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  • Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

    - by Aidos
    Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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  • overwrite parameters passed by querystring

    - by opensas
    I have the following problem I have a web framework built with classic asp that saves the page state in hidden textboxes, and then issues a submit to itself. Before submitting, we have a javascript functions that saves the action in a hidden "action" input, and then performs the submit. The page loads the state from those hidden texts, reads the action issued, reads extra parameters, like the id of the record to edit, and then builds the page accordingly. I'd like to make a url link to automatically start the page with "edit" action on a "x" id. So I was thinking about building the following url, for example http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 the problem is that when the page auto-submits, que url string keeps the parameters. I'd like to achieve the following: when the user clicks on http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 my page should receive the posted values action=edit and id=23 but the url should be just http://myapp/user and both parameters should be kept in the hidden texts... (I wonder if I make myself clear...) thanks a lot saludos sas ps: I have a couple of ideas about how to solve it, but I'll post them as answers...

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • TFS2010 API - Which server event fires when checkin notes are changed?

    - by user3708981
    I've written a TFS plugin that impliments the ISubscribe interface, and creates an external ticket base off of the contents of a check-in note. What I would like to do, if when I go back through older TFS check-ins in VS and edit a check-in note, the plugin would process that event and create an external ticket retroactively. What event / SubscribedType do I need to subscribe to in order for ProcessEvents to fire? My stubbed out code - using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Client; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Common; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client; // From C:\Program Files\Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2010\Tools\ using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Framework.Server; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server; using Changeset = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.Changeset; public class EmbeddedWorkItemEventHandler : ISubscriber { const string EVENT_NAME = "TicketEvent"; const string APP_LOG = "Application"; public Type[] SubscribedTypes() { return new Type[1] { typeof(CheckinNotification) }; // What else do I need here? } public string Name { get { return EVENT_NAME; } } public SubscriberPriority Priority { get { return SubscriberPriority.Normal; } } public EventNotificationStatus ProcessEvent(TeamFoundationRequestContext requestContext, NotificationType notificationType, object notificationEventArgs, out int statusCode, out string statusMessage, out ExceptionPropertyCollection properties) { // Create the event source, if it doesn't exist if (!System.Diagnostics.EventLog.SourceExists(EVENT_NAME)) { System.Diagnostics.EventLog.CreateEventSource(EVENT_NAME, APP_LOG); } statusCode = 0; properties = null; statusMessage = String.Empty; string ErrorLine = ""; try { // Here we'll validate the Ticket name if (notificationType == NotificationType.DecisionPoint && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { //Check-in blocking logic here. } else if (notificationType == NotificationType.Notification && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { // Tickets on check-in here. } } Catch { // Error checking } return EventNotificationStatus.ActionPermitted; }

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  • Can I use Eclipse JDT to create new 'working copies' of source files in memory only?

    - by RYates
    I'm using Eclipse JDT to build a Java refactoring platform, for exploring different refactorings in memory before choosing one and saving it. I can create collections of working copies of the source files, edit them in memory, and commit the changes to disk using the JDT framework. However, I also want to generate new 'working copy' source files in memory as part of refactorings, and only create the corresponding real source file if I commit the working copy. I have seen various hints that this is possible, e.g. http://www.jarvana.com/jarvana/view/org/eclipse/jdt/doc/isv/3.3.0-v20070613/isv-3.3.0-v20070613.jar!/guide/jdt%5Fapi%5Fmanip.htm says "Note that the compilation unit does not need to exist in the Java model in order for a working copy to be created". So far I have only been able to create a new real file, i.e. ICompilationUnit newICompilationUnit = myPackage.createCompilationUnit(newName, "package piffle; public class Baz{private int i=0;}", false, null); This is not what I want. Does anyone know how to create a new 'working copy' source file, that does not appear in my file system until I commit it? Or any other mechanism to achieve the same thing?

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  • What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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  • Developing a 2D Game for Windows Phone 8

    - by Vaccano
    I would like to develop a 2D game for Windows Phone 8. I am a professional Application Developer by day and this seems like a fun hobby. But I have been disapointed trying to get going. It seems that 2D games (far and away the majority of games) do not have any real support. It seems the Windows Phone makers did not include support for Direct2D. So unless you are planning to make a fully 3D app, you are out of luck. So, if you just wanted to make a nice 2D app, these are your choices: Write your game using Xaml and C# (Performance Issues?) Write your game using Direct3D and but only draw on one plane. Use the DirectX Took Kit found on codeplex. It allows you to use the dying XNA framework's API for development. Number 3 seems the best for my game. But I hate to waste my time learning the XNA api when Microsoft has clearly stated that it is not going to be supported going forward. Number 2 would work, but 3D development is really hard. I would rather not have to do all that to get the 2D effect. (Assuming Direct2D is easier. I have yet to look into that.) Number 1 seems the easiest, but I worry that my app will not run well if it is based off of xaml rendering rather than DirectX. What is the suggested method from Microsoft? And who decided that 2D games were going to get shortchanged?

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  • ResXResourceWriter Chops off end of file

    - by Aaron Salazar
    I'm trying to create a .resx file from a dictionary of strings. Luckily the .Net framework has a ResXResourceWriter class. The only problem is that when I create the file using the code below, the last few lines of my generated resx file are missing. I checked my Dictionary and it contains all the string pairs that I expect. public void ExportToResx(Dictionary<string,string> resourceDictionary, string fileName) { var writer = new ResXResourceWriter(fileName); foreach (var resource in resourceDictionary) { writer.AddResource(resource.Key, resource.Value); } } Unfortunately, it is a little difficult to show the entire resx file since it has 2198 (should have 2222) lines but here is the last little bit: ... 2195 <data name="LangAlign_ReportIssue" xml:space="preserve"> 2196 <value>Report an Issue</value> 2197 </data> 2198 <data name="LangAlign_Return BTW, notice that the file cuts off right at the end of that "n" in "LangAlign_Return". The string should read "LangAlign_ReturnToWorkspace". The file should also end at line 2222.

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  • java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager

    - by alex2k8
    I have an activity that starts AsyncTask and shows progress dialog for the duration of operation. The activity is declared NOT be recreated by rotation or keyboard slide. <activity android:name=".MyActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation" > <intent-filter> </intent-filter> </activity> Once task completed, I dissmiss dialog, but on some phones (framework: 1.5, 1.6) such error is thrown: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.findViewLocked(WindowManagerImpl.java:356) at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.removeView(WindowManagerImpl.java:201) at android.view.Window$LocalWindowManager.removeView(Window.java:400) at android.app.Dialog.dismissDialog(Dialog.java:268) at android.app.Dialog.access$000(Dialog.java:69) at android.app.Dialog$1.run(Dialog.java:103) at android.app.Dialog.dismiss(Dialog.java:252) at xxx.onPostExecute(xxx$1.java:xxx) My code is: final Dialog dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(context) .setTitle("Processing...") .setCancelable(true) .create(); final AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult> task = new AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult>() { @Override protected MyResult doInBackground(MyParams... params) { // Long operation goes here } @Override protected void onPostExecute(MyResult result) { dialog.dismiss(); onCompletion(result); } }; task.execute(...); dialog.setOnCancelListener(new OnCancelListener() { @Override public void onCancel(DialogInterface arg0) { task.cancel(false); } }); dialog.show(); From what I have read (http://bend-ing.blogspot.com/2008/11/properly-handle-progress-dialog-in.html) and seen in Android sources, it looks like the only possible situation to get that exception is when activity was destroyed. But as I have mentioned, I forbid activity recreation for basic events. So any suggestions are very appreciated.

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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  • I need an IDE for typo3 core development in php

    - by Flugan
    Php in itself is difficult for IDEs because of the dynamic nature of the language. My current development environment is mostly netbeans against a local svn copy of the codebase setup in a local development webserver. The code is full text indexed by vistas search engine for almost instant searches. I do a lot of development directly against the main development server using a combination of tools. Putty to interact with the server and deploy by updating an svn checkout on the development server. Tortoise SVN locally to have a fairly rich SVN experience. Netbeans obviously have SVN integration. Most of the changes on the remote server is commited using the putty session. WinSCP to interact with the development server with norton commander like interface as well as the good putty integration. Finally my text editor for remote editing is notepad++ out of habit and because of some nice features and good price. What I'm really missing is good php editing. Because of the way typo3 works almost all objects are instanciated through make instance abstraction that either returns the base class or the customized class if the framework has been extended. I'm not looking for a magic editing package and would like to find an editor which can use annotations to specify the type of commonly used variables.

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  • MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

    - by lcf
    Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

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  • Should I be using Expression Blend to design really dynamic UIs?

    - by Robert Rossney
    My company's product is, at its core, a framework for developing metadata-driven UIs. I don't know how to characterize it less succinctly than that, and hope I won't need to for purposes of this question, but we'll see. I've been trying to come up to speed on WPF, and have been building UI prototypes here and there, and recently I decided to see if I could use Expression Blend to help with the design of these UIs. And I'm pretty mystified at this point. It appears to me as though Expresssion Blend is designed with the expectation that you already know all of the objects that are going to be present in the UI at design time. But our program generates these object dynamically at runtime. For instance, a data row might be presented in a horizontal StackPanel containing alternating TextBlocks (for captions) and TextBoxes (for data fields). The number of these objects depends on metadata about the number of columns in the data row. I can, pretty readily, write code that runs through a metadata record and populates a StackPanel dynamically, setting up the binding of all of the controls to properties in either the data or metadata. (A TextBox's Width might be bound to metadata, while its Text is bound to data.) But I can't even begin to figure out how to do something like this in Expression Blend. I can manually create all these controls, so that I have a set of controls that I can apply styles to and work out the visual design of the app, but it's really a pain to do this. I can write code that goes through my data model and emits XAML for all these controls, I suppose, and then copy and paste it. But I'm going to feel really stupid if it turns out there a way to do this sort of thing in Expression Blend and I've dropped back and punted because I'm too dim to figure out the right way to think of it. Is this enough information for someone to try formulating an answer?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't work for last row

    - by GendoIkari
    I've come across a very similar question here: Inserting row to end of table with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't animate., though no answers have been given. His code was also a little different than mine. I have an extremely simple example, built from the Navigation application template. NSMutableArray *items; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; items = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemAdd target:self action:@selector(addItem)] autorelease]; } - (void)addItem{ [items insertObject:@"new" atIndex:0]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0]] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return items.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [items objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { [items removeObjectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } } The problem is, when I either insert or delete the very last row in the table, the animation doesn't work at all; the row just appears or disappears instantly. This only happens with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom, but that's the animation that makes the most sense for creating or deleting table cells in this way. Is this a bug in Apple's framework? Or does it do this on purpose? Would it make sense to add an extra cell to the count, and then setup this cell so that it looks like it's not there at all, just to get around this behavior?

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  • XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NRE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm.... UPDATE 2: This does cause an NRE: protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.End(); // boned here //screenManager.Draw(gameTime); base.Draw(gameTime); }

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  • What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

    - by MainMa
    Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

    - by samsam
    Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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  • jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

    - by Wipqozn
    I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Error while reading custom configuration file(app.config)

    - by Newbie
    I am making a custom configuration in my winform application. (It will represent a country-corrency list) First the CountryList class namespace UtilityMethods { public class CountryList : ConfigurationSection { public CountryList() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } [ConfigurationProperty("CountryCurrency", IsRequired = true)] public Hashtable CountryCurrencies { get { return CountryCurrency.GetCountryCurrency(); } } } } The GetCountryCurrency() method is defined in CountryCurrency class as under namespace UtilityMethods { public static class CountryCurrency { public static Hashtable GetCountryCurrency() { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); ht.Add("India", "Rupees"); ht.Add("USA", "Dollar"); return ht; } } } The app.config file looks like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name ="CountryList1" type ="UtilityMethods.CountryList,CountryList,Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral"/> </configSections> <appSettings /> </configuration> And I am calling this from a button_click's event as try { CountryList cList = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("CountryList") as CountryList; Hashtable ht = cList.CountryCurrencies; } catch (Exception ex) { string h = ex.Message; } Upon running the application and clicking on the button I am getting this error Could not load type 'UtilityMethods.CountryList' from assembly 'System.Configuration, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' Please help (dotnet framework : 3.5 Language: C#)

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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