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  • Need help mocking a ASP.NET Controller in RhinoMocks

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to mock up a fake ASP.NET Controller. I don't have any concrete controllers, so I was hoping to just mock a Controller and it will work. This is what I have, currently. _fakeRequestBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpRequestBase>(); _fakeRequestBase.Stub(x => x.HttpMethod).Return("GET"); _fakeContextBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpContextBase>(); _fakeContextBase.Stub(x => x.Request).Return(_fakeRequestBase); var controllerContext = new ControllerContext(_fakeContextBase, new RouteData(), MockRepository.GenerateMock<ControllerBase>()); _fakeController = MockRepository.GenerateMock<Controller>(); _fakeController.Stub(x => x.ControllerContext).Return(controllerContext); Everything works except the last line, which throws a runtime error and is asking me for some Rhino.Mocks source code or something (which I don't have). See how I'm trying to mock up an abstract Controller - is that allowed? Can someone help me?

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  • Fetch multiple rows from SQL in PHP foreach item in array

    - by TrySpace
    I try to request an array of IDs, to return each row with that ID, and push each into an Array $finalArray But only the first result from the Query will output, and at the second foreach, it skips the while loop. I have this working in another script, so I don't understand where it's going wrong. The $arrayItems is an array containing: "home, info" $finalArray = array(); foreach ($arrayItems as $UID_get) { $Query = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE (uid = '" . cleanQuery($UID_get) . "' ) ORDER BY uid"; if($Result = $mysqli->query($Query)) { print_r($UID_get); echo "<BR><-><BR>"; while ($Row = $Result->fetch_assoc()) { array_push($finalArray , $Row); print_r($finalArray ); echo "<BR><><BR>"; } } else { echo '{ "returned" : "FAIL" }'; //. mysqli_connect_errno() . ' ' . mysqli_connect_error() . "<BR>"; } } (the cleanQuery is to escape and stripslashes) What I'm trying to get is an array of multiple rows (after i json_encoded it, like: {"finalArray" : { "home": {"id":"1","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"red\" }"} }, { "info": {"id":"2","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"blue\" }"} } } But that's after I get both, or more results from the db. the print_r($UID_get); does print info, but then nothing.. So, why am I not getting the second row from info? I am essentially re-querying foreach $arrayItem right?

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  • howto catch jQuery for multiple links but not all

    - by user247245
    I'm trying to dig into jQuery but would like some feedback on how to do things the best way, I have a list with items, which each contains a hidden div that should show upon click on it's parent, list div:ed item1 with link hidden div div:ed item2 with link hidden div .. My current solution is to trace the calling link by it's id and then reusing that ID for showing the correct hidden one: $(document).ready(function() { //jQ should only trigger on links with id="cmLinkINT" $("a").click(function() { //see if it's a comment request. var s = $(this).attr("id"); if (s.indexOf('cmLink') != -1) { //ok, it was a 'show'-link, get the id.. var j = s.substring(6); //ok, now I have the id i want to show (detailsINT) return false; } }); }); What's not clear to me is the best approach, Should I use id for requesting a or trace the id of the parent div. How to avoid that the code triggers on any link? Class? Thankful for any feedback, regards //t

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  • Java giving incorrect year values

    - by whistler
    Something very, very strange is occurring in my program, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has seen this occur before. And, if so, how to fix it. Basically, I am parsing an csv file...no problem there. One column contains a date and I am taking it in as a String and changing to a Date object. Again, no problem there. The code is as follows: SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yy hh:mm"); Date initialDate = new Date(); try { initialDate = dateFormat.parse(rows.get(0)[8]); System.out.println(initialDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Of course, I'm parsing other columns as well (and those are working fine). So, when I run my program for a small csv file (2.8 MB), the dates come out (i.e. are parsed) perfectly. However, when I run the program for a large csv file (25 MB), the dates are a hot mess. For example, take a look at the year values I am getting (the following is just a tiny portion of the println output from the code above): 1000264 at Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 1000320 at Sat Mar 04 17:30:00 EST 2169 1000347 at Sat Apr 01 09:45:00 EDT 2169 1000413 at Tue Jul 09 13:00:00 EDT 2182 1000638 at Fri Dec 11 13:45:00 EST 2167 1000667 at Wed Dec 10 10:00:00 EST 2188 1000690 at Mon Jan 02 13:00:00 EST 2169 1000843 at Thu Feb 11 13:30:00 EST 2196 In actuality, the years are in the realm of 1990-2006 or so. Again, this does not happen with the small csv file. Does anyone know what's going on here and how I can fix it? I need to process the large csv file (the small one was just for testing purposes). By request, here are the actual dates in the csv file and after that the value given by the code above: 5/20/03 15:30 5/20/03 15:30 8/30/04 9:00 8/30/04 9:00 12/20/04 10:30 12/20/04 10:30 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Thu Dec 08 09:00:00 EST 2196 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186

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  • How to retrieve content via .load() or $.get() with this line

    - by Sin
    hello :) I posted a question a day or two ago about how to retrieve php via ajax method in this modal I was using. I kinda found out the right way to go about it, but there's still something I'm not doing right (obviously lol) Here's the section thats giving me the issues: jQuery('div that holds content').fadeIn(200).css({ 'width': Number( popWidth ) }); $('').load('/something/somewhere/this #content'); So, im using safari, and a local server (mamp), when I check activity in my browser, it shows that it is loading the content with every click, AND the pop up pops up, but no content. When I simply retrieve content via hidden div, ofcourse, i get it. This is what I'm trying to avoid. right now I have that div in my footer stashed as hidden. I'd rather just make a call when its needed, instead of loading it every single time a page is accessed. you can go here to see the whole script i posted in my last question: How to use ajax to show php in a modal pop up Anyone have any idea? I read that .load() has the ability to grab specific content from a request, but im not sure the major difference between that and $.get() I've tried both, and I get the same results. Im using wordpress, and wordpress's ajax requests run smooth as ever, so I know its not a local problem, i'ts my coding lol Ok....Im done typing :)

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Grails - ElasticSearch - QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; with elasticSearchHelper; JSON via curl works fine though

    - by v1p
    I have been working on a Grails project, clubbed with ElasticSearch ( v 20.6 ), with a custom build of elasticsearch-grails-plugin(to support geo_point indexing : v.20.6) have been trying to do a filtered Search, while using script_fields (to calculate distance). Following is Closure & the generated JSON from the GXContentBuilder : Closure records = Domain.search(searchType:'dfs_query_and_fetch'){ query { filtered = { query = { if(queryTxt){ query_string(query: queryTxt) }else{ match_all {} } } filter = { geo_distance = { distance = "${userDistance}km" "location"{ lat = latlon[0]?:0.00 lon = latlon[1]?:0.00 } } } } } script_fields = { distance = { script = "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm($latlon)" } } fields = ["_source"] } GXContentBuilder generated query JSON : { "query": { "filtered": { "query": { "match_all": {} }, "filter": { "geo_distance": { "distance": "5km", "location": { "lat": "37.752258", "lon": "-121.949886" } } } } }, "script_fields": { "distance": { "script": "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm(37.752258, -121.949886)" } }, "fields": ["_source"] } The JSON query, using curl-way, works perfectly fine. But when I try to execute it from Groovy Code, I mean with this : elasticSearchHelper.withElasticSearch { Client client -> def response = client.search(request).actionGet() } It throws following error : Failed to execute phase [dfs], total failure; shardFailures {[1][index][3]: SearchParseException[[index][3]: from[0],size[60]: Parse Failure [Failed to parse source [{"from":0,"size":60,"query_binary":"eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJmaWx0ZXJlZCI6eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJtYXRjaF9hbGwiOnt9fSwiZmlsdGVyIjp7Imdlb19kaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6IjVrbSIsImNvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiI6eyJsYXQiOiIzNy43NTIyNTgiLCJsb24iOiItMTIxLjk0OTg4NiJ9fX19fSwic2NyaXB0X2ZpZWxkcyI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJzY3JpcHQiOiJkb2NbJ2NvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiddLmFyY0Rpc3RhbmNlSW5LbSgzNy43NTIyNTgsIC0xMjEuOTQ5ODg2KSJ9fSwiZmllbGRzIjpbIl9zb3VyY2UiXX0=","explain":true}]]]; nested: QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; } The above Closure works if I only use filtered = { ... } script_fields = { ... } but it doesn't return the calculated distance. Anyone had any similar problem ? Thanks in advance :) It's possible that I might have been dim to point out the obvious here :P

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  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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  • How to add "missing" columns in a column group in reporting services?

    - by Gimly
    Hello, I'm trying to create a report that displays for each months of the year the quantity of goods sold. I have a query that returns the list of goods sold for each month, it looks something like this : SELECT Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month, SUM(SellingHistory.QuantitySold) FROM SellingHistory JOIN Seller on SellingHistory.SellerId = Seller.SellerId WHERE SellingHistory.Year = @Year GOUP BY Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month What I want to do is display a report that has a column for each months + a total column that will display for each Seller the quantity sold in the selected month. Seller Name | Jan | Feb | Mar | Apr | May | Jun | Jul | Aug | Sep | Oct | Nov | Dec | Total What I managed to do is using a matrix and a column group (group on Month) to display the columns for existing data, if I have data from January to March, it will display the 3 first columns and the total. What I would like to do is always display all the columns. I thought about making that by adding the missing months in the SQL request, but I find that a bit weird and I'm sure there must be some "cleanest" solution as this is something that must be quite frequent. Thanks. PS: I'm using SQL Server Express 2008

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • how can i make sure to get the server response correctly when i invoke the server with QNetworkReque

    - by noname
    I wrote the server site call in Qt, but i haven't get the server response for every server invoking. I have to use the server reply to continue the program flow. The request is correctly reached to server and server do reply.The server is also on my machine. Here is the code how i make the server site call; QNetworkAccessManager nam1 = new QNetworkAccessManager(this); qnetmg=nam1; QObject::connect(nam1, SIGNAL(finished(QNetworkReply*)),this,SLOT(finishedGettingMarker(QNetworkReply*))); QString strurl="http://localhost:8080/ServerWeb"; QUrl url(strurl); QNetworkRequest preq(url); QNetworkReply* reply = nam1->get(preq); qreply=reply; Inside finisedGettingMarker slot, i have already eliminate for QNetworkReply-error case and i used one global variable for QNetworkAccessManager;"qnetmg" and one global variable for QNetworkReply;"qreply". And also i make qnetmg.disconnect(this,0); and qreply.abort(); inside that slot method. But the problem is i haven't got the response for every server invoking time. If anyone who know the way to solve it , please reply me. This situation happened only in Opera. Thanks in advance.

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  • Force language change from custom account creation script through url

    - by jax
    I have made a custom 'Account Creation' script so that users can login from my phone application. What I want is to be able to change the responses from the server depending on their locale. So when I request a page I would add lang=en or lang=zh etc. This works http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=en Response: <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>Please enter your name:</message> </resource> This does not work: http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=zh Response: <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>Please enter your name:</message> </resource> If I go into Joomla at set the default language to chinese, it works. <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>????????</message> </resource> but http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=en does not work, instead it continues to show the chinese version. What might I be able to do here?

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  • displaying a physical webpage with frames in iframe

    - by ksa
    i have iframe in my webpage, i have done the coding part for browsing the folders and viewing files in iframe.each folder has a index.html.now i need to display the index.html in iframe.index.html page contains frames divided into 2,each from different sources.i tried to display a sample webpage without frames and it was a success,page with frames spoils the party. my code for getting the html file <% String path=request.getParameter("name"); File directory = new File(path); FileFilter fileFilter=new FileFilter() { @Override public boolean accept(File file) { return file.getName().endsWith("html"); } }; File[] files = directory.listFiles(fileFilter); for (int index = 0; index < files.length; index++) { String s= files[index].getName(); String s1=files[index].getAbsolutePath(); %> <a href="fileview?name=<%=s1%>" target="sss"><%=s%></a> <% } %> mycode for displaying the page in iframe. public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req,HttpServletResponse res) throws ServletException,IOException { res.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out=res.getWriter(); String name=req.getParameter("name"); res.setHeader("Content-Disposition", "inline; filename=\""+name+"\""); java.io.FileInputStream fis=new java.io.FileInputStream(name); int i; while((i=fis.read())!=-1) { out.write(i); } fis.close(); out.close(); }

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  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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  • Trying to build a dynamic PHP mysql_query string to update a row and getting back the updated row

    - by adardesign
    I have a form that jQuery tracks the onChage .change() event so when something is changed it runs a ajax request and i pass in the column, id, and the values in the url. Here i have the PHP code that should update the data. My question is now how do i build the mySQl string dynamically. and how do i echo back the changes/updates that where just changed on the db. Here is the PHP code i am trying to work with. <?php require_once('Connections/connect.php'); ?> <?php $id = $_GET['id']; $collumn = $_GET['collumn']; $val = $_GET['val']; ?> <?php mysql_select_db($myDB, $connection); // here i try to build the query string and pass in the passed in values $sqlUpdate = 'UPDATE `plProducts`.`allPens` SET `$collumn` = '$val' WHERE `allPens`.`prodId` = '$id' LIMIT 1;'; // here i want to echo back the updated row (or the updated data) $seeResults = mysql_query($sqlUpdate, $connection); echo $seeResults ?>

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  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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  • Best practices for "search data class" in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tim Ridgely
    Hi everybody, I'm hoping this isn't too subjective, but I'm new to ASP.NET MVC and I'm trying to figure out how others may have solved similar problems. Basically, I have two entities, Customers and Orders. A customer has many orders; an order belongs to exactly one customer. I'm making an Order Search feature that should allow a user to search for orders based on order or customer information. Pretty straightforward, I think. I've read in other posts that the search controller should use GET, but I think it makes more sense to use POST because of the large number of search params. I'm using Entity Framework to create my models, and that's in a separate class library project and namespace. This article talks about using binding instead of Request.Form to get at the POST data. Would it make decent sense to make a class to hold all the search data that could be materialized by the magic model binding? Otherwise I'd just be poking through the FormCollection to pull out particular values, which might be fine. Where would you recommend making such a class?

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  • Why "Content-Length: 0" in POST requests?

    - by stesch
    A customer sometimes sends POST requests with Content-Length: 0 when submitting a form (10 to over 40 fields). We tested it with different browsers and from different locations but couldn't reproduce the error. The customer is using Internet Explorer 7 and a proxy. We asked them to let their system administrator see into the problem from their side. Running some tests without the proxy, etc.. In the meantime (half a year later and still no answer) I'm curious if somebody else knows of similar problems with a Content-Length: 0 request. Maybe from inside some Windows network with a special proxy for big companies. Is there a known problem with Internet Explorer 7? With a proxy system? The Windows network itself? Google only showed something in the context of NTLM (and such) authentication, but we aren't using this in the web application. Maybe it's in the way the proxy operates in the customer's network with Windows logins? (I'm no Windows expert. Just guessing.) I have no further information about the infrastructure.

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  • .htaccess file on localhost throwing an error when using a Virtual Host config on my Localhost!!

    - by Chris
    I am trying to set-up my localhost development server. I have everything working but when I try to add an .htaccess it throws this error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, [no address given] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. I dont know exactly why this is, this is pretty much the exact same setup as the other developers machine, but when using my .htaccess file I get that error. Here is my .htaccess file (NOTE: They are commented because I left my site with this setup. It only lets me view the index page. Without this .htaccess file, I can navigate.): Options -indexes RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /404 RewriteRule ^battery/([^/]+)$ /browser/product?sku=BATTERY+$1&type=battery RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/product([0-9]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&id=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)$ /browser/product.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3&id=$4 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/$ /browser/index.php [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

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  • Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

    - by Sukotto
    I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

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  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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