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  • Quick MVC2 checkbox question

    - by kevinmajor1
    In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

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  • Can't log in with a valid password using Authlogic and Ruby on Rails?

    - by kbighorse
    We support a bit of an unusual scheme. We don't require a password on User creation, and use password_resets to add a password to the user later, on demand. The problem is, once a password is created, the console indicates the password is valid: user.valid_password? 'test' = true but in my UserSessions controller, @user_session.save returns false using the same password. What am I not seeing? Kimball UPDATE: Providing more details, here is the output when saving the new password: Processing PasswordResetsController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:01:12) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"="Update password", "action"="update", "_method"="put", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "id"="v3iWW5eD9P9frbEQDvxp", "controller"="password_resets", "user"={"password"="johnwayne"}} The applicable SQL is: UPDATE users SET updated_at = '2011-01-31 22:01:12', crypted_password = 'blah', perishable_token = 'blah', password_salt = 'blah', persistence_token = 'blah' WHERE id = 580 I don't see an error per se, @user_session.save just returns false, as if the password didn't match. I skip validating passwords in the User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic do |c| c.validate_password_field = false end Here's the simplified controller code: def create logger.info("SAVED SESSION? #{@user_session.save}") end which outputs: Processing UserSessionsController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:16:59) [POST] Parameters: {"commit"="Login", "user_session"={"remember_me"="0", "password"="johnwayne", "email"="[email protected]"}, "action"="create", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "controller"="user_sessions"} User Columns (2.2ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM users User Load (3.7ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 SAVED SESSION? false CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://localhost:3000/login Lastly, the console indicates that the new password is valid: $ u.valid_password? 'johnwayne' = true Would love to do it all in the console, is there a way to load UserSession controller and call methods directly? Kimball

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  • Looping through an List to select an Element in Selenium

    - by ChrisMcLellan
    I'm attempting to write a Page Class for Links within the Header of the website I'm testing. I have the following link structure below <ul> <li><a href="/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="/AboutUs" title="About Us">About Us</a> </li> <li><a href="/Account" title="Account">Account</a></li> <li><a href="/Account/Orders" title="Orders">Orders</a></li> <li><a href="/AdministrationPortal" title="Administration Portal">Administration Portal</a></li> </ul> What I want to do is store these into a List, then when a user select one of the links, it will take then to the page they should go to. I have started with the following code below List<IWebElement> headerElements = new List<IWebElement>(); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Home"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("About Us"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Account"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Orders"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Administration Portal"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log in / Register"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log off"))); I was thinking for using a for loop to do this, would this be the best way. I'm trying to avoid writting methods like the one below for each link public void SelectCreateNewReferralLink() { var selectAboutUsLink = ( new WebDriverWait(WebDriver, new TimeSpan(50))).Until (ExpectedConditions.ElementExists(By.CssSelector("#main > a:nth-of-type(1)"))); selectCreateNewReferralLink.Click(); } I'm using C#, with WebDriver attempting to write this Any Help would be great Thanks Chris

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  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

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  • Concise C# code for gathering several properties with a non-null value into a collection?

    - by stakx
    A fairly basic problem for a change. Given a class such as this: public class X { public T A; public T B; public T C; ... // (other fields, properties, and methods are not of interest here) } I am looking for a concise way to code a method that will return all A, B, C, ... that are not null in an enumerable collection. (Assume that declaring these fields as an array is not an option.) public IEnumerable<T> GetAllNonNullAs(this X x) { // ? } The obvious implementation of this method would be: public IEnumerable<T> GetAllNonNullAs(this X x) { var resultSet = new List<T>(); if (x.A != null) resultSet.Add(x.A); if (x.B != null) resultSet.Add(x.B); if (x.C != null) resultSet.Add(x.C); ... return resultSet; } What's bothering me here in particular is that the code looks verbose and repetitive, and that I don't know the initial List capacity in advance. It's my hope that there is a more clever way, probably something involving the ?? operator? Any ideas?

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  • Constructor Overloading

    - by Mark Baker
    Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • Java - Thread problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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  • why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

    - by AndrewSmith
    I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

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  • Is it possible to restrict instantiation of an object to only one other (parent) object in VB.NET?

    - by Casey
    VB 2008 .NET 3.5 Suppose we have two classes, Order and OrderItem, that represent some type of online ordering system. OrderItem represents a single line item in an Order. One Order can contain multiple OrderItems, in the form of a List(of OrderItem). Public Class Order Public Property MyOrderItems() as List(of OrderItem) End Property End Class It makes sense that an OrderItem should not exist without an Order. In other words, an OrderItem class should not be able to be instantiated on its own, it should be dependent on an Order class to contain it and instantiate it. However, the OrderItem should be public in scope so that it's properties are accessible to other objects. So, the requirements for OrderItem are: Can not be instantiated as a stand alone object; requires Order to exist. Must be public so that any other object can access it's properties/methods through the Order object. e.g. Order.OrderItem(0).ProductID. OrderItem should be able to be passed to other subs/functions that will operate on it. How can I achieve these goals? Is there a better approach?

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  • noncopyable static const member class in template class

    - by Dukales
    I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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  • How can I implement CRUD operations in a base class for an entity framework app?

    - by hminaya
    I'm working a simple EF/MVC app and I'm trying to implement some Repositories to handle my entities. I've set up a BaseObject Class and a IBaseRepository Interface to handle the most basic operations so I don't have to repeat myself each time: public abstract class BaseObject<T> { public XA.Model.Entities.XAEntities db; public BaseObject() { db = new Entities.XAEntities(); } public BaseObject(Entities.XAEntities cont) { db = cont; } public void Delete(T entity) { db.DeleteObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public void Update(T entity) { db.AcceptAllChanges(); db.SaveChanges(); } } public interface IBaseRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); } But then I find myself having to implement 3 basic methods in every Repository ( Add, GetById & GetAll): public class AgencyRepository : Framework.BaseObject<Agency>, Framework.IBaseRepository<Agency> { public void Add(Agency entity) { db.Companies.AddObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public Agency GetById(int id) { return db.Companies.OfType<Agency>().FirstOrDefault(x => x.Id == id); } public IQueryable<Agency> GetAll() { var agn = from a in db.Companies.OfType<Agency>() select a; return agn; } } How can I get these into my BaseObject Class so I won't run in conflict with DRY.

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • Problems with Json Serialize Dictionary<Enum, Int32>

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, whenever i try to serialize the dictionary i get the exception: System.ArgumentException: Type 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2[[Foo.DictionarySerializationTest+TestEnum, Foo, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null],[System.Int32, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089]]' is not supported for serialization/deserialization of a dictionary, keys must be strings or object My Testcase is: public class DictionarySerializationTest { private enum TestEnum { A, B, C } public void SerializationTest() { Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32> data = new Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A, 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B, 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C, 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Throws } public void SerializationStringTest() { Dictionary<String, Int32> data = new Dictionary<String, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A.ToString(), 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B.ToString(), 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C.ToString(), 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Succeeds } } Of course i could use .ToString() whenever i enter something into the Dictionary but since it's used quite often in performance relevant methods i would prefer using the enum. My only solution is using .ToString() and converting before entering the performance critical regions but that is clumsy and i would have to change my code structure just to be able to serialize the data. Does anyone have an idea how i could serialize the dictionary as <Enum, Int32>? I use the System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer for serialization.

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  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

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  • What are Code Smells? What is the best way to correct them?

    - by Rob Cooper
    OK, so I know what a code smell is, and the Wikipedia Article is pretty clear in its definition: In computer programming, code smell is any symptom in the source code of a computer program that indicates something may be wrong. It generally indicates that the code should be refactored or the overall design should be reexamined. The term appears to have been coined by Kent Beck on WardsWiki. Usage of the term increased after it was featured in Refactoring. Improving the Design of Existing Code. I know it also provides a list of common code smells. But I thought it would be great if we could get clear list of not only what code smells there are, but also how to correct them. Some Rules Now, this is going to be a little subjective in that there are differences to languages, programming style etc. So lets lay down some ground rules: ** ONE SMELL PER ANSWER PLEASE! & ADVISE ON HOW TO CORRECT! ** See this answer for a good display of what this thread should be! DO NOT downmod if a smell doesn't apply to your language or development methodology We are all different. DO NOT just quickly smash in as many as you can think of Think about the smells you want to list and get a good idea down on how to work around. DO downmod answers that just look rushed For example "dupe code - remove dupe code". Let's makes it useful (e.g. Duplicate Code - Refactor into separate methods or even classes, use these links for help on these common.. etc. etc.). DO upmod answers that you would add yourself If you wish to expand, then answer with your thoughts linking to the original answer (if it's detailed) or comment if its a minor point. DO format your answers! Help others to be able to read it, use code snippets, headings and markup to make key points stand out!

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  • Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

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  • Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

    - by Anubis
    Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

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  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

    - by Al C
    This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

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  • Visual Studio breaks, and steps, but sometimes steps out

    - by James Wilkins
    Something very odd is going on. It's been going on for some time, but I've just ignored it up to now. I have both a Silverlight and WCF service in my solution, which shares .CS file between them (one project has a link to the file, which exists in the other project). While debugging the Silverlight app, pressing the F10 key steps through code as normal, and when I get to a method call which exists in the shared file (between the projects), and Press F11, it simply skips the method instead of stepping into it (and yes, the "Just My Code" option is not checked). If I put a breakpoint in the method I'm trying to get into, it works fine (as in the debugger will break on the line), but as soon as I step (F10) it exits the method (and with F11 [step into] also). Ok, on first thought, you might think it's to do with the link, but no, it isn't. I tried removing the link and using a copy instead, but the same thing happens. And no, it's not the debug symbols, I looked into that already. The method I'm trying to step through is static, and is in a non-static partial class, in a file shared by both projects. My guess: The same types and static methods exist in the WCF and Silverlight ... would the debugger get confused?

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