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  • SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

    - by Nathan Koop
    I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

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  • How to persist objects between requests in PHP

    - by SztupY
    I've been using rails, merb, django and asp.net mvc applications in the past. What they have common (that is relevant to the question) is that they have code that sets up the framework. This usually means creating objects and state that is persisted until the web server is recycled (like setting up routing, or checking which controllers are available, etc). As far as I know PHP is more like a CGI script that gets compiled to some bytecode each time it's run, and after the request it's discarded. Of course you can have sessions, to persist data between requests from the same user, and as I see there are extensions like APC, with which you can persist objects between requests at the server level. My question is: how can one create a PHP application that works like rails and such? I mean an application that on the first requests sets up the framework, then on the 2nd and later requests use the objects that are already set up. Is there some built in caching facility in mod_php? (for example that stores the compiled bytecode of the executed php applications) Or is using APC or some similar extensions the only way to solve this problem? How would you do it? Thanks.

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • events is not displayed on my fullcalendar

    - by ChangJiu
    Hi BalusC! I have used your method at above in my servelt. **[CalendarMap]** public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<String, Object>(); map.put("id", 115); map.put("title", "changjiu"); map.put("start", new SimpleDateFormat("yyyy-MM-15").format(new Date())); map.put("url", "http://yahoo.com/"); // Convert to JSON string. String json = new Gson().toJson(map); // Write JSON string. response.setContentType("application/json"); response.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); response.getWriter().write(json); } I want to display it my fullcalendar as follow. $(document).ready(function() { $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ eventSources: [ "CalendarMap" ] }); }); but it's not worked! Can you help me? thank you!

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  • jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

    - by M Katz
    I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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  • WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

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  • Apache with JBOSS using AJP (mod_jk) giving spikes in thread count.

    - by Beginner
    We used Apache with JBOSS for hosting our Application, but we found some issues related to thread handling of mod_jk. Our website comes under low traffic websites and has maximum 200-300 concurrent users during our website's peak activity time. As the traffic grows (not in terms of concurrent users, but in terms of cumulative requests which came to our server), the server stopped serving requests for long, although it didn't crash but could not serve the request till 20 mins. The JBOSS server console showed that 350 thread were busy on both servers although there was enough free memory say, more than 1-1.5 GB (2 servers for JBOSS were used which were 64 bits, 4 GB RAM allocated for JBOSS) In order to check the problem we were using JBOSS and Apache Web Consoles, and we were seeing that the thread were showing in S state for as long as minutes although our pages take around 4-5 seconds to be served. We took the thread dump and found that the threads were mostly in WAITING state which means that they were waiting indefinitely. These threads were not of our Application Classes but of AJP 8009 port. Could somebody help me in this, as somebody else might also got this issue and solved it somehow. In case any more information is required then let me know. Also is mod_proxy better than using mod_jk, or there are some other problems with mod_proxy which can be fatal for me if I switch to mod__proxy? The versions I used are as follows: Apache 2.0.52 JBOSS: 4.2.2 MOD_JK: 1.2.20 JDK: 1.6 Operating System: RHEL 4 Thanks for the help.

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  • Best strategy for moving data between physical tiers in ASP.net

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    Building a new ASP.net application, and planning to separate DB, 'service' tier and Web/UI tier into separate physical layers. What is the best/easiest strategy to move serialized objects between the service tier and the UI tier? I was considering serializing POCOs into JSON using simple ASP.net pages to serve the middle tier. Meaning that the UI/Web tier will request data from a (hidden to the outside user) web server that will return a JSON string. This kind of JSON 'emitter' seems easily testable. It also seems easily compressible for efficiently moving data over the WAN between tiers. I know that some folks use .asmx webservices for this kind of task, but this seems like there is excess overhead with SOAP, and the package is not as human readable (testable) as POCOs serialized as JSON. Others are using more complex technology like WCF which we have never used. Does anyone have advice for choosing a method for moving data/objects between the data (db) tier and the web (UI) tier over the WAN using .net technologies? Thanks!!!

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

    - by Ryan Nichols
    I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

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  • Multiple responses from identical calls in asynch QUnit + Mockjax tests

    - by NickL
    I'm trying to test some jQuery ajax code using QUnit and Mockjax and have it return different JSON for different tests, like this: $(document).ready(function() { function functionToTest() { return $.getJSON('/echo/json/', { json: JSON.stringify({ "won't": "run" }) }); } module("first"); test("first test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); test("second test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); }); Unfortunately it returns the same response for each call, and order can't be guaranteed, so was wondering how I could set it up so that it was coupled to the actual request and came up with this: $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', response: function(settings) { if (JSON.parse(settings.data.json).order === 1) { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }); } else { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }); } } }); This relies on parameters being sent to the server, but what about requests without parameters, where I still need to test different responses? Is there a way to use QUnit's setup/teardown to do this?

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  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

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  • Multiple forms on a single page

    - by normalocity
    I've got an app that's in invite-only beta right now. Problem is, I can't get the invite system to work. :( On my root page there's a login form (which works just fine), and I'm trying to add a "request invite" form on the same page. I started doing it by putting the form for InviteRequest (ActiveRecord) inside a partial, in the "views" folder for "InviteRequest". The app is definitely calling this partial, but I'm getting the following error: NoMethodError in User_sessions#new Showing app/views/invite_request/_new.html.erb where line #2 raised: undefined method `invite_requests_path' for #<ActionView::Base:0x25b3248> Extracted source (around line #2): 1: <% @invite_request = InviteRequest.new() %> 2: <% form_for @invite_request do |ir| %> 3: <%= ir.label :email %> 4: <%= ir.text_field :email %> 5: <% end %> I also read through the "Multiple Models in a Form" section of my trusty copy of "Agile Web Development with Rails", about maybe doing this with a "fieldset" tag, but not sure if this is the right approach. Thx.

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  • unable to implement HTTP Tunneling correctly in order to enable Java rmi calls over internet(and und

    - by Lokesh Kumar
    in my previous question :-How to Setup RMI Server under(NAT/ISP) Now,i m able to start my RMI server by Installing apache Tomcat 6.0 server. i have also installed servlet programs into apache Tomcat server in order to enable HTTP tunneling. my servlet codes:- (1) [SimplifiedServletHandler.java][2] (2) [ServletForwardCommand.java][3] these servlets resides inside :- C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\examples\WEB-INF\classes\ one more thing that i hv added to my CalcultorClient.java program:- try { RMISocketFactory. setSocketFactory(new sun.rmi.transport.proxy .RMIHttpToCGISocketFactory( )); }catch (IOException ignored) { System.out.println("Error :- ignored.getMessage()"); } But,when i try to make client connect with server(under ISP/NAT) i get the following Exception :- RemoteException java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.IOException: HTTP request failed i don't know the correct reason behind this Exception.. but,i think that i haven't installed or invoke my servlet programs properly on server side. so,can anybody tell me the correct reason behind this error/Exception????? and if u think that it is servlet problem then tell me the correct procedure to run my serlvet program inside tomcat server.

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  • WHy am I unable to add text along with <%# Container.DataItem %> in repeater in user control

    - by Jamie Hartnoll
    I have a User Control which is dynamically placed by CodeBehind as follows: Dim myControl As Control = CType(Page.LoadControl("~/Controls/mainMenu.ascx"), Control) If InStr(Request.ServerVariables("url"), "/Login.aspx") <= 0 Then mainMenu.Controls.Add(myControl) End If As per an example from my previous question on here. Within this Control is a repeater which calls a database to generate values. My Repeater mark-up is as follows <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="locationRepeater" OnItemDataBound="getQuestionCount"> <ItemTemplate> <p id='locationQuestions' title='<%# Container.DataItem %>' runat='server'></p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The example above works fine, but I want to be able to prepend text to <%# Container.DataItem %> in the title attribute of that <p to print to the browser like this is some text DATA_ITEM_OUTPUT When I try to do that though, it prints this is some text <%# Container.DataItem %> exactly like that, ie, turning <%# Container.DataItem %> into text, NOT the value from the repeater code. It was working fine before I made it into a dynamically inserted control, so I am thinking I might have something being generated in the wrong order, but given that it works without any prepended text, I am stumped to fix it! I'm new to .net and using vb.net, please could someone point me in the right direction?

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • Refresh a Div that has a Google ad inside it

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have a div that holds a google ad. My website is mostly AJAX and there is no need for a browser refresh. That means my ads will not refresh either, which isnt ideal, a user staring at one ad all day. So I wanted a way to refresh a particular div on a page. I found many solutions but they didnt work. For example, using JQuery's html function: $("#ads").html("google ad script here"); This managed to refresh the whole page no idea how. I can also make an AJAX request to a HTML page that contains the google ad but I am guessing it will have the same effect as the above attempt. I do not want to use iFrames. Is there any other option open to me? My pea brain can not think of anymore. :) Thanks you for any help. EDIT: It is allowed since I will be initiating the refresh only when a user clicks a link. A prime example is Yahoo Mail - their new AJAX mailbox uses this same method, when a user clicks a link then a new ad is shown.

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • tabs on web page and seo

    - by GaVrA
    I know there is a lot of js plugins to do "tabs", but also i can do it my self. Just have some elements with display:none and when you click some other element display changes to block, or something like that. Now, i have a one site i am developing, where i am giving specific users(all within one usergroup) access to edit only one page which i have created. That part is done. Now i have a request to give those users ability to edit 2 more sub pages, but since its all gonna be the same, like text with some pictures, i was thinking to put 3 textarea's so they will have 1 page where they can edit content of all those 3 pages. What i also thought was to only have one page and on it to have 3 tabs. Each tab for each possible page. When i started thinking about that the only concern was seo. How does seo works regarding elements with display:none? What jquery tabs plugin do you recommend that has the ability to access tabs via id of the element in url? I was looking at jquery ui demo but there when you get the url of one of those tabs and try to open it in new window, that tab is not opened. For example this link: http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/#tabs-2 It does not open tab #2... Any help is appreciated!

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  • How should I implement lazy session creation in PHP?

    - by Adam Franco
    By default, PHP's session handling mechanisms set a session cookie header and store a session even if there is no data in the session. If no data is set in the session then I don't want a Set-Cookie header sent to the client in the response and I don't want an empty session record stored on the server. If data is added to $_SESSION, then the normal behavior should continue. My goal is to implement lazy session creation behavior of the sort that Drupal 7 and Pressflow where no session is stored (or session cookie header sent) unless data is added to the $_SESSION array during application execution. The point of this behavior is to allow reverse proxies such as Varnish to cache and serve anonymous traffic while letting authenticated requests pass through to Apache/PHP. Varnish (or another proxy-server) is configured to pass through any requests without cookies, assuming correctly that if a cookie exists then the request is for a particular client. I have ported the session handling code from Pressflow that uses session_set_save_handler() and overrides the implementation of session_write() to check for data in the $_SESSION array before saving and will write this up as library and add an answer here if this is the best/only route to take. My Question: While I can implement a fully custom session_set_save_handler() system, is there an easier way to get this lazy session creation behavior in a relatively generic way that would be transparent to most applications?

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  • Rebol Multitasking with Async: why do I get Invalid port spec

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    I tried http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg19437.html (I just changed to www.reboltutorial.com) : do http://www.rebol.it/giesse/async-protocol.r handler: func [port [port!] state [word! error!] /local tmp cmd] [ if error? :state [print mold disarm state return true] switch state [ connect [ ; do HTTP request insert port {GET /files/2009/10/word.png HTTP/1.0^M^JHost: www.reboltutorial.com^M^J^M^J} false ] read [false] write [false] close [ ; get data data: copy port close port ;print copy/part data find data "^M^J^M^J" data: to binary! find/tail data "^M^J^M^J" other/image: attempt [load data] other/text: "" show other false ] ] ] port: open async://www.reboltutorial.com:80 port/awake: :handler view layout [ across me: box 100x100 random 255.255.255 0:00:00.5 feel [ engage: func [f a e] [ if a = 'time [ me/color: random 255.255.255 show me ] ] ] other: box 100x100 255.255.255 "Downloading image..." Return Area 208x100 "You can type here while downloading." ] ] But I'm getting this error: >> port: open async://reboltutorial.com:80 ** Access Error: Invalid port spec: async://reboltutorial.com:80 ** Near: port: open async://reboltutorial.com:80 >> port/awake: :handler ** Script Error: port has no value ** Near: port/awake: :handler

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • help with javamail api

    - by bobby
    import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import javax.mail.event.*; import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.host","smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("user", "pass"); } }; Session sess=Session.getDefaultInstance(props,authenticator); Message msg=new MimeMessage(sess); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.addRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.setSubject("Hello JavaMail"); msg.setText("Welcome to JavaMail"); Transport.send(msg); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("err"+e); } } } im working with above im gettin d following error servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ 2 errors i have followed the example in http://java.sun.com/developer/onlineTraining/JavaMail/contents.html how should i get the output..will the above code...work what are the changes that need to be made..im using thunderbird smtp server

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  • MVC 4 Beta with Mobile Project FIle Upload does not work

    - by Jim Shaffer
    I am playing around with the new MVC 4 beta release. I created a new web project using the Mobile Application template. I simply added a controller and a view to upload a file, but the file is always null in the action result. Is this a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Controller Code: using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace MobileWebExample.Controllers { public class FileUploadController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [AllowAnonymous] [HttpPost] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload(HttpPostedFileBase file) { int i = Request.Files.Count; if (file != null) { if (file.ContentLength > 0) { var fileName = Path.GetFileName(file.FileName); var path = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/uploads"), fileName); file.SaveAs(path); } } return RedirectToAction("Index"); } } } And the view looks like this: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Index"; } <h2>Index</h2> <form action="@Url.Action("Upload")" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

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