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  • Converting Python Script to Vb.NET - Involves Post and Input XML String

    - by Jason Shoulders
    I'm trying to convert a Python Script to Vb.Net. The Python Script appears to accept some XML input data and then takes it to a web URL and does a "POST". I tried some VB.NET code to do it, but I think my approach is off because I got an error back "BadXmlDataErr" plus I can't really format my input XML very well - I'm only doing string and value. The input XML is richer than that. Here is an example of what the XML input data looks like in the Python script: <obj is="MyOrg:realCommand_v1/" > <int name="priority" val="1" /> <real name="value" val="9.5" /> <str name="user" val="MyUserName" /> <reltime name="overrideTime" val="PT60S"/> </obj> Here's the Vb.net code I attempted to convert that: Dim reqparm As New Specialized.NameValueCollection reqparm.Add("priority", "1") reqparm.Add("value", "9.5") reqparm.Add("user", "MyUserName") reqparm.Add("overrideTime", "PT60S") Using client As New Net.WebClient Dim sTheUrl As String = "[My URL]" Dim responsebytes = client.UploadValues(sTheUrl, "POST", MyReqparm) Dim responsebody = (New System.Text.UTF8Encoding).GetString(responsebytes) End Using I feel like I should be doing something else. Can anyone point me to the right direction?

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  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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  • POST XML to server, receive PDF

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Similar to this question, we are developing a Web app where the client clicks a button to receive a PDF from the server. Right now we're using the .ajax() method with jQuery to POST the data the backend needs to generate the PDF (we're sending XML) when the button is pressed, and then the backend is generating the PDF entirely in-memory and sending it back as application/pdf in the HTTP response. One answer to that question requires the server-side save the PDF to disk so it can give back a URL for the client to GET. But I don't want the backend caching content at all. The other answer suggests the use of a jQuery plugin, but when you look at its code, it's actually generating a form element and then submitting the form. That method will not work for us since we are sending XML data in the body of the HTTP request. Is there a way to have the browser open up the PDF without caching the PDF server-side, and without requiring us to throw out our send-data-to-the-server-using-XML solution? (I'd like the browser to behave like it does when a form element is submitted -- a POST is made and then the browser looks at the Content-type header to determine what to do next, like load the PDF in the browser window, a la Safari)

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  • Why Android for enterprise applications?

    - by mcabral
    Recently one of our clients is considering the posibility of picking up an old WinMobile 5.0 project. Several features are to be added to the point it will be a major version update. The client is worried about the mobile market, and thinks there's a chance all the effort put in this development will have to be thrown away in a couple of year due to the dinamics of the mobile market and the deprecation of mobile devices. So, the client is not sure whether he should continue with Windows Mobile (changing from WM 5.0 to 6.X) or starting from scratch with another technology. From our part we have been studing the mobile market, looking for clues for which will be the winning horse. The safe move seems to continue with WM just because re writing an entire application from scratch involves more risks and delays. On the other hand WM seems to be losing market and the ghost of an exit on their part is growing stronger everyday. But what can be say about Android? Everyone is talking about it and is growing at full speed but what avantagies will it bring to the table? Why should we start a fresh applicaction on this technology? So the question remains the same.. is Andriod mature enough for an enterprise application? Will you recomend it to one of your clients? Will you port/rewrite a WM application to Andriod? What's the trade-off? EDIT: Addressing commentaries. The app is entirely built with C# and Compact Framework. The app is for logistics/management.

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  • Why does my App.Config codebase not help .NET locate my assembly?

    - by pkolodziej
    I have the following client application and its corresponding config file: namespace Chapter9 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.ExecuteAssembly("AssemblyPrivate.exe"); } } } <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="file://C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\AssemblyPrivate\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> The AssemblyPrivate.exe does not have a public key, nor is it located in the GAC. As far as I know, the runtime should parse the app.config file before looking for an assembly in the client app directory. The unhandled exception (wrapped for readability) is: Unhandled Exception: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\Chapter9\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. Why it is not working? I need to use dynamic binding (not static). Kind Regards, PK

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  • How long do you keep session cookies around for?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm implementing a web app, which uses sessions. I'm using GWT and app engine as my client/server, but I don't think they're doing anything really different than I would do with PHP and apache etc. When a user logs into my web app, I am using HttpSession to start a session for them. I get the session id like this: // From my login servlet: getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false).getId(); I return the sessionId back to the client, and they store it in a cookie. The tutorial I'm using sets this cookie to 'expire' in two weeks: Cookie.write("sid", theSessionId, 1000 * 60 * 60 * 24 * 14); // two weeks Here's where I'm confused: if the cookie expires in two weeks, then my user will go along using the webapp happily, only to one day browse to my site and be shown a login screen. What are my options? Can I just set no expiration time for this cookie? That way the user would have to explicitly log out, otherwise they could just use the app forever without having to log back in? Or is there a better way to do this? I can't remember sites like Twitter having ever asked me to log back in again. I seem to be permanently logged in. Do they just set no expiration? The webapp isn't protecting any sort of highly sensitive data, so I don't mind leaving a cookie that doesn't expire, but it seems like there must be a better way? This is the tutorial I'm referencing: http://code.google.com/p/google-web-toolkit-incubator/wiki/LoginSecurityFAQ Thanks

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

    - by andy-score
    I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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  • [WEB] Local/Dev/Live deployment - best workflow

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, situation We our little company with 3 people, each has a localhost webserver and most projects (previous and current) are on one PC network shared disk. We have virtual server, where some of our clients' sites and our site. Our standard workflow is: Coder PC ? Programmer localhost ? dev domain (client.company.com) ? live version (client.com) It often happens, that there are two or three guys working on same projects at the same time - one is on dev version, two are on localhost. When finished, we try to synchronize the files on dev version and ideally not to mess (thanks ILMV:]) up any files, which *knock knock * doesn't happen often. And then one of us deploys dev version on live webserver. question we are looking for a way to simplify this workflow while updating websites - ideally some sort of diff uploader or VCS probably (Git/SVN/VCS/...), but we are not completely sure where to begin or what way would be ideal, therefore I ask you, fellow stackoverflowers for your experience with website / application deployment and recommended workflow. We probably will also need to use Mac in process, so if it won't be a problem, that would be even better. Thank you

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  • Is there something like a Filestorage class to store files in?

    - by nebukadnezzar
    Is there something like a class that might be used to store Files and directories in, just like the way Zip files might be used? Since I haven't found any "real" class to write Zip files (real class as in real class), It would be nice to be able to store Files and Directories in a container-like file. A perfect API would probably look like this: int main() { ContainerFile cntf("myContainer.cnt", ContainerFile::CREATE); cntf.addFile("data/some-interesting-stuff.txt"); cntf.addDirectory("data/foo/"); cntf.addDirectory("data/bar/", ContainerFile::RECURSIVE); cntf.close(); } ... I hope you get the Idea. Important Requirements are: The Library must be crossplatform anything *GPL is not acceptable in this case (MIT and BSD License are) I already played with the thought of creating an Implentation based on SQLite (and its ability to store binary blobs). Unfortunately, it seems impossible to store Directory structures in a SQLite Database, which makes it pretty much useless in this case. Is it useless to hope for such a class library?

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  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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  • Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

    - by Sergey
    My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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  • How should I name a native DLL distributed in both 32-bit and 64-bit form?

    - by Spike0xff
    I have a commercial product that's a DLL (native 32-bit code), and now it's time to build a 64-bit version of it. So when installing on 64-bit Windows, the 32-bit version goes into Windows\SysWOW64, and the 64-bit version goes into... Windows\System32! (I'm biting my tongue here...) Or the DLL(s) can be installed alongside the client application. What should I name the 64-bit DLL? Same name as 32-bit: Two files that do the same thing, have the same name, but are totally non-interchangeable. Isn't that a recipe for confusion and support problems? Different names (e.g. product.dll and product64.dll): Now client applications have to know whether they are running 32-bit or 64-bit in order to reference my DLL, and there are languages where that isn't known until run-time - .NET being just one example. And now all the statically compiled clients have to conditionalize the import declarations: IF target=WIN64 THEN import Blah from "product64.dll" ELSE import Blah from "product.dll" ENDIF The product contains massive amounts of C code, and a large chunk of C++ - porting it to C# is not an option. Advice? Suggestions?

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  • How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

    - by Adrian Serafin
    Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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  • SoapClient throws Wrong version

    - by sivansethu
    When i sending below request, i am getting 'Wrong Version" exception. <OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ xmlns="http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" TimeStamp="2001-12-17T09:30:47.0Z" Version="4" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <Messages> <Message HotelCode="123" HotelName="Test Hotel" ChainCode="321" ReasonForRequest="Reservation Retrieval" RequestCode="Optional" ChainName="Test Chain" MessageType="All" StartSeqNmbr="1" EndSeqNmbr="10" /> </Messages> </OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ> above request is converted into zend code $client = new zend_soap_client(null, array( 'location' => 'http://url...', 'Uri' =>"http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" ) ); $request = array( array('Messages'=> array ('Message' => array ( 'HotelCode' => '123', 'HotelName' => 'Test Hotel', 'ChainCode' => '321', 'ReasonForRequest' => 'Reservation Retrieval', 'RequestCode' => 'Optional', 'ChainName' => 'Test Chain', 'MessageType' => 'All', 'StartSeqNmbr' => '1', 'EndSeqNmbr' => '10' ) ) ) ); $result = $client->OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ ($request); Above line throws exception 'Wrong Version'. Anyone help me how to solve this

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  • What if you used the wrong language?

    - by HS
    A reply to another question made me remember a project from some years ago when it turned out that Java was not the right tool to use. I typically only learn a new language when I have a problem that it solves better than the ones I already know. [...] Then I write whatever program I wanted to learn that language for in the first place. [...] By the time I've gotten my target program written, I've usually got a decent handle on the language, not to mention any other features it has, and I've got other ideas to use it for. I did just that back then with Java, because the client thought it to be the right language to use (platform independent) and initial evaluation confirmed that. However, much later in the project there were some issue (can't really remember all the details by now). So, the project that started as a nice learning experience turned into a nightmare toward the end. I was at the brink of switching over to my trusted C++ and doing a complete rewrite. The client was not so much of a problem to convince back then, but my supervisor was strongly opposed because of all the work that already went into the Java version. In hindsight, he was right and the project was complete more or less with the intended features kind of working, but it was the project that I am least proud of by now. Long story short: what do you think, when is it too much and the switch to another technology is worthwhile? I personally would estimate the point of no return to be around 50% of the planned effort, but really want to know, if anyone has real experience with such a switch. And to answer the inevitable question: I do not really care, if the technology switched to is proven or another new thing. The latter would basically need more initial scrutiny based on the past experiences in the problematic project.

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • Android Maps: Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY

    - by AP257
    I'm trying to use Android Maps, following the instructions in Hello MapView. I've added <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> in the Manifest, and I'm building against the 'Google APIs' target, which claims to be API version 7. So I don't think I'm doing anything obviously wrong, but the project refuses to build with this error: [2010-12-22 13:34:32 - FMS]Installing FMS.apk... [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Please check logcat output for more details. [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Launch canceled! logcat is telling me the following (not very enlightening): D/PackageParser( 55): Scanning package: /data/app/vmdl67147.tmp I/PackageParser( 55): com.android.fms: compat added android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE E/PackageManager( 55): Package com.android.fms requires unavailable shared library com.google.android.maps; failing! W/PackageManager( 55): Package couldn't be installed in /data/app/com.android.fms.apk D/AndroidRuntime( 206): Shutting down VM It is possible I haven't set up the Maps API key correctly - when I got it using keytools, I didn't specify an alias_name, though this didn't seem to cause an error. Can anyone help?

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

    - by OUHSD Webmaster
    Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • Load SQL query result data into cache in advance

    - by Marc
    I have the following situation: .net 3.5 WinForm client app accessing SQL Server 2008 Some queries returning relatively big amount of data are used quite often by a form Users are using local SQL Express and restarting their machines at least daily Other users are working remotely over slow network connections The problem is that after a restart, the first time users open this form the queries are extremely slow and take more or less 15s on a fast machine to execute. Afterwards the same queries take only 3s. Of course this comes from the fact that no data is cached and must be loaded from disk first. My question: Would it be possible to force the loading of the required data in advance into SQL Server cache? Note My first idea was to execute the queries in a background worker when the application starts, so that when the user starts the form the queries will already be cached and execute fast directly. I however don't want to load the result of the queries over to the client as some users are working remotely or have otherwise slow networks. So I thought just executing the queries from a stored procedure and putting the results into temporary tables so that nothing would be returned. Turned out that some of the result sets are using dynamic columns so I couldn't create the corresponding temp tables and thus this isn't a solution. Do you happen to have any other idea?

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  • How to implement an interface class using the non-virtual interface idiom in C++?

    - by andreas buykx
    Hi all, In C++ an interface can be implemented by a class with all its methods pure virtual. Such a class could be part of a library to describe what methods an object should implement to be able to work with other classes in the library: class Lib::IFoo { public: virtual void method() = 0; }; : class Lib::Bar { public: void stuff( Lib::IFoo & ); }; Now I want to to use class Lib::Bar, so I have to implement the IFoo interface. For my purposes I need a whole of related classes so I would like to work with a base class that guarantees common behavior using the NVI idiom: class FooBase : public IFoo // implement interface IFoo { public: void method(); // calls methodImpl; private: virtual void methodImpl(); }; The non-virtual interface (NVI) idiom ought to deny derived classes the possibility of overriding the common behavior implemented in FooBase::method(), but since IFoo made it virtual it seems that all derived classes have the opportunity to override the FooBase::method(). If I want to use the NVI idiom, what are my options other than the pImpl idiom already suggested (thanks space-c0wb0y).

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