parameters which comes in each request. We do not want to loop through the collection each time we are looking for a particular parameter initially or somewhere down the pipeline in the code. So we loop once through the query string collection, convert string values to their respective types (enums, int, string etc.), populate to QueryString object which is added to the context. After that wherever its needed we will have a strongly typed properties in the QueryString object which is easy to use and we maintain a standard. public class QueryString { public int Key1{ get; private set; } public SomeType Key2{ get; private set; } private QueryString() { } public static QueryString GetQueryString() { QueryString l_QS = new QueryString(); foreach (string l_Key in HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString.AllKeys) { switch (l_Key) { case "key1": l_QS.Key1= DoSomething(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; case "key2": l_QS.Key2 = DoAnotherThing(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; } } return l_QS; } } Any other solution to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Would making plain int 64-bit break a lot of reasonable code?

    - by R..
    Until recently, I'd considered the decision by most systems implementors/vendors to keep plain int 32-bit even on 64-bit machines a sort of expedient wart. With modern C99 fixed-size types (int32_t and uint32_t, etc.) the need for there to be a standard integer type of each size 8, 16, 32, and 64 mostly disappears, and it seems like int could just as well be made 64-bit. However, the biggest real consequence of the size of plain int in C comes from the fact that C essentially does not have arithmetic on smaller-than-int types. In particular, if int is larger than 32-bit, the result of any arithmetic on uint32_t values has type signed int, which is rather unsettling. Is this a good reason to keep int permanently fixed at 32-bit on real-world implementations? I'm leaning towards saying yes. It seems to me like there could be a huge class of uses of uint32_t which break when int is larger than 32 bits. Even applying the unary minus or bitwise complement operator becomes dangerous unless you cast back to uint32_t. Of course the same issues apply to uint16_t and uint8_t on current implementations, but everyone seems to be aware of and used to treating them as "smaller-than-int" types.

    Read the article

  • How to speed-up python nested loop?

    - by erich
    I'm performing a nested loop in python that is included below. This serves as a basic way of searching through existing financial time series and looking for periods in the time series that match certain characteristics. In this case there are two separate, equally sized, arrays representing the 'close' (i.e. the price of an asset) and the 'volume' (i.e. the amount of the asset that was exchanged over the period). For each period in time I would like to look forward at all future intervals with lengths between 1 and INTERVAL_LENGTH and see if any of those intervals have characteristics that match my search (in this case the ratio of the close values is greater than 1.0001 and less than 1.5 and the summed volume is greater than 100). My understanding is that one of the major reasons for the speedup when using NumPy is that the interpreter doesn't need to type-check the operands each time it evaluates something so long as you're operating on the array as a whole (e.g. numpy_array * 2), but obviously the code below is not taking advantage of that. Is there a way to replace the internal loop with some kind of window function which could result in a speedup, or any other way using numpy/scipy to speed this up substantially in native python? Alternatively, is there a better way to do this in general (e.g. will it be much faster to write this loop in C++ and use weave)? ARRAY_LENGTH = 500000 INTERVAL_LENGTH = 15 close = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) volume = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) close, volume = close.astype('float64'), volume.astype('float64') results = [] for i in xrange(len(close) - INTERVAL_LENGTH): for j in xrange(i+1, i+INTERVAL_LENGTH): ret = close[j] / close[i] vol = sum( volume[i+1:j+1] ) if ret > 1.0001 and ret < 1.5 and vol > 100: results.append( [i, j, ret, vol] ) print results

    Read the article

  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

    - by Andrew Heath
    One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

    Read the article

  • AddEvenLister fires off immediately after being attached

    - by Diego
    I want to know how to correctly add an Event Listener like onClick to a dynamic div. Here’s my snippet: var $menu = new Array(2); createDiv('yes'); function createDiv(title) { var $class = 'menuLink'; var $title = 'title'; for(var i=0; i<$menu.length;i++) { $title = 'title'; var newdiv = document.createElement('div'); newdiv.setAttribute('class', $class); newdiv.setAttribute('id', 'item'+i); newdiv.addEventListener('onclick', clickHandle(newdiv.id),false); if (title) { newdiv.innerHTML = $title; } else { newdiv.innerHTML = "No Title"; } document.getElementById('menu').appendChild(newdiv); showMenu(); } } function clickHandle(e) { if(e == 'item0') { alert('Link is' + ' ' + e); }else{ alert('Another Link'); } } Here's my problem, the snippet works fine, It creates my divs, adds id's values and all, but the event fires off as soon as the event is attached, so while the for loop is creating the divs the alert window says: Link is item0, and immediately after this it says: Another Link. Am I misunderstanding this? (I used this method zillions of times in AS3 with the expected result, just attached a function waiting for a click). What I want is that my Divs wait for the user to click on them, not to fire off immediately after of being attached. Thanks for any hint on this one. Greetings. Ps. IE doesn't support addEventListener, but I want to resolve this before cross to the IE sea of madness, but I will appreciate the IE approach as well. - I tried "onclick" and just 'click' into the addEventListener line, both with the same result described above.

    Read the article

  • How do i select all text nodes using XSL?

    - by user323719
    I want to get the generate-id(.) of all the text nodes after node and before node . I am looking for some generic XSL and not tightly coupled to the sample input pattern mentioned below. For any input pattern i want to get the ids of all the text nodes between node and . Sample input for better understanding: <a> <b> <c> This is first text node </c> </b> <d> <e> This is my second text node </e> <f> This is my <m/>third text node </f> <g> One more text node </g> <h> <i> This is my fourth text node </i> </h> <j> This is my fifth <n/>text node </j> <k> <l> This is my sixth text node </l> </k> </d> </a> Expected output: Generate id of the text nodes with values "third text node ", "One more text node", "This is my fourth text node", "This is my fifth" which lie inbetween nodes <m/> and <n/> Please give your ideas.

    Read the article

  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

    - by ILya
    Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

    Read the article

  • Get ViewData IList back on postback in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Thomas
    I have the following in my view: <%using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <% foreach (var item in Model.Cart) { %> <div> <%= Html.TextBox("Cart.Quantity", item.Quantity, new { maxlength = "2" })%> <%= Html.Hidden("Cart.ItemID", item.ItemID)%> </div> <% } %> <input name="update" type="image" src="image.gif" /> <% } % I then have this code in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { CartViewData cartViewData = new CartViewData(); IList<Item> items = ItemManager.GetItems(); cartViewData.Cart = items; return View("Index", cartViewData); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(CartViewData cartViewData) { // cartviewData is null } Is there a way to grab the List on the postback to see if the values in the textboxes have changed? Thanks Below is a simplified example since it was requested: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="removeItem(<%= Model.Cart[i].ShoppingCartItemID %>);">Remove</a> <% } %> Hope this helps.

    Read the article

  • Sqlite iPhone data insertion problem

    - by Asad Khan
    Hi I have a function which basically tries to insert some data returned from a REST call. - (void)syncLocalDatabase{ NSString *file = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"pickuplines" ofType:@"db"]; NSMutableString *query = [[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""]; sqlite3 *database = NULL; char *errorMsg = NULL; if (sqlite3_open([file UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { for(PickUpLine *pickupline in pickUpLines){ [query appendFormat:@"INSERT INTO pickuplines VALUES(%d,%d,%d,'%@','YES')", pickupline.line_id, pickupline.thumbsUps, pickupline.thumbsDowns, [pickupline.line stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@"`"]]; NSLog(query); int result = sqlite3_exec(database, [query UTF8String], NULL, NULL, &errorMsg); if (result!=SQLITE_OK) { printf("\n%s",errorMsg); sqlite3_free(errorMsg); } //sqlite3_step([query UTF8String]); [query setString:@""]; }//end for }//end if [query release]; sqlite3_close(database); } everything seems fine query string in log statement is also fine but the data does not gets inserted. Where as a counterpart of this function for select statement works well. Here is the counter part - (void)loadLinesFromDatabase{ NSString *file = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"pickuplines" ofType:@"db"]; sqlite3 *database = NULL; if (sqlite3_open([file UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_exec(database, "SELECT * FROM pickuplines", MyCallback, linesFromDatabase, NULL); } sqlite3_close(database); } I have implemented callback & it works fine. I am a little new to Sqlite can someone please point out what am I doing wrong. Thanx

    Read the article

  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

    Read the article

  • How can I generate an "unlimited" world?

    - by snowlord
    I would like to create a game with an endless (in reality an extremely large) world in which the player can move about. Whether or not I will ever get around to implement the game is one matter, but I find the idea interesting and would like some input on how to do it. The point is to have a world where all data is generated randomly on-demand, but in a deterministic way. Currently I focus on a large 2D map from which it should be possible to display any part without knowledge about the surrounding parts. I have implemented a prototype by writing a function that gives a random-looking, but deterministic, integer given the x and y of a pixel on the map (see my recent question about this function). Using this function I populate the map with "random" values, and then I smooth the map using a simple filter based on the surrounding pixels. This makes the map dependent on a few pixels outside its edge, but that's not a big problem. The final result is something that at least looks like a map (especially with a good altitude color map). Given this, one could maybe first generate a coarser map which is used to generate bigger differences in altitude to create mountain ranges and seas. Anyway, that was my idea, but I am sure that there exist ways to do this already and I also believe that given the specification, many of you can come up with better ideas. EDIT: Forgot the link to my question.

    Read the article

  • Insert Stored Procedure does not Create Database Record

    - by SidC
    Hello All, I have the following stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE Pro_members_Insert @id int outPut, @LoginName nvarchar(50), @Password nvarchar(15), @FirstName nvarchar(100), @LastName nvarchar(100), @signupDate smalldatetime, @Company nvarchar(100), @Phone nvarchar(50), @Email nvarchar(150), @Address nvarchar(255), @PostalCode nvarchar(10), @State_Province nvarchar(100), @City nvarchar(50), @countryCode nvarchar(4), @active bit, @activationCode nvarchar(50) AS declare @usName as varchar(50) set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(LoginName,'') from members where LoginName=@LoginName if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-3 RAISERROR('User Already exist.', 16, 1) return end set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(email,'') from members where Email=@Email if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-4 RAISERROR('Email Already exist.', 16, 1) return end declare @MemID as int select @memID=isnull(max(ID),0)+1 from members INSERT INTO members ( id, LoginName, Password, FirstName, LastName, signupDate, Company, Phone, Email, Address, PostalCode, State_Province, City, countryCode, active,activationCode) VALUES ( @Memid, @LoginName, @Password, @FirstName, @LastName, @signupDate, @Company, @Phone, @Email, @Address, @PostalCode, @State_Province, @City, @countryCode, @active,@activationCode) if @@error <> 0 set @ID=-1 else set @id=@memID Note that I've "inherited" this sproc and the database. I am trying to insert a new record from my signup.aspx page. My SQLDataSource is as follows: <asp:SqlDataSource runat="server" ID="dsAddMember" ConnectionString="rmsdbuser" InsertCommandType="StoredProcedure" InsertCommand="Pro_members_Insert" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient"> The click handler for btnSave is as follows: Protected Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click Try dsAddMember.DataBind() Catch ex As Exception End Try End Sub When I run this page, signup.aspx, provide required fields and click submit, the page simply reloads and the database table does not reflect the newly-inserted record. Questions: 1. How do I catch the error messages that might be returned from the sproc? 2. Please advise how to change signup.aspx so that the insert occurs. Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

    - by Christopher MacKinnon
    I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Session variables not getting set but only in Internet Explorer and not on all machines

    - by gaoshan88
    Logging into a site I'm working on functions as expected on my local machine but fails on the remote server but ONLY in Internet Explorer. The kicker is that it works in IE locally, just not on the remote machine. What in the world could cause this? I have stepped through the code on the remote machine and can see the entered login values being checked in the database, they are found and then a login function is called. This sets two $_SESSION variables and redirects to the main admin page. However, in IE only (and not when run on local machine... this is key) the $_SESSION variables are not present by the time you get to the main admin page. var_dump($_SESSION) gives me what I expect on every browser when I am running this in my local environment and in every browser except IE 6, 7 and 8 when run on the remote server (where I get a null value as if nothing has been set for $_SESSION). This really has me stumped so any advice is appreciated. For an example... in IE, run locally, var_dump gives me: array 'Username' => string 'theusername' length=11 'UserID' => string 'somevalue' length=9 Run on the remote server (IE only... works fine in other browsers) var_dump gives me: array(0){} Code: $User = GetUser($Username, $Password); if ($User->UserID <> "") { // this works so we call Login()... Login($User); // this also works and gives expected results. on to redirect... header("Location: index.php"); // a var_dump at index.php shows that there is no session data at all in IE, remotely. } else { header("Location: login.php"); } function Login($data) { $_SESSION['Username'] = $data->Username; $_SESSION['UserID'] = $data->UserID; // a var dump here gives the expected data in every browser }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >