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  • Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • Macro to improve callback registration readability

    - by Warren Seine
    I'm trying to write a macro to make a specific usage of callbacks in C++ easier. All my callbacks are member functions and will take this as first argument and a second one whose type inherits from a common base class. The usual way to go is: register_callback(boost::bind(&my_class::member_function, this, _1)); I'd love to write: register_callback(HANDLER(member_function)); Note that it will always be used within the same class. Even if typeof is considered as a bad practice, it sounds like a pretty solution to the lack of __class__ macro to get the current class name. The following code works: typedef typeof(*this) CLASS; boost::bind(& CLASS :: member_function, this, _1)(my_argument); but I can't use this code in a macro which will be given as argument to register_callback. I've tried: #define HANDLER(FUN) \ boost::bind(& typeof(*this) :: member_function, this, _1); which doesn't work for reasons I don't understand. Quoting GCC documentation: A typeof-construct can be used anywhere a typedef name could be used. My compiler is GCC 4.4, and even if I'd prefer something standard, GCC-specific solutions are accepted.

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  • how to set a fixed color bar for pcolor in python matplotlib?

    - by user248237
    I am using pcolor with a custom color map to plot a matrix of values. I set my color map so that low values are white and high values are red, as shown below. All of my matrices have values between 0 and 20 (inclusive) and I'd like 20 to always be pure red and 0 to always be pure white, even if the matrix has values that don't span the entire range. For example, if my matrix only has values between 2 and 7, I don't want it to plot 2 as white and 7 as red, but rather color it as if the range is still 0 to 20. How can I do this? I tried using the "ticks=" option of colorbar but it did not work. Here is my current code (assume "my_matrix" contains the values to be plotted): cdict = {'red': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 1.0, 1.0)), 'green': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 0.0, 0.0)), 'blue': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 0.0, 0.0))} my_cmap = matplotlib.colors.LinearSegmentedColormap('my_colormap', cdict, 256) colored_matrix = plt.pcolor(my_matrix, cmap=my_cmap) plt.colorbar(colored_matrix, ticks=[0, 5, 10, 15, 20]) any idea how I can fix this to get the right result? thanks very much.

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  • Using a randomly generated token for flood control.

    - by James P
    Basic setup of my site is: user enters a message on the homepage, hits enter and the message is sent though a AJAX request to a file called like.php where it echo's a link that gets sent back to the user. I have made the input disable when the user presses enter, but there's nothing stopping the user from just constantly flooding like.php with POST request and filling up my database. Someone here on SO told me to use a token system but didn't mention how. I've seen this being done before and from what I know it is effective. The only problem I have is how will like.php know it's a valid token? My code is this at the moment: $token = md5(rand(0, 9999) * 1000000); and the markup: <input type="hidden" name="token" value="<?php echo $token ?>" /> Which will send the token to like.php through POST. But how will like.php know that this is a valid token? Should I instead token something that's linked to the user? Like their IP address? Or perhaps token the current minute and check that it's the same minute in like.php... Any help on this amtter would be greatly appreciated, thanks. :)

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  • How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

    - by Vivek
    lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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  • Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

    - by Anton
    Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

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  • Moving UIScrollView in App

    - by jsetting32
    Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

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  • Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

    - by Robin Fisher
    Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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  • Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

    - by dantastic
    I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

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  • How to find an embedded platform?

    - by gmagana
    I am new to the locating hardware side of embedded programming and so after being completely overwhelmed with all the choices out there (pc104, custom boards, a zillion option for each board, volume discounts, devel kits, ahhh!!) I am asking here for some direction. Basically, I must find a new motherboard and (most likely) re-implement the program logic. Rewriting this in C/C++/Java/C#/Pascal/BASIC is not a problem for me. so my real problem is finding the hardware. This motherboard will have several other devices attached to it. Here is a summary of what I need to do: Required: 2 RS232 serial ports (one used all the time for primary UI, the second one not continuous) 1 modem (9600+ baud ok) [Modem will be in simultaneous use with only one of the serial port devices, so interrupt sharing with one serial port is OK, but not both] Minimum permanent/long term storage: Whatever O/S requires + 1 MB (executable) + 512 KB (Data files) RAM: Minimal, whatever the O/S requires plus maybe 1MB for executable. Nice to have: USB port(s) Ethernet network port Wireless network Implementation languages (any O/S I will adapt to): First choice Java/C# (Mono ok) Second choice is C/Pascal Third is BASIC Ok, given all this, I am having a lot of trouble finding hardware that will support this that is low in cost. Every manufacturer site I visit has a lot of options, and it's difficult to see if their offering will even satisfy my must-have requirements (for example they sometimes list 3 "serial ports", but it appears that only one of the three is RS232, for example, and don't mention what the other two are). The #1 constraint is cost, #2 is size. Can anyone help me with this? This little task has left me thinking I should have gone for EE and not CS :-). EDIT: A bit of background: This is a system currently in production, but the original programmer passed away, and the current hardware manufacturer cannot find hardware to run the (currently) DOS system, so I need to reimplement this in a modern platform. I can only change the programming and the motherboard hardware.

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  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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  • Arduino variable going blank after the first pass

    - by user541597
    I have an Arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y) { int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6") { if (hour > 17) { hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 18) { //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12") { if (hour > 11) { hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12) { hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24") { hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } The sketch starts for example at 1:00am. timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet is equal to the system time. My loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime) { timet = convert(timet) } Whenever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I get the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert, however every time after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop. I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor. This works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • Using application roles with DataReader

    - by Shahar
    I have an application that should use an application role from the database. I'm trying to make this work with queries that are actually run using Subsonic (2). To do this, I created my own DataProvider, which inherits from Subsonic's SqlDataProvider. It overrides the CreateConnection function, and calls sp_appsetrole to set the application role after the connection is created. This part works fine, and I'm able to get data using the application role. The problem comes when I try to unset the application role. I couldn't find any place in the code where my provider is called after the query is done, so I tried to add my own, by changing SubSonic code. The problem is that Subsonic uses a data reader. It loads data from the data reader, and then closes it. If I unset the application role before the data reader is closed, I get an error saying: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. If I unset the application role after the data reader is closed, I get an error saying ExecuteNonQuery requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is closed. I can't seem to find a way to close the data reader without closing the connection.

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  • Multiple websites, Single sign-on design

    - by Yannis
    Hi all, I have a question. A client I have been doing some work recently has a range of websites with different login mechanisms. He is looking to slowly migrate to a single sign-on mechanism for his websites (all written in asp.net mvc). I am looking at my options here, so here is a list of requirements: 1) It has to be secure (duh) 2) It needs to support extra user properties over and above the usual name, address stuff (such as money or credits for a user) 3) It has to provide a centralized user management web console for his convenience (I understand that this will be a small project on top of whatever design solution I choose to go for) 4) It has to integrate with the existing websites without re-engineering the whole product (I understand that this depends on the current product implementation). 5) It has to deal with emailing the user when he registers (in order for him to activate his account) 6) It has to deal with activating the user when he clicks the activate me link in the email (I understand that 5 and 6 require some form of email templating system to support different emails per application) I was thinking of creating a library working together with forms authentication that exposes whatever methods are required (e.g. login, logout, activate, etc. and a small restful service to implement activation from email, registration processing etc. Taking into account that loads of things have been left out to make this question brief and to the point, does this sound like a good design? But this looks like a very common problem so arent there any existing projects that I could use? Thanks for reading.

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  • Using maven to distribute a swing application that can have each dependency individually tracked

    - by tms
    I'm moving my project to Maven and eventually OSGi. I currently distribute the project is a large Zip file with all the dependencies. Although my projects code is only 20% of the total package I have to redistribute all the dependency. With smaller independent modules this may be even less. Looking here on stack overflow it seems that to keep my current plan the maven-assembly-plugin should do the trick. I was considering having a base installer that would look at a XML manifest, then collect all the libraries that needed to be updated. This would mean that libraries that change occasionally would be downloaded less often. This also makes since for something like OSGi plugins (which could have independent release schedules). In essence I want my software to look and manage individual libraries, and download on demand (based on the manifest). I was wondering if there is a "maven way" of generating this Manifest and publishing all the libraries to a website? I believe the deploy life-cycle would do the second step. As an alternative, is there a OpenSource Java library that does this type of deployment? I don't want to embed Maven or something larger with the distributed code. The application is not for coders, the simpler the better, and the smaller the installer the better.

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  • Work around for MessageNotReadableException in Java

    - by Hari
    Hi, I am building a small api around the JMS API for a project of mine. Essentially, we are building code that will handle the connection logic, and will simplify publishing messages by providing a method like Client.send(String message). One of the ideas being discussed right now is that we provide a means for the users to attach interceptors to this client. We will apply the interceptors after preparing the JMS message and before publishing it. For example, if we want to timestamp a message and wrote an interceptor for that, then this is how we would apply that ...some code ... Message message = session.createMessage() ..do all the current processing on the message and set the body for(interceptor:listOfInterceptors){ interceptor.apply(message) } One of the intrerceptors we though of was to compress the message body. But when we try to read the body of the message in the interceptor, we are getting a MessageNotReadableException. In the past, I normally compressed the content before setting it as the body of the message - so never had to worry about this exception. Is there any way of getting around this exception?

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  • Cocoa framework development: sharing between projects

    - by e.James
    I am currently developing a handful of similar Cocoa desktop apps. In an effort to share code between them, I have identified a set of core classes and functions that can be common across all of these applications. I would like to bundle this common code into a framework which all of my current applications (and any future ones) can link against. Now, here's the hard part: I'm going to be developing this framework as I go, so I need each of my desktop apps to have a reference to it, but I want to be able to edit the framework source code from within each of the app projects and have the framework automatically rebuilt as required. For example, let's say I have the Xcode project for DesktopAppNumberOne open, and I decide that one of my framework classes needs to be changed. I would like to: Open and edit the source file for that framework class without having to open the framework project in Xcode. Hit "build" on DesktopAppNumberOne, and see the framework rebuilt first (because one of its sources has changed), then see parts of DesktopAppNumberOne rebuilt (because one of the frameworks it links against has changed). I can see how to do this with only one app and one framework, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it with multiple apps that share a single framework. Has anyone had success with this approach? Am I perhaps going about this the wrong way? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to create a python iterator over pre-defined mutable data?

    - by Wilduck
    I might be doing this wrong, if I am, let me know, but I'm curious if the following is possible: I have a class that holds a number of dictionaries, each of which pairs names to a different set of objects of a given class. For example: items = {"ball" : ItemInstance1, "sword" : ItemInstance2} people = {"Jerry" : PersonInstance1, "Bob" : PersonInstance2, "Jill" : PersonInstance3} My class would then hold the current items and people that are availible, and these would be subject to change as the state changes: Class State: def __init__(self, items, people): self.items = items self.people = people I would like to define a iter() and next() method such that it iterates through all of the values in its attributes. My first question is whether or not this is possible. If it is, will it be able to support a situation as follows: I define items and people as above then: state = State(items, people) for names, thing in state: print name + " is " + thing.color items[cheese] = ItemInstance3 for names, thing in state: print name + " weighs " + thing.weight While I feel like this would be usefull in the code I have, I don't know if it's either possible or the right approach. Everything I've read about user defined iterators has suggested that each instance of them is one use only.

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Complicated SQL query

    - by Yandawl
    Please bare with me this is difficult to explain xD http://img90.imageshack.us/i/croppercapture1.png/ This is based on an undergraduate degree course where a student takes many units (say 4 core units and 1 optional unit per year). tblAwardCoreUnits and tblAwardOptUnits store which units are optional and core for which award, hence the relationship to tblAward and tblStudentCoreUnits and tblStudentOptUnits store the particular instances of those units which a particular student is taking. Secondly, a unit can have multiple events (say a lecture and a unit) and each of those events has sessions in which a student can attend, hence tblEvents, tblSessions and tblAttendances. The query I am trying to produce is to get a list of all level one students, grouped by their award that lists the percentage of attendances in all the units in the current level. I've tried and tried with this and the following is the best I've managed to come up with so far... I'd REALLY appreciate any help you can give with this! SELECT tblStudents.enrolmentNo, tblStudents.forename, tblStudents.surname, tblAwards.title, (SELECT COUNT((tblAttendances.attended + tblAttendances.authorisedAbsence)) AS SumOfAttendances FROM tblAttendances INNER JOIN (tblStudents ON tblStudents.enrolmentNo = tblAttendances.enrolmentNo)) / FROM tblUnits, tblAwards INNER JOIN ((tblStudents INNER JOIN tblStudentOptUnit ON tblStudents.studentID = tblStudentOptUnit.studentID) INNER JOIN tblStudentCoreUnit ON tblStudents.studentID = tblStudentCoreUnit.studentID) ON tblAwards.awardID = tblStudents.awardID WHERE (((tblStudents.level)="1") AND ((tblStudents.status)="enrolled")) GROUP BY tblAwards.title ORDER BY tblStudents.forname;

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  • Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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  • Why does this attempt at preloading images with jQuery not work?

    - by Eric
    Current I have this code: var imgCount = 36; var container = $('#3D-spin'); var loaded = 0; function onLoad() { alert(loaded); loaded++; if(loaded >= imgCount) { alert('yay'); } } for(var i = imgCount-1; i >= 0; i--) { container.prepend( $('<img>') .one('load', onLoad) .attr('alt', 'View from '+(i*360/imgCount)+'\u00B0') .attr('src', '/images/3d-spin/robot ('+i+').jpg') ); } However, it's behaving VERY strangely. Normally, I get no alert boxes. However, if I open developer tools, and pause script execution, I get a single alert that says 0. There's nothign like a good old heisenbug! A live example can be found here. The script itself is called style.js, and it is clear that images have loaded. Am I doing something stupidly, or is jQuery playing up?

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  • Grep expression with special file names

    - by user2919185
    i am a real beginner in csh/tcsh scripting and that's why i need your help. The problem is I have to go through some regular files in directories and find those files, that have their own name in its content. In the following piece of script is cycle in which I am going through paths and using grep to find the file's name in its content. What is surely correct is $something:q - is array of paths where i have to find files. The next variable is name in which is only name of current file. for example: /home/computer/text.txt (paths) and: text.txt (name) And my biggest problem is to find names of files in their content. It's quite difficult for me to write correct grep for this, cause the names of files and directories that i am passing through are mad. Here are some of them: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/!_1 /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/dam/$user/:e/'/-r /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test3/skusime/ taketo/ taketo /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/.a=b /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/@ /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/'ano' foreach paths ($something:q) set name = "$paths:t" @ number = (`grep -Ec "$name" "$paths"`) if ($number != 0) then echo -n "$paths " echo $number endif @ number = 0 end

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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