Search Results

Search found 17734 results on 710 pages for 'values'.

Page 594/710 | < Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >

  • How to speed-up python nested loop?

    - by erich
    I'm performing a nested loop in python that is included below. This serves as a basic way of searching through existing financial time series and looking for periods in the time series that match certain characteristics. In this case there are two separate, equally sized, arrays representing the 'close' (i.e. the price of an asset) and the 'volume' (i.e. the amount of the asset that was exchanged over the period). For each period in time I would like to look forward at all future intervals with lengths between 1 and INTERVAL_LENGTH and see if any of those intervals have characteristics that match my search (in this case the ratio of the close values is greater than 1.0001 and less than 1.5 and the summed volume is greater than 100). My understanding is that one of the major reasons for the speedup when using NumPy is that the interpreter doesn't need to type-check the operands each time it evaluates something so long as you're operating on the array as a whole (e.g. numpy_array * 2), but obviously the code below is not taking advantage of that. Is there a way to replace the internal loop with some kind of window function which could result in a speedup, or any other way using numpy/scipy to speed this up substantially in native python? Alternatively, is there a better way to do this in general (e.g. will it be much faster to write this loop in C++ and use weave)? ARRAY_LENGTH = 500000 INTERVAL_LENGTH = 15 close = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) volume = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) close, volume = close.astype('float64'), volume.astype('float64') results = [] for i in xrange(len(close) - INTERVAL_LENGTH): for j in xrange(i+1, i+INTERVAL_LENGTH): ret = close[j] / close[i] vol = sum( volume[i+1:j+1] ) if ret > 1.0001 and ret < 1.5 and vol > 100: results.append( [i, j, ret, vol] ) print results

    Read the article

  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

    - by Dominic Watson
    I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

    Read the article

  • Analyzing an IronPython Scope

    - by Vercinegetorix
    I'm trying to write C# code with an embedded IronPython script. Then want to analyze the contents of the script, i.e. list all variables, functions, class and their members/methods. There's an easy way to start, assuming I've got a scope defined and code executed in it already: dynamic variables=pyScope.GetVariables(); foreach (string v in variables) { dynamic dynamicV=pyScope.GetVariable(); /*seems to return everything. variables, functions, classes, instances of classes*/ } But how do I figure out what the type of a variable is? For the following python 'objects', dynamicV.GetType() will return different values: x=5 --system.Int32 y="asdf" --system.String def func():... --IronPython.Runtime.PythonFunction z=class() -- IronPython.Runtime.Types.OldInstance, how can I identify what the actual python class is? class NewClass -- throws an error, GetType() is unavailable. This is almost what I'm looking for. I could capture the exception thrown when unavailable and assume it's a class declaration, but that seems unclean. Is there a better approach? To discover the members/methods of a class it looks like I can use: ObjectOperations op = pyEngine.Operations; object instance = op.Call("className"); foreach (string j in op.GetMemberNames("className")) { object member=op.GetMember(instance, j); Console.WriteLine(member.GetType()); /*once again, GetType() provides some info about the type of the member, but returns null sometimes*/ } Also, how do I get the parameters to a method? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to add an array value to the middle of an associative array?

    - by Citizen
    Lets say I have this array: $array = array('a'=>1,'z'=>2,'d'=>4); Later in the script, I want to add the value 'c'=>3 before 'z'. How can I do this? EDIT: Yes, the order is important. When I run a foreach() through the array, I do NOT want this newly added value added to the end of the array. I am getting this array from a mysql_fetch_assoc() EDIT 2: The keys I used above are placeholders. Using ksort() will not achieve what I want. EDIT 3: http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.array-splice.php#88896 accomplishes what I'm looking for but I'm looking for something simpler. EDIT 4: Thanks for the downvotes. I gave feedback to your answers and you couldn't help, so you downvoted and requested to close the question because you didn't know the answer. Thanks. EDIT 5: Take a sample db table with about 30 columns. I get this data using mysql_fetch_assoc(). In this new array, after column 'pizza' and 'drink', I want to add a new column 'full_dinner' that combines the values of 'pizza' and 'drink' so that when I run a foreach() on the said array, 'full_dinner' comes directly after 'drink'

    Read the article

  • XSLT for-each from query results

    - by Ben Record
    I've been on a hunt for a while trying to find a solution to this but I cannot find anywhere that addresses this problem. I'm running a SQL query through XSLT which will return three rows. Here is the query: <query name="OrderedProductNames" rowElementName ="OrderedItem"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select OrderedProductName, Quantity from Orders_ShoppingCart where OrderNumber = 101689 // Hard coded order number for testing purposes. ]]> </sql> </query> Ideally, I would like to iterate through each row returned and do a choose when which is tested on a variable from the current row being inspected in the for-each loop, but I am not entirely sure thhis is possible. My secondary thought would be to use the for-each loop as a way to inject hidden HTML input elements with the values I would need, then I could write a javascript function to complete what I'm trying to do. Any suggestion on how I would go about completing either task would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

    - by ozone
    Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

    Read the article

  • problem with joomla, php and json

    - by sebastian
    hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

    Read the article

  • Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

    - by Christopher MacKinnon
    I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

    - by jayshao
    In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to create Automation Add In Formula/Function and Excel Add In buttons (vsto) for them together?

    - by ticky
    Ok, let me explain it little bit better. Here is one example how to create formula/functions http://blogs.msdn.com/b/eric_carter/archive/2004/12/01/273127.aspx?PageIndex=1#comments I implemented something like that, I even added values in registry, so that this Automation AddIn doesn't have to be added manually in Excel, but automatically.. I created SETUP project for this project and it works GREAT. Then.. After some time, I wanted to create buttons in Excel for functions that I use. Those are custom functions, using some web services. I created Excel AddIn and added Ribbon with buttons - one button = one custom function. I can publish this project and I am creating VSTO, so this way, I can install excel ribbon buttons in custom group of mine. Now, I have 2 installations, first for Automation AddIn and second for Excel AddIn. How can I connect them? I tried to include VSTO to Setup - something like this: [I WILL ADD IT LATER] When I install it, it works great, it installs both parts. But when I install on my friends computer, it doesn't shows Ribbon buttons. What could be the problem? If there is some other way to integrate those two, I would be very grateful!!!!! Thanks! Tijana

    Read the article

  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

    Read the article

  • Query String to Object with strongly typed properties

    - by Kamar
    Let’s say we track 20 query string parameters in our site. Each request which comes will have only a subset of those 20 parameters. But we definitely look for all/most of the parameters which comes in each request. We do not want to loop through the collection each time we are looking for a particular parameter initially or somewhere down the pipeline in the code. So we loop once through the query string collection, convert string values to their respective types (enums, int, string etc.), populate to QueryString object which is added to the context. After that wherever its needed we will have a strongly typed properties in the QueryString object which is easy to use and we maintain a standard. public class QueryString { public int Key1{ get; private set; } public SomeType Key2{ get; private set; } private QueryString() { } public static QueryString GetQueryString() { QueryString l_QS = new QueryString(); foreach (string l_Key in HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString.AllKeys) { switch (l_Key) { case "key1": l_QS.Key1= DoSomething(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; case "key2": l_QS.Key2 = DoAnotherThing(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; } } return l_QS; } } Any other solution to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

    Read the article

  • Validating a value for a DataColumn

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

    Read the article

  • Why is this ajax call being made even though it shouldn't be

    - by user2921557
    i have this validation script im working on but cant see why im having an issue. You can see that i have a check = false / true, check before it runs the ajax call. However, even if a field is empty and check is set to false, it is still running the call. so: // JavaScript - Update Password AJAX $(document).ready(function () { // When the form is submitted $('.updatepasswordform').submit(function () { var check = true; // Get the values var password1 = $("input[name=password1]").val(); var password2 = $("input[name=password2]").val(); var newpassword = $("input[name=newpassword]").val(); /* Password Validation */ // If fields are empty if (password1 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password1]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (password2 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password2]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (newpassword === '') { check = false; $("input[name=newpassword]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } if (check = true) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "process/updatepassword.php", data: $(".updatepasswordform").serialize(), dataType: "json", success: function (response) { /* Checks for database validation, removed for space saving */ } }); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

    Read the article

  • Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R (...again)

    - by monch1962
    Hello all, (I tried to ask this question earlier today, but later realised I over-simplified the question; the answers I received were correct, but I couldn't use them because of my over-simplification of the problem in the original question. Here's my 2nd attempt...) I have a data frame in R that looks like: "Timestamp", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , P1 , P2 , 5 , "ABCDE" 0.2 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "HIJ" 0.4 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "PQRS" 0.5 , P2 , P1 , 2 , "ZY" 0.9 , P2 , P1 , 4 , "SRQP" 1.1 , P1 , P2 , 1 , "B" 1.6 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "DEF" 2.0 , P2 , P1 , 3 , "IJK" ... and I want to convert this to: "StartTime", "EndTime", "Duration", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , 0.4 , 0.3 , P1 , P2 , 12 , "ABCDEHIJPQRS" 0.5 , 0.9 , 0.4 , P2 , P1 , 6 , "ZYSRQP" 1.1 , 1.6 , 0.5 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "BDEF" ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' and 'Target' together, then print out a single record per group showing the StartTime, EndTime & Duration (=EndTime-StartTime) for that group, along with the sum of the Lengths for that group, and a concatenation of the Content (which will all be strings) in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase throughout the data frame. I had a look at melt/recast and have a feeling that it could be used to solve the problem, but couldn't get my head around the documentation. I suspect it's possible to do this within R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

    Read the article

  • Problem with NSString

    - by Kassar
    I have a problem with NSString in dynamic binding ... I manipulate with Facebook library, when i'll share my story i should make an instance of FBStreamDialog and charge its attributes with values of the story then show it, like this: FBStreamDialog* dialog = [[[FBStreamDialog alloc] init]autorelease]; dialog.delegate = self; dialog.userMessagePrompt = @"prompt"; NSString* sss=@"{ \"name\":\"%@\", \"href\":\"%@\", \"caption\":\"%@\", \"description\":\"%@\" , \"media\":[{ \"type\":\"image\", \"src\":\"%@\", \"href\":\"%@\" }] }"; dialog.attachment = [NSString stringWithFormat:sss,@"title",@"http://www.docs.com/hi.html",@"caption",@"summary",@"http://www.images.com/206.jpg",@"http://www.images.com/206.jpg"]; NSLog(@"ATTACHMENT: %@",dialog.attachment); The code above is running well. But my problem is when i want to charge these attributes dynamically like this: BStreamDialog* dialog = [[[FBStreamDialog alloc] init]autorelease]; dialog.delegate = self; dialog.userMessagePrompt = @"prompt"; NSString* sss=@"{ \"name\":\"%@\", \"href\":\"%@\", \"caption\":\"%@\", \"description\":\"%@\" , \"media\":[{ \"type\":\"image\", \"src\":\"%@\", \"href\":\"%@\" }] }"; dialog.attachment = [NSString stringWithFormat:sss,story.title,story.link,story.caption,story.summary,story.imagelink,story.imagelink]; NSLog(@"ATTACHMENT: %@",dialog.attachment); It's running without crash but it doesn't share the story it share a blank one !!! Although, it shows in the console (output of NSLog) the value of attachment is true !!! Could you plz help me. Sorry for my english.

    Read the article

  • TicTacToe strategic reduction

    - by NickLarsen
    I decided to write a small program that solves TicTacToe in order to try out the effect of some pruning techniques on a trivial game. The full game tree using minimax to solve it only ends up with 549,946 possible games. With alpha-beta pruning, the number of states required to evaluate was reduced to 18,297. Then I applied a transposition table that brings the number down to 2,592. Now I want to see how low that number can go. The next enhancement I want to apply is a strategic reduction. The basic idea is to combine states that have equivalent strategic value. For instance, on the first move, if X plays first, there is nothing strategically different (assuming your opponent plays optimally) about choosing one corner instead of another. In the same situation, the same is true of the center of the walls of the board, and the center is also significant. By reducing to significant states only, you end up with only 3 states for evaluation on the first move instead of 9. This technique should be very useful since it prunes states near the top of the game tree. This idea came from the GameShrink method created by a group at CMU, only I am trying to avoid writing the general form, and just doing what is needed to apply the technique to TicTacToe. In order to achieve this, I modified my hash function (for the transposition table) to enumerate all strategically equivalent positions (using rotation and flipping functions), and to only return the lowest of the values for each board. Unfortunately now my program thinks X can force a win in 5 moves from an empty board when going first. After a long debugging session, it became apparent to me the program was always returning the move for the lowest strategically significant move (I store the last move in the transposition table as part of my state). Is there a better way I can go about adding this feature, or a simple method for determining the correct move applicable to the current situation with what I have already done?

    Read the article

  • As3 printing problem, blanks swf after print or cancel

    - by Carlos Barbosa
    Hey all! ok back at another issues in as3 printing Code: //Function to print entire screen function printFunction(event:MouseEvent):void { var myPrintJob:PrintJob = new PrintJob(); var oldScaleX:Number = root.scaleX; var oldScaleY:Number = root.scaleY; //Start the print job myPrintJob.start(); //Figure out the new scale var newScaleX:Number = myPrintJob.paperWidth/root.width; var newScaleY:Number = myPrintJob.paperHeight/root.height; //Shrink in both the X and Y directions by the same amount (keep the same ratio) if(newScaleX < newScaleY) newScaleY = newScaleX; else newScaleX = newScaleY; root.scaleX = newScaleX; root.scaleY = newScaleY; //Print the page myPrintJob.addPage(Sprite(root)); myPrintJob.send(); //Reset the scale to the old values root.scaleX = oldScaleX; root.scaleY = oldScaleY; } I cant seem to find anything thats really helpful with this. When i click cancel on the print dialog box, i get error below and it blanks out my swf.

    Read the article

  • Using array of Action() in a lambda expression

    - by Sean87
    I want to do some performance measurement for a method that does some work with int arrays, so I wrote the following class: public class TimeKeeper { public TimeSpan Measure(Action[] actions) { var watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); foreach (var action in actions) { action(); } return watch.Elapsed; } } But I can not call the Measure mehotd for the example below: var elpased = new TimeKeeper(); elpased.Measure( () => new Action[] { FillArray(ref a, "a", 10000), FillArray(ref a, "a", 10000), FillArray(ref a, "a", 10000) }); I get the following errors: Cannot convert lambda expression to type 'System.Action[]' because it is not a delegate type Cannot implicitly convert type 'void' to 'System.Action' Cannot implicitly convert type 'void' to 'System.Action' Cannot implicitly convert type 'void' to 'System.Action' Here is the method that works with arrays: private void FillArray(ref int[] array, string name, int count) { array = new int[count]; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) { array[i] = i; } Console.WriteLine("Array {0} is now filled up with {1} values", name, count); } What I am doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >