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  • ASP.Net Problem with View Control

    - by tking
    I admit, I'm an .NET n00b. Basically what I'm trying to do is I have a page with a text box on it and an image button. On click of the image button I want it to show a view control I have set up. Inside this view control is an image and some text. So this is what I have in my code-behind. protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { string email = txtUnsubscribe.Text; vwSuccess.Visible = true; } Simple right? Well when I click on the button for submit, I get the "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error message. Where am I going wrong?

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  • Instantiating class by string using PHP 5.3 namespaces

    - by Kevin
    I can't get around an issue instantiating a new class by using a string variable and PHP 5.3. namespaces. For example, this works; $class = 'Reflection'; $object = new $class(); However, this does not; $class = '\Application\Log\MyClass'; $object = new $class(); A fatal error gets thrown stating the class cannot be found. However it obviously can be instantiated if using the FQN i.e.; $object = new \Application\Log\MyClass; I've found this to be aparrent on PHP 5.3.2-1 but not not in later versions. Is there a work around for this?

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  • Creating a Non-Databound Report in Winforms

    - by Jon
    I am using Visual Studio 2008 and all the components that come with it as well as Infragisitics for Winforms. I need to design a label that will print to a label printer. None of the controls are databound and will most likely be set in code eg/Label.Text = "My Heading"; as there will be minimal information on the label. One piece of information is a barcode so I need the functionality to do that, I assume I can just set the font of the label to barcode and it will do its thing. Can I just add a Crystal Report to a form design it, set the label text properties in code, tell it what printer to print to and then call report.Print(); I've had a quick go and seems not as easy as I thought. Thanks

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  • How do I conditionally assign ruby variables to javascript variables?

    - by Tony
    I have a website where I need a javascript version of the "current user" object along with the ruby version. I have been assigning these variables doing something like this... Application Controller: def get_user begin @current_user = User.find(session[:user_id]) if session[:user_id] @current_user_json = @current_user.to_json rescue session.delete(:user_id) @current_user = nil @current_user_json = {} end end Web Page: var current_user = null; current_user_json = '<%= @current_user_json %>'; if(current_user_json != ''){ current_user = current_user_json.user; } Even when there is a current user, I get the current user is undefined. Probably because I am putting the current_user_json assignment around single quotes. However, if I don't put it around single quotes, I'll always get a javascript error when no user is logged in because the syntax is invalid - current_user_json = ; I think I am just looking at this completely wrong and there must be a better way. Given that this is probably a common thing to do, I wanted to get other people's opinion on how to create an object in javascript that is a duplicate of the ruby object.

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  • regular expression on replace method of js not working

    - by user950146
    why this is not working var value = arr[row][col].replace(new RegExp('"', 'g'),'""'); Error : Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0) Timestamp: Tue, 10 Apr 2012 11:22:01 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 1041 Char: 25 Code: 0 URI: http://example.com/? Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 1041 Char: 25 Code: 0 URI: http://example.com/? Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 1041 Char: 25 Code: 0 URI: http://example.com/? Note: : Error copied directly from debugger of IE8

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  • Hibernate entities stored as HttpSession attribute values

    - by njudge
    I'm dealing with a legacy Java application with a large, fairly messy codebase. There's a fairly standard 'User' object that gets stored in the HttpSession between requests, so the servlets do stuff like this at the top: HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); User user = (User)session.getAttribute("User"); The old user authentication layer (which I won't describe; suffice to say, it did not use a database) is being replaced with code mapped to the DB with Hibernate. So 'User' is now a Hibernate entity. My understanding of Hibernate object life cycles is a little fuzzy, but it seems like storing 'User' in the HttpSession now becomes a problem, because it will be retrieved in a different transaction during the next request. What is the right thing to be doing here? Can I just use the Hibernate Session object's update() method to reattach the User instance the next time around? Do I need to?

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  • Remote Seam Persistence

    Hi. I have a button in a .xhtml file which calls a javascript function which calls a java function remotely (in jboss seam environment). That java function has an entityManager.persist(object). Do you know why this line of code doesn't commit to the DB? It says something that a transaction hasn't started. I supose in a remote context i don't have a transaction began because if i put an action on that button which calls the same java function instead of using javascript is above, it works fine; entityManager persists the object and i can see it in the DB. Does anyone has any ideas how could i make to actually persist the object using javascript to call the java function? (i have to use javascript because i need the callback function )

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  • Java - Handling Non-Blocking Calls

    - by sarav
    In my application I am using a third-party API. It is a non-blocking method which returns immediately. I have a collection of elements over which I have to invoke this method. Now, my problem is that I have to find a way till all the method execution gets completed and do my next operation. How can I handle this? I cannot modify the third-party API. In short it looks like this for(Object object: objects){ methodA(object); //this is a non-blocking call and returns immediately } // here I want to do my next task only after all the methodA calls completed execution

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  • Best way to merge two identical ASPNET web sites?

    - by ase69s
    We have two websites which only diference is in the design (Diferent images, styles, layouts..etc) but the web structure of files and cs code is the same so we want to simplify its manteinance... The actual structure would be: DefaultA.aspx DefaultA.aspx.cs DefaultB.aspx DefaultB.aspx.cs LoginA.aspx LoginA.aspx.cs LoginB.aspx LoginB.aspx.cs One idea would be changing the design differencies at runtime depending of the origin website, but we dont like much this because performance, abstraction in designing them and url confusion... Another one is sharing the cs (both aspx inheriting and using the same cs) file but we never have done or seen it done in any website before so we wonder if its a good aproach... What do you think? Any other way better in terms of performance vs development-ease?

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  • how to calculate the beginning of a day given milliseconds?

    - by conman
    i want to figure out the time from the beginning of the day given a days milliseconds. so say i'm given this: 1340323100024 which is like mid day of 6/21/2012. now i want the milliseconds from the beginning of the day, which would be 1340262000000 (at least i think that's what it's supposed to be.) how do i get 1340262000000 from 1340323100024? i tried doing Math.floor(1340323100024/86400000) * 86400000 but that gives me 1340236800000, which if i create a date object out of it, says its the 20th. i know i can create a date object from 1340323100024, then get the month, year, and date, to create a new object which would give me 1340262000000, but i find it ridiculous i can't figure out something so simple. any help would be appreciated. btw, i'm doing this in javascript if it makes any difference.

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  • Losing a programmer, what steps to take?

    - by Zak
    One of the programmers on our team is leaving for greener pastures. We will be going from 6 to 5. What steps should we take to ensure our development process continues to run smoothly, potentially while integrating in new blood. We are currently working on a short release cycle with iterative development. Design - code - review. The person leaving was the most senior dev on the team, and would often give lots of feedback to the rest of the team, especially during the design phase.

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  • Securing database keys for client-side processing

    - by danp
    I have a tree of information which is sent to the client in a JSON object. In that object, I don't want to have raw IDs which are coming from the database. I thought of making a hash of the id and a field in the object (title, for example) or a salt, but I'm worried that this might have a serious effect on processing overhead. SELECT * FROM `things` where md5(concat(id,'some salt')) = md5('1some salt'); Is there a standard practice for obscuring IDs in this kind of situation?

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  • PrivateFontCollection fails on appharbor

    - by grennis
    I am trying to load a custom font (ttf file) and draw into an image with the Graphics object. This code runs fine locally: PrivateFontCollection fonts = new PrivateFontCollection(); string path = context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/Futura LT Bold.ttf"); if (!System.IO.File.Exists(path)) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Font file is not deployed: " + path); } fonts.AddFontFile(path); However when run on appharbor, the call to AddFontFile fails with the exception: System.ArgumentException: Font 'Futura LT Book' does not support style 'Regular'. at System.Drawing.Font.CreateNativeFont() at System.Drawing.Font.Initialize(FontFamily family, Single emSize, FontStyle style, GraphicsUnit unit, Byte gdiCharSet, Boolean gdiVerticalFont) at System.Drawing.Font..ctor(FontFamily family, Single emSize) at LumenboxWeb.Controllers.GalleryController.FontTest() in d:\temp\h5oqslma.udd\input\src\LumenboxWeb\Controllers\GalleryController.cs:line 59 at lambda_method(Closure , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) I have tried different fonts, and they all work locally, but none work on appharbor. Is it possible to load fonts dynamically on appharbor?

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  • Arguments against Create or Update

    - by Nix
    Recently someone stated that they thought all Creates should be CreateOrUpdates. Instinctively i thought bad, but now I am trying to find out if I have any grounds. Situation interface IService{ void Create(Object a); void Update(Object a); } or interface IService{ void CreateOrUpdate(Object a); } My first thought is if you implemented everything CreateOrUpdate then you have no control if someone accidentally sends you wrong data, or concurrency issues where someone changes a "primary" field right before you call update.... But if you remove those cases, are there any other cons?

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  • Spring FactoryBean and scopes working together

    - by TTar
    I'd like to use FactoryBeans and scopes together. Specifically, I'd like the object created and returned by a FactoryBean to be placed into a specified (perhaps custom) scope. The issue is that doing the following: <bean class="x.y.z.TestFactoryBean" scope="test" /> Results in the FactoryBean itself being scoped, and has somewhat unpredictable behaviour on the object created by the factory. I understand why this is; the factory itself is a first-class spring-managed bean, and has its own lifecycle. However, I can't find a way to specify that the object returned from the factory should itself be scoped. On the other hand, this does exactly what I want (as long as TestFactoryBean does NOT implement the FactoryBean interface): <bean class="x.y.z.TestFactoryBean" name="testFactory"> <bean class="x.y.z.TestBean" factory-bean="testFactory" factory-method="getObject" scope="test" /> So the real question is, how can I make Spring behave like it does for the 2nd example above, but using real FactoryBeans?

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  • Where should I put interface?

    - by Roman
    I program a class in which I have a method which takes an callback object from an external software. At the moment Eclipse says that it does not know the type of the object I gave as argument (it is expectable since I do not specify this type, it's done by the external software). So, I think I need to write an interface for the object which I give as an argument to my method. In this respect I have two questions. Is it really so? Can I solve the mentioned problem in the mentioned way. If it is the case, where should I put this interface? In the same file where my class is? In the class? Outside of the class?

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  • python mock side_effect or return_value dependent on call_count

    - by user18380
    To test a polling function I want to mock the calling of a sub function so that the first time it is called it will fail, and the second time it is called it will succeed. Here's a very simplified version of it: poll_function(var1): value = sub_function(var1) # First call will return None while not value: time.sleep(POLLING_INTERVAL) value = sub_function(var1) # A subsequent call will return a string, e.g "data" return value Is this possible to do with a Mock object from the mock framework? I know Mock objects have a call_count attribute I should be able to use somehow. Right now I've solved it by creating a custom mock object that I use to monkey patch sub_function(), but I feel there should be a better less verbose way of doing it: def test_poll(): class MyMock(object): def __init__(self, *args): self.call_count = 0 def sub_function(self, *args, **kwargs): if self.call_count > 1: return "data" else: self.call_count += 1 return None my_mock = MyMock() with patch('sub_function', my_mock.sub_function): ok_(poll_function())

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  • How to avoid double construction of proxy with DynamicProxy::CreateClassProxyWithTarget?

    - by Belvasis
    I am decorating an existing object using the CreateClassProxyWithTarget method. However, the constructor and therefore, initialization code, is being called twice. I already have a "constructed" instance (the target). I understand why this happens, but is there a way to avoid it, other than using an empty constructor? Edit: Here is some code: First the proxy creation: public static T Create<T>(T i_pEntity) where T : class { object pResult = m_pGenerator.CreateClassProxyWithTarget(typeof(T), new[] { typeof(IEditableObject), typeof(INotifyPropertyChanged) , typeof(IMarkerInterface), typeof(IDataErrorInfo) }, i_pEntity, ProxyGenerationOptions.Default, new BindingEntityInterceptor<T>(i_pEntity)); return (T)pResult; } I use this for example with an object of the following class: public class KatalogBase : AuditableBaseEntity { public KatalogBase() { Values = new HashedSet<Values>(); Attributes = new HashedSet<Attributes>(); } ... } If i now call BindingFactory.Create(someKatalogBaseObject); the Values and Attributes properties are beeing initialized again.

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  • Explain the code: c# locking feature and threads

    - by Mendy
    I used this pattern in a few projects, (this snipped of code is from CodeCampServer), I understand what it does, but I'm really interesting in an explanation about this pattern. Specifically: Why is the double check of _dependenciesRegistered. Why to use lock (Lock){}. Thanks. public class DependencyRegistrarModule : IHttpModule { private static bool _dependenciesRegistered; private static readonly object Lock = new object(); public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += context_BeginRequest; } public void Dispose() { } private static void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { EnsureDependenciesRegistered(); } private static void EnsureDependenciesRegistered() { if (!_dependenciesRegistered) { lock (Lock) { if (!_dependenciesRegistered) { new DependencyRegistrar().ConfigureOnStartup(); _dependenciesRegistered = true; } } } } }

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  • linq with Include and criteria

    - by JMarsch
    How would I translate this into LINQ? Say I have A parent table (Say, customers), and child (addresses). I want to return all of the Parents who have addresses in California, and just the california address. (but I want to do it in LINQ and get an object graph of Entity objects) Here's the old fashioned way: SELECT c.blah, a.blah FROM Customer c INNER JOIN Address a on c.CustomerId = a.CustomerId where a.State = 'CA' The problem I'm having with LINQ is that i need an object graph of concrete Entity types (and it can't be lazy loaded. Here's what I've tried so far: // this one doesn't filter the addresses -- I get the right customers, but I get all of their addresses, and not just the CA address object. from c in Customer.Include(c = c.Addresses) where c.Addresses.Any(a = a.State == "CA") select c // this one seems to work, but the Addresses collection on Customers is always null from c in Customer.Include(c = c.Addresses) from a in c.Addresses where a.State == "CA" select c; Any ideas?

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  • Proper usage of Java Weak Reference in case of nested collections

    - by Tong Wang
    I need to define a weak reference Map, whose value is a Set. I use Google collections' MapMaker, like this: Map<Class<? extends Object>, Set<Foo>> map = new MapMaker().weakKeys().weakValues().makeMap(); So, for Set<Foo>, can I use a normal HashSet? Or, do I have to create a weak HashSet, like this: Collections.newSetFromMap(new WeakHashMap<Foo, Boolean>()); And why? Another question, the key of my map is Class objects, when will a Class object become weakly reachable? In other words, what is the lifetime of a Class object? Thanks.

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  • Cant append "used" DOMObject in IE

    - by Kein
    I have some objects, that keep created DOMObjects, like here: function category(){ var domBlock; this.block = function(){ if (!domBlock){ // Here dom-object constructor $('<div></div>'); etc } return domBlock; // jquery object, // but i test and native document.createElement } } Then i clear category's area, and append old and new received(with Ajax) objects: area.html(''); for(id in category_list){ area.append( category_list[id].block() ); } where category_list is list that contain category objects. Area is jQuery object. In other browsers (except IE) i get area with all needed categories, but in IE i get only new received categories(that just create DomObject), other old objects that keeped old DomObject not show. I know it possible make with innerHTML, but i wont keep DomObject, not text. Because DomObject keep many events. And it very hard for browser attach events for each DomObject after refresh area.

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  • Why exactly is calling the destructor for the second time undefined behavior in C++?

    - by sharptooth
    As mentioned in this answer simply calling the destructor for the second time is already undefined behavior 12.4/14(3.8). For example: class Class { public: ~Class() {} }; // somewhere in code: { Class* object = new Class(); object->~Class(); delete object; // UB because at this point the destructor call is attempted again } In this example the class is designed in such a way that the destructor could be called multiple times - no things like double-deletion can happen. The memory is still allocated at the point where delete is called - the first destructor call doesn't call the ::operator delete() to release memory. For example, in Visual C++ 9 the above code looks working. Even C++ definition of UB doesn't directly prohibit things qualified as UB from working. So for the code above to break some implementation and/or platform specifics are required. Why exactly would the above code break and under what conditions?

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  • How to execute unknown functions from dynamic load libraries?

    - by activenightly
    It's easy to load functions from dynamic libraries when you know this function in design time. just do something like this: int (*fn)(int); l0 = dlopen("./libfoo.so", RTLD_LAZY); if (!l0) { fprintf(stderr, "l0 %s\n", dlerror()); return 1; } fn = (int (*)(int))dlsym(l0, "foo"); if ((error = dlerror()) != NULL) { fprintf(stderr, "fn:%s\n", error); return 1; } x=(*fn)(y); ... How to execute library function when it's unknown in design time? In runtime you have a function name and array of arguments pointers and array of arguments sizes: char* fn_name="foo"; int foo_argc; void* foo_argv[]; int foo_argv_size[]; In scripting language it's a piece a cake task, but how to implement this nicely in c++?

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  • Why does Java ArrayList use per-element casting instead of per-array casting?

    - by user1111929
    What happens inside Java's ArrayList<T> (and probably many other classes) is that there is an internal Object[] array = new Object[n];, to which T Objects are written. Whenever an element is read from it, a cast return (T) array[i]; is done. So, a cast on every single read. I wonder why this is done. To me, it seems like they're just doing unnecessary casts. Wouldn't it be more logical and also slightly faster to just create a T[] array = (T[]) new Object[n]; and then just return array[i]; without cast? This is only one cast per array creation, which is usually far less than the number of reads. Why is their method to be preferred? I fail to see why my idea isn't strictly better?

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