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  • howto catch jQuery for multiple links but not all

    - by user247245
    I'm trying to dig into jQuery but would like some feedback on how to do things the best way, I have a list with items, which each contains a hidden div that should show upon click on it's parent, list div:ed item1 with link hidden div div:ed item2 with link hidden div .. My current solution is to trace the calling link by it's id and then reusing that ID for showing the correct hidden one: $(document).ready(function() { //jQ should only trigger on links with id="cmLinkINT" $("a").click(function() { //see if it's a comment request. var s = $(this).attr("id"); if (s.indexOf('cmLink') != -1) { //ok, it was a 'show'-link, get the id.. var j = s.substring(6); //ok, now I have the id i want to show (detailsINT) return false; } }); }); What's not clear to me is the best approach, Should I use id for requesting a or trace the id of the parent div. How to avoid that the code triggers on any link? Class? Thankful for any feedback, regards //t

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  • Laravel check if id exists?

    - by devt204
    I've two columns in contents tables 1. id 2. content now this is what i'm trying to do Route::post('save', function() { $editor_content=Input::get('editor_content'); $rules = array('editor_content' => 'required'); $validator= Validator::make(Input::all(), $rules); if($validator->passes()) { //1. check if id is submitted? //2. if id exists update content table //3. else insert new content //create new instance $content= new Content; // insert the content to content column $content->content = $editor_content; //save the content $content->save(); // check if content has id $id=$content->id; return Response::json(array('success' => 'sucessfully saved', 'id' => $id)); } if($validator->fails()) { return $validator->messages() ; } }); i wanted to check if id has been already submit or checked i'm processing the request via ajax, and if id exists i wanted update the content column and if it doesn't i wanted to create new instance how do i do it ?

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  • redirect web app results to own application

    - by vbNewbie
    Is it possible to redirect a web apps results to a second application? I cannot parse the html source. It contains the javascript functions that execute the queries but all the content is probably server side. I hope this makes sense. The owner has made the script available but I am not sure how this helps. Can I using .net call the site and redirect results perhaps to a file or database? the app accesses one of googles apis and performs searches/queries and returns results which are displayed on the site. Now all the javascript functions that perform these queries are listed in the source but I do not know javascript so it does not make much sense to me. I have used the documentation which uses the oauth protocol to access the api and have implemented that in my web app but it took me nearly a week to get the request token right and now to send requests to the api, sometimes I get one result back and sometimes none. It is frustrating me and the owner of the web app has given use of his script but he says all that happens is that my browser interacts with the google api and not his server. So I thought why not have my web app call his, since his interacts with the API flawlessly and have the results sent to my app to save in a database. I have very little experience here so pardon my ignorance

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  • Design for fastest page download

    - by mexxican
    I have a file with millions of URLs/IPs and have to write a program to download the pages really fast. The connection rate should be at least 6000/s and file download speed at least 2000 with avg. 15kb file size. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps. My approach so far has been: Creating 600 socket threads with each having 60 sockets and using WSAEventSelect to wait for data to read. As soon as a file download is complete, add that memory address(of the downloaded file) to a pipeline( a simple vector ) and fire another request. When the total download is more than 50Mb among all socket threads, write all the files downloaded to the disk and free the memory. So far, this approach has been not very successful with the rate at which I could hit not shooting beyond 2900 connections/s and downloaded data rate even less. Can somebody suggest an alternative approach which could give me better stats. Also I am working windows server 2008 machine with 8 Gig of memory. Also, do we need to hack the kernel so as we could use more threads and memory. Currently I can create a max. of 1500 threads and memory usage not going beyond 2 gigs [ which technically should be much more as this is a 64-bit machine ]. And IOCP is out of question as I have no experience in that so far and have to fix this application today. Thanks Guys!

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  • how can i make sure to get the server response correctly when i invoke the server with QNetworkReque

    - by noname
    I wrote the server site call in Qt, but i haven't get the server response for every server invoking. I have to use the server reply to continue the program flow. The request is correctly reached to server and server do reply.The server is also on my machine. Here is the code how i make the server site call; QNetworkAccessManager nam1 = new QNetworkAccessManager(this); qnetmg=nam1; QObject::connect(nam1, SIGNAL(finished(QNetworkReply*)),this,SLOT(finishedGettingMarker(QNetworkReply*))); QString strurl="http://localhost:8080/ServerWeb"; QUrl url(strurl); QNetworkRequest preq(url); QNetworkReply* reply = nam1->get(preq); qreply=reply; Inside finisedGettingMarker slot, i have already eliminate for QNetworkReply-error case and i used one global variable for QNetworkAccessManager;"qnetmg" and one global variable for QNetworkReply;"qreply". And also i make qnetmg.disconnect(this,0); and qreply.abort(); inside that slot method. But the problem is i haven't got the response for every server invoking time. If anyone who know the way to solve it , please reply me. This situation happened only in Opera. Thanks in advance.

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  • Need help mocking a ASP.NET Controller in RhinoMocks

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to mock up a fake ASP.NET Controller. I don't have any concrete controllers, so I was hoping to just mock a Controller and it will work. This is what I have, currently. _fakeRequestBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpRequestBase>(); _fakeRequestBase.Stub(x => x.HttpMethod).Return("GET"); _fakeContextBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpContextBase>(); _fakeContextBase.Stub(x => x.Request).Return(_fakeRequestBase); var controllerContext = new ControllerContext(_fakeContextBase, new RouteData(), MockRepository.GenerateMock<ControllerBase>()); _fakeController = MockRepository.GenerateMock<Controller>(); _fakeController.Stub(x => x.ControllerContext).Return(controllerContext); Everything works except the last line, which throws a runtime error and is asking me for some Rhino.Mocks source code or something (which I don't have). See how I'm trying to mock up an abstract Controller - is that allowed? Can someone help me?

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  • PHP 5.3 and interface \ArrayAccess

    - by Jakub Lédl
    I'm now working on a project and I have one class that implements the ArrayAccess interface. Howewer, I'm getting an error that says that my implementation: must be compatible with that of ArrayAccess::offsetSet(). My implementation looks like this: public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("..."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } So, to me it looks like my implementation is correct. Any idea what is wrong? Thanks very much! The class look like this: class HttpRequest implements \ArrayAccess { // tons of private variables, methods for working // with current http request etc. Really nothing that // could interfere with that interface. // ArrayAccess implementation public function offsetExists($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]); } public function offsetGet($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]) ? $this->params[$offset] : NULL; } public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("You can only assing to params using specified key."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } public function offsetUnset($offset) { unset ($this->params[$offset]); } }

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  • Java giving incorrect year values

    - by whistler
    Something very, very strange is occurring in my program, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has seen this occur before. And, if so, how to fix it. Basically, I am parsing an csv file...no problem there. One column contains a date and I am taking it in as a String and changing to a Date object. Again, no problem there. The code is as follows: SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yy hh:mm"); Date initialDate = new Date(); try { initialDate = dateFormat.parse(rows.get(0)[8]); System.out.println(initialDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Of course, I'm parsing other columns as well (and those are working fine). So, when I run my program for a small csv file (2.8 MB), the dates come out (i.e. are parsed) perfectly. However, when I run the program for a large csv file (25 MB), the dates are a hot mess. For example, take a look at the year values I am getting (the following is just a tiny portion of the println output from the code above): 1000264 at Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 1000320 at Sat Mar 04 17:30:00 EST 2169 1000347 at Sat Apr 01 09:45:00 EDT 2169 1000413 at Tue Jul 09 13:00:00 EDT 2182 1000638 at Fri Dec 11 13:45:00 EST 2167 1000667 at Wed Dec 10 10:00:00 EST 2188 1000690 at Mon Jan 02 13:00:00 EST 2169 1000843 at Thu Feb 11 13:30:00 EST 2196 In actuality, the years are in the realm of 1990-2006 or so. Again, this does not happen with the small csv file. Does anyone know what's going on here and how I can fix it? I need to process the large csv file (the small one was just for testing purposes). By request, here are the actual dates in the csv file and after that the value given by the code above: 5/20/03 15:30 5/20/03 15:30 8/30/04 9:00 8/30/04 9:00 12/20/04 10:30 12/20/04 10:30 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Thu Dec 08 09:00:00 EST 2196 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186

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  • Why won't Internet Explorer (or Chrome) display my 'Loading...' gif but Firefox will?

    - by codeLes
    I have a page that fires several xmlHttp requests (synchronous, plain-vanilla javascript, I'd love to be using jquery thanks for mentioning that). I'm hiding/showing a div with a loading image based on starting/stopping the related javascript functions (at times I have a series of 3 xmlhttp request spawning functions nested). div = document.getElementById("loadingdiv"); if(div) { if(stillLoading) { div.style.visibility='visible'; div.style.display=''; } else { div.style.visibility='hidden'; div.style.display='none'; } } In Firefox this seems to work fine. The div displays and shows the gif for the required processing. In IE/Chrome however I get no such feedback. I am only able to prove that the div/image will even display by putting alert() methods in place with I call the above code, this stops the process and seems to give the browsers in question the window they need to render the dom change. I want IE/Chrome to work like it works in Firefox. What gives?

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  • Fetch multiple rows from SQL in PHP foreach item in array

    - by TrySpace
    I try to request an array of IDs, to return each row with that ID, and push each into an Array $finalArray But only the first result from the Query will output, and at the second foreach, it skips the while loop. I have this working in another script, so I don't understand where it's going wrong. The $arrayItems is an array containing: "home, info" $finalArray = array(); foreach ($arrayItems as $UID_get) { $Query = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE (uid = '" . cleanQuery($UID_get) . "' ) ORDER BY uid"; if($Result = $mysqli->query($Query)) { print_r($UID_get); echo "<BR><-><BR>"; while ($Row = $Result->fetch_assoc()) { array_push($finalArray , $Row); print_r($finalArray ); echo "<BR><><BR>"; } } else { echo '{ "returned" : "FAIL" }'; //. mysqli_connect_errno() . ' ' . mysqli_connect_error() . "<BR>"; } } (the cleanQuery is to escape and stripslashes) What I'm trying to get is an array of multiple rows (after i json_encoded it, like: {"finalArray" : { "home": {"id":"1","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"red\" }"} }, { "info": {"id":"2","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"blue\" }"} } } But that's after I get both, or more results from the db. the print_r($UID_get); does print info, but then nothing.. So, why am I not getting the second row from info? I am essentially re-querying foreach $arrayItem right?

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  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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  • .NET Embedded Manifest Crashes XP

    - by Alan Spark
    Hi, I am embedding a manifest in a .NET exe so that it can request elevated permissions in Vista and Windows 7. The manifest that I am using is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="1.0.0.0" name="ElevationTest" type="win32"/> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> It works as expected in Vista and Windows 7 but crashes XP with the standard "... has encountered a problem and needs to close..." error. If I don't embed any manifest then it works as expected but will obviously not have the required permissions in Vista and Windows 7. What is a standard way of producing an exe that will function with the correct permissions in XP and Vista / Windows 7? Thanks, Alan

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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  • Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

    - by Sukotto
    I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • Page_Load or Page_Init

    - by balexandre
    Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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  • What access token should i use?

    - by user548458
    I made a posting scores. It worked normaly sometimes. But, now I cant post any score. If I use user accessToken: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> (){ { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", accessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get error: {"error":{"message":"(#15) This method must be called with an app access_token.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":15}} If I use an app access token: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> () { { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", appAccessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get other error: {"error":{"message":"A user access token is required to request this resource.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":102}} Help me please, what am i doing wrong? PS: I worked well recently, but now - dont. Cant explain it...

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS in NSURLConnection: how to debug?

    - by baswell
    I have an iPhone app that downloads URLs. (PDFs to display) Easy: self.conn = [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:self.request delegate:self]; where self.conn is a retained property. For specific URLs, this throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS. The URL is valid and is constructed in the same way as URLs that do work. (90% of URLs are fine) These ones work: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARG_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARK_11-Mar-2010.pdf These don't: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YAMK_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YATN_11-Mar-2010.pdf Spot the difference? Yeah, me neither. Also no difference in response headers from the server for them. To clarify, the ones that work ALWAYS work, the ones that don't NEVER work. So not some random release/retain issue it seems. For the ones that don't work, none of the methods in my delegate are ever called, it fails hard before that. And with no error message, just EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Sooo.... Any way to debug what is going on inside NSURLConnection?

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  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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  • html/js: Refresh 'Select' options

    - by framara
    Hi, There's a class 'Car' with brand and model as properties. I have a list of items of this class List<Car> myCars. I need to represent in a JSP website 2 ComboBox, one for brand and another for model, that when you select the brand, in the model list only appear the ones from that brand. I don't know how to do this in a dynamic way. Any suggestion where to start? Thanks Update Ok, what I do now is send in the request a list with all the brand names, and a list of the items. The JSP code is like: <select name="manufacturer" id="id_manufacturer" onchange="return getManufacturer();"> <option value=""></option> <c:forEach items="${manufacturers}" var="man"> <option value="${man}" >${man}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select name="model" id="id_model"> <c:forEach items="${mycars}" var="car"> <c:if test="${car.manufacturer eq man_selected}"> <option value="${car.id}">${car.model}</option> </c:if> </c:forEach> </select> <script> function getManufacturer() { man_selected = document.getElementById('id_manufacturer').value; } </script> How do I do to refresh the 'model' select options according to the selected 'man_selected' ?

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  • log activity. intrusion detection. user event notification ( interraction ). messaging

    - by Julian Davchev
    Have three questions that I somehow find related so I put them in same place. Currently building relatively large LAMP system - making use of messaging(activeMQ) , memcache and other goodies. I wonder if there are best practices or nice tips and tricks on howto implement those. System is user aware - meaning all actions done can be bind to particular logged user. 1. How to log all actions/activities of users? So that stats/graphics might be extracted later for analysing. At best that will include all url calls, post data etc etc. Meaning tons of inserts. I am thinking sending messages to activeMQ and later cron dumping in DB and cron analysing might be good idea here. Since using Zend Framework I guess I may use some request plugin so I don't have to make the log() call all over the code. 2.How to log stuff so may be used for intrusion detection? I know most things might be done on http level using apache mods for example but there are also specific cases like (5 failed login attempts in a row (leads to captcha) etc etc..) This also would include tons of inserts. Here I guess direct usage of memcache might be best approach as data don't seem vital to be permanantly persisted. Not sure if cannot use data from point 1. 3.System will notify users of some events. Like need approval , something broke..whatever.Some events will need feedback(action) from user, others are just informational. Wonder if there is common solutions for needs like this. Example: Based on occuring event(s) user will be notifed (user inbox for example) what happend. There will be link or something to lead him to details of thingy that happend and take action accordingly. Those seem trivial at first look but problem I see if coding it directly is becoming really fast hard to maintain.

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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

    - by Jed
    I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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  • live image edit , and crop

    - by 422
    I was just thinking, which is always dangerous. We use Valums Image uploader. Aside from that, I am looking for an inline image editor, but with a difference. User uploads an image ( lets say 800 x 600 ) Our system wants to see the image ( 170 x 32 ) now I know we can use php to resize images. But I was thinking, does anyone know of a system, where we can display the image, and user can scale, and crop image ( with say a predefined overlay ) By that they scale down to nearest acceptable size, and then click crop tool, which shows a div overlay with say 70% transparency that they can drag over the image, and then click crop. So image is cropped to exact size we need, then can save . I am sure I have seen some jquery stuff done like this, just cannot for life of me find it. Essentialy, we would like to offer a simple client side image processor, thats lightweight, and then the ability to save what they did . Sorry no code to show, as its more of a request. Regards

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  • .htaccess file on localhost throwing an error when using a Virtual Host config on my Localhost!!

    - by Chris
    I am trying to set-up my localhost development server. I have everything working but when I try to add an .htaccess it throws this error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, [no address given] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. I dont know exactly why this is, this is pretty much the exact same setup as the other developers machine, but when using my .htaccess file I get that error. Here is my .htaccess file (NOTE: They are commented because I left my site with this setup. It only lets me view the index page. Without this .htaccess file, I can navigate.): Options -indexes RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /404 RewriteRule ^battery/([^/]+)$ /browser/product?sku=BATTERY+$1&type=battery RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/product([0-9]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&id=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)$ /browser/product.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3&id=$4 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/$ /browser/index.php [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

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