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  • Formatting Parameters for Ajax POST request to Rails Controller - for jQuery-UI sortable list

    - by Hung Luu
    I'm using the jQuery-UI Sortable Connected Lists. I'm saving the order of the connected lists to a Rails server. My approach is to grab the list ID, column ID and index position of each list item. I want to then wrap this into an object that can be passed as a parameter back to the Rails Controller to be saved into the database. So ideally i'm looking to format the parameter like this: Parameters: {"Activity"=>[{id:1,column:2,position:1},{id:2,column:2,position:2} ,...]} How do I properly format my parameters to be passed in this Ajax POST request? Right now, with the approach below, I'm passing on Parameters: {"undefined"=>""} This is my current jQuery code (Coffeescript) which doesn't work: jQuery -> $('[id*="day"]').sortable( connectWith: ".day" placeholder: "ui-state-highlight" update: (event, ui) -> neworder = new Array() $('[id*="day"] > li').each -> column = $(this).attr("id") index = ui.item.index() + 1 id = $("#" + column + " li:nth-child(" + index + ") ").attr('id') passObject={} passObject.id = id passObject.column = column passObject.index = index neworder.push(passObject) alert neworder $.ajax url: "sort" type: "POST" data: neworder ).disableSelection() My apologies because this seems like a really amateur question but I'm just getting started with programming jQuery and Javascript.

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  • asp.net mvc and portal like functionality

    - by richard-heesbeen
    fHi, I need to build an site with some portal like functionality where an param in the request will indentify the portal. like so http:/domain/controller/action/portal Now my problem is if an portal doesn't exists there must be an redirect to an other site/page and an user can login in to one portal but if the user comes to an other portal the user must be redirected back to the login page for that portal. I have something working now, but i feel like there must be an central place in the pipeline to handle this. My current solution uses an custom action filter which checks the portal param and sees if the portal exists and checks if the user logged on in that portal (the portal the user logged on for is in the authentication cookie). I make my own IIndentiy and IPrincipal in the application_postauthentication event. I have 2 problems with my current approach: 1: It's not really enforced, i have to add the attributes to all controllers and/or actions. 2: The isauthenticated on an user isn't really working, i would like that to work. But for that i need to have access to the params of the route when i create my IPrincipal/IIndenty and i can't seem to find an correct place to do that. Hope someone can give me some pointers, Richard.

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  • Flex 3 - Saving an image of a component

    - by Emma
    Im currently trying to work the imageSnapshot function in flex. Ive been looking hard but I cant seem to find a solution to my problem. I wish to take a screenshot of one of my components, to capture the final output of my program, since a plain "printscreen" cuts off some of the output due to it scrolling. My current code looks like - <mx:ApplicationControlBar dock="true"> <mx:Button label="Take snapshot of Profile" click="takeSnapshot();" /> </mx:ApplicationControlBar> Which when called does - private function takeSnapshot(even:Event=null):void { var imageSnap:ImageSnapshot = ImageSnapshot.captureImage(viewstack1); Now i think this is taking the image of the viewstack which I want... But Im stumped on what to do from here! Is it not possible to now just copy the image to the clipboard, or produce a new window in my browser with the entire image inside? If anyone has any other way to do this, suggestions would be wonderful. Thank you for your time.

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Problem with ActionScript 3.0 button to URL and root movieclip

    - by aarontb
    Okay, so, here's what the problem is. I'm creating a flash site with each page being it's own movieclip and Scene 1 being the menu and other things that stay on the site. I've created a MovieClip called 'HowWorksScene'. The movieclip has 2 buttons that link out to different URLs, however, I'm sure that when 1 of the button scripts work, the same script will work for the other...so here's the problem that I'm having with the Button stop(); VidDemo_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, video); function video(event:MouseEvent):void { var link:URLRequest = new URLRequest('www.youtube.com'); navigateToURL(link); } Problem is that I cannot GET to that frame to even determine an error. The problem preventing me from getting to this point is a call function. In the "HomePage" movieclip, when the button is pressed to go to the next scene, "Homepage" fades out and flys left then the next frame is 1 frame but activates the next movieclipe "HowWorksScene"...but without errors, it simply goes to frame 17 of "Homepage". I've tried doing _root.gotoAndPlay(17); but get an undefined error. So, I guess my question is: What is the BEST way to direct from within a movieclip to a frame in the parent Scene? I've even tried using gotoAndPlay(17, "Scene 1"); And that still did not work. Please let me know ASAP!

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  • Storing high precision latitude/longitude numbers in iOS Core Data

    - by Bryan
    I'm trying to store Latitude/Longitudes in core data. These end up being anywhere from 6-20 digit precision. And for whatever reason, i had them as floats in Core Data, its rounding them and not giving me the exact values back. I tried "decimal" type, with no luck either. Are NSStrings my only other option? EDIT NSManagedObject: @interface Event : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDecimalNumber * dec; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDate * timeStamp; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * flo; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * doub; Here's the code for a sample number that I store into core data: NSNumber *n = [NSDecimalNumber decimalNumberWithString:@"-97.12345678901234567890123456789"]; Code to access it again: NSNumber *n = [managedObject valueForKey:@"dec"]; NSNumber *f = [managedObject valueForKey:@"flo"]; NSNumber *d = [managedObject valueForKey:@"doub"]; Printed values: Printing description of n: -97.1234567890124 Printing description of f: <CFNumber 0x603f250 [0xfef3e0]>{value = -97.12345678901235146441, type = kCFNumberFloat64Type} Printing description of d: <CFNumber 0x6040310 [0xfef3e0]>{value = -97.12345678901235146441, type = kCFNumberFloat64Type}

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  • How to change the view angle and label value of a chart .NET C#

    - by George
    Short Description I am using charts for a specific application where i need to change the view angle of the rendered 3D Pie chart and value of automatic labels from pie label names to corresponding pie values. This how the chart looks: Initialization This is how i initialize it: Dictionary<string, decimal> secondPersonsWithValues = HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); decimal[] yValues = new decimal[secondPersonsWithValues.Values.Count]; //VALUES string[] xValues = new string[secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.Count]; //LABELS secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.CopyTo(xValues, 0); secondPersonsWithValues.Values.CopyTo(yValues, 0); incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].ChartType = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.SeriesChartType.Pie; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].Points.DataBindXY(xValues, yValues); incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.Enable3D = true; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].CustomProperties = "PieLabelStyle=Outside"; incomeExpenseChart.Legends["Default"].Enabled = true; incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.LightStyle = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.LightStyle.Realistic; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"]["PieDrawingStyle"] = "SoftEdge"; Basically i am querying data from database using the HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); to get pairs as Dictionary<string, decimal> where key is the person and value is ammount. Problem #1 What i need is to be able to change the marked labels from person names to the ammounts or add another label of ammounts with the same colors (See Image). Problem #2 Another problem is that i need to change the view angle of 3D Pie chart. Maybe it's very simple and I just don't know the needed property or maybe i need to override some paint event. Either ways any kind of ways would be appriciated. Thanks in advance George.

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  • Any HTTP proxies with explicit, configurable support for request/response buffering and delayed conn

    - by Carlos Carrasco
    When dealing with mobile clients it is very common to have multisecond delays during the transmission of HTTP requests. If you are serving pages or services out of a prefork Apache the child processes will be tied up for seconds serving a single mobile client, even if your app server logic is done in 5ms. I am looking for a HTTP server, balancer or proxy server that supports the following: A request arrives to the proxy. The proxy starts buffering in RAM or in disk the request, including headers and POST/PUT bodies. The proxy DOES NOT open a connection to the backend server. This is probably the most important part. The proxy server stops buffering the request when: A size limit has been reached (say, 4KB), or The request has been received completely, headers and body Only now, with (part of) the request in memory, a connection is opened to the backend and the request is relayed. The backend sends back the response. Again the proxy server starts buffering it immediately (up to a more generous size, say 64KB.) Since the proxy has a big enough buffer the backend response is stored completely in the proxy server in a matter of miliseconds, and the backend process/thread is free to process more requests. The backend connection is immediately closed. The proxy sends back the response to the mobile client, as fast or as slow as it is capable of, without having a connection to the backend tying up resources. I am fairly sure you can do 4-6 with Squid, and nginx appears to support 1-3 (and looks like fairly unique in this respect). My question is: is there any proxy server that empathizes these buffering and not-opening-connections-until-ready capabilities? Maybe there is just a bit of Apache config-fu that makes this buffering behaviour trivial? Any of them that it is not a dinosaur like Squid and that supports a lean single-process, asynchronous, event-based execution model? (Siderant: I would be using nginx but it doesn't support chunked POST bodies, making it useless for serving stuff to mobile clients. Yes cheap 50$ handsets love chunked POSTs... sigh)

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Insane Graphics.lineStyle behavior

    - by Simon
    Hi all, I'd like some help with a little project of mine. Background: i have a little hierarchy of Sprite derived classes (5 levels starting from the one, that is the root application class in Flex Builder). Width and Height properties are overriden so that my class always remembers it's requested size (not just bounding size around content) and also those properties explicitly set scaleX and scaleY to 1, so that no scaling would ever be involved. After storing those values, draw() method is called to redraw content. Drawing: Drawing is very straight forward. Only the deepest object (at 1-indexed level 5) draws something into this.graphics object like this: var gr:Graphics = this.graphics; gr.clear(); gr.lineStyle(0, this.borderColor, 1, true, LineScaleMode.NONE); gr.beginFill(0x0000CC); gr.drawRoundRectComplex(0, 0, this.width, this.height, 10, 10, 0, 0); gr.endFill(); Further on: There is also MouseEvent.MOUSE_WHEEL event attached to the parent of the object that draws. What handler does is simply resizes that drawing object. Problem: Screenshot When resizing sometimes that hairline border line with LineScaleMode.NONE set gains thickness (quite often even 10 px) + it quite often leaves a trail of itself (as seen in the picture above and below blue box (notice that box itself has one px black border)). When i set lineStile thickness to NaN or alpha to 0, that trail is no more happening. I've been coming back to this problem and dropping it for some other stuff for over a week now. Any ideas anyone? P.S. Grey background is that of Flash Player itself, not my own choise.. :D

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • Why doesen't it work to write this NSMutableArray to a plist?

    - by Emil
    edited. Hey, I am trying to write an NSMutableArray to a plist. The compiler does not show any errors, but it does not write to the plist anyway. I have tried this on a real device too, not just the Simulator. Basically, what this code does, is that when you click the accessoryView of a UITableViewCell, it gets the indexPath pressed, edits an NSMutableArray and tries to write that NSMutableArray to a plist. It then reloads the arrays mentioned (from multiple plists) and reloads the data in a UITableView from the arrays. Code: NSIndexPath *indexPath = [table indexPathForRowAtPoint:[[[event touchesForView:sender] anyObject] locationInView:table]]; [arrayFav removeObjectAtIndex:[arrayFav indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[[arraySub objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] intValue]]]]; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"arrayFav.plist"]; NSLog(@"%@ - %@", rootPath, plistPath); [arrayFav writeToFile:plistPath atomically:YES]; // Reloads data into the arrays [self loadDataFromPlists]; // Reloads data in tableView from arrays [tableFarts reloadData];

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • How can I know when a Button in a Flex DataGrid itemRenderer is clicked?

    - by Eric Belair
    I have a DataGrid component that displays a few columns of data. It has one additional column that displays a Button that allows the user to take an action with regard to the record. <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{myData}"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="firstName" headerText="First Name" width="75" /> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="LastName" headerText=" Last Name" width="150" /> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="phone" headerText="Phone" width="120" /> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="" width="110"> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Box horizontalAlign="center" width="100%"> <mx:Button label="Take Action" /> </mx:Box> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:DataGridColumn> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> I need to perform an action in the parent component, using other data that is available there, but unrelated to the data in the DataGrid. What is the best way to catch the Button click in the parent component, and know what record it corresponds to? Should I use a Custom Event, or an itemEditor, or something else completely?

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  • What are some choices to port existing Windows GUI app written in C to Linux?

    - by Warner Young
    I've been tasked with porting an existing Windows GUI app to Linux. Ideally, I'd like to do this so the same code base can be used to build either the Windows version or the Linux version. I'll be doing my work on Ubuntu 9.04. After searching around, it's unclear to me what tools are best suited to help me with this. A list of loose requirements would be: The code is in C, not C++, and should compile to build both Windows and Linux versions. Since it's existing code, and fairly large, converting to a managed language like .NET is out of the question for now. I would prefer if I can use the same dialogs in both systems. In Windows, putting up a dialog is pretty simple. You build the dialog in the Resource Editor in Visual Studio, then call DialogBox() API, and handle the event messages. I would really like to find something that can do the equivalent on the Linux side. It would also be nice to have a good IDE similar to Visual Studio. Any helps or hints would be appreciated. Thanks,

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  • VB.NET vs. C#.NET?

    - by Onion-Knight
    Hello everyone, The company I work for has all of its legacy ("legacy" being used rather liberally in this context) code in VB.NET. They have about 6000+ lines of VB.NET code, so all of the developers are comfortable with it. We have started to develop a new product, and are finding that some modules are easier to complete in C# than in VB.NET, such as Interprocess Communication via WCF. The things our product will eventually need to do are as follows: Communicate via IPC between Windows Services, Silverlight, and WinForms Handle parallization, and all the complexity that comes along with it Windows Service and WinForms development ASP.NET, AJAX, and Silverlight development Database (SQL) access Lots of event handling (Sync and Async events) My question is: Given the type of work we will be doing to complete our product, are there features of one language that will make life easier that the other does not have? And if so, it is worth asking the developers to switch to a language they are less comfortable with? I was hoping to keep this as objective as possible, by listing exactly what type of work we will be doing with the product. Please don't turn this into a VB/C# holy war. Thanks, Onion-Knight

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  • Playing Multiple sounds at the same time in Android

    - by Wrapper
    I am unable to use the following to code to play multiple sounds/beeps simultaneously. In my onclicklistener I have added ... public void onClick(View v) { mSoundManager.playSound(1); mSoundManager.playSound(2); } ... But this plays only one sound at a time, sound with index 1 followed by sound with index 2. How can I play atleast 2 sounds simultaneously using this code whenever there is an onClick() event? public class SoundManager { private SoundPool mSoundPool; private HashMap<Integer, Integer> mSoundPoolMap; private AudioManager mAudioManager; private Context mContext; public SoundManager() { } public void initSounds(Context theContext) { mContext = theContext; mSoundPool = new SoundPool(4, AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 0); mSoundPoolMap = new HashMap<Integer, Integer>(); mAudioManager = (AudioManager)mContext.getSystemService(Context.AUDIO_SERVICE); } public void addSound(int Index,int SoundID) { mSoundPoolMap.put(1, mSoundPool.load(mContext, SoundID, 1)); } public void playSound(int index) { int streamVolume = mAudioManager.getStreamVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); mSoundPool.play(mSoundPoolMap.get(index), streamVolume, streamVolume, 1, 0, 1f); } public void playLoopedSound(int index) { int streamVolume = mAudioManager.getStreamVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); mSoundPool.play(mSoundPoolMap.get(index), streamVolume, streamVolume, 1, -1, 1f); } }

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  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

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  • Make winform run away from the mouse.

    - by JACK IN THE CRACK
    Okay so I'm trying to make a little gag program that will "run away" from the mouse. So, to get the mouse coordinates for the whole screen and not just the form control I had to create a little helper: static class MouseHelper { [DllImport("user32.dll")] [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] internal static extern bool GetCursorPos(ref Point pt); public static Point GetPosition() { Point w32Mouse = new Point(); GetCursorPos(ref w32Mouse); return w32Mouse; } } Now I thought I was going to use the MouseMove event... but that doesn't work for outside the form control either so I have an auto-enabled timer on a 10ms loop called timerMouseMove. public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private bool CollisionCheck() { Point win32Mouse = MouseHelper.GetPosition(); if (win32Mouse.X <= Location.X || win32Mouse.X >= (Location.X + Width)) return false; if (win32Mouse.Y <= Location.Y || win32Mouse.Y >= (Location.Y + Height)) return false; return true; } private void timerMouseMove_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CollisionCheck()) Location = new Point(Location.X + 1, Location.Y + 1); } } So this works out nicely, at least I have the collision checking working and whatnot. But now, how should I go about figuring which side of the form the mouse has collided with, so that I can update its location to move in the opposite direction the mouse collides with it? And such halp

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  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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  • What's a reliable and practical way to protect software with a user license ?

    - by Frank
    I know software companies use licenses to protect their softwares, but I also know there are keygen programs to bypass them. I'm a Java developer, if I put my program online for sale, what's a reliable and practical way to protect it ? How about something like this, would it work ? <1> I use ProGuard to protect the source code. <2> Sign the executable Jar file. <3> Since my Java program only need to work on PC [I need to use JDIC in it], I wrap the final executable Jar into an .exe file which makes it harder to decompile. <4> When a user first downloads and runs my app, it checks for a Pass file on his PC. <5> If the Pass file doesn't exist, run the app in demo mode, exits in 5 minutes. <6> When demo exits a panel opens with a "Buy Now" button. This demo mode repeats forever unless step <7> happens. <7> If user clicks the "Buy Now" button, he fills out a detailed form [name, phone, email ...], presses a "Verify Info" button to save the form to a Pass file, leaving license Key # field empty in this newly generated Pass file. <8> Pressing "Verify Info" button will take him to a html form pre-filled with his info to verify what he is buying, also hidden in the form's input filed is a license Key number. He can now press a "Pay Now" button to goto Paypal to finish the process. <9> The hidden license Key # will be passed to Paypal as product Id info and emailed to me. <10> After I got the payment and Paypal email, I'll add the license Key # to a valid license Key list, and put it on my site, only I know the url. The list is updated hourly. <11> Few hours later when the user runs the app again, it can find the Pass file on his PC, but the license Key # value is empty, so it goes to the valid list url to see if its license Key # is on the list, if so, write the license Key # into the Pass file, and the next time it starts again, it will find the valid license Key # and start in purchased mode without exiting in 5 minutes. <12> If it can't find its license Key # on the list from my url, run in demo mode. <13> In order to prevent a user from copying and using another paid user's valid Pass file, the license Key # is unique to each PC [I'm trying to find how], so a valid Pass file only works on one PC. Only after a user has paid will Paypal email me the valid license Key # with his payment. <14> The Id checking goes like this : Use the CPU ID : "CPU_01-02-ABC" for example, encrypt it to the result ID : "XeR5TY67rgf", and compare it to the list on my url, if "XeR5TY67rgf" is not on my valid user list, run in demo mode. If it exists write "XeR5TY67rgf" into the Pass File license field. In order to get a unique license Key, can I use his PC's CPU Id ? Or something unique and useful [ relatively less likely to change ]. If so let's say this CPU ID is "CPU_01-02-ABC", I can encrypt it to something like "XeR5TY67rgf", and pass it to Paypal as product Id in the hidden html form field, then I'll get it from Paypal's email notification, and add it to the valid license Key # list on the url. So, even if a hacker knows it uses CPU Id, he can't write it into the Pass file field, because only encrypted Ids are valid Ids. And only my program knows how to generate the encrypted Ids. And even if another hacker knows the encrypted Id is hidden in the html form input field, as long as it's not on my url list, it's still invalid. Can anyone find any flaw in the above system ? Is it practical ? And most importantly how do I get hold of this unique ID that can represent a user's PC ? Frank

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  • Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

    - by David Easley
    Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

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  • What's the best practice to add default function to jQuery Dialog open/close events?

    - by BlueFox
    Hi All, I'm trying to define some default behaviours for my jQuery Dialogs like the following: (function($) { /** * Overriding default options **/ $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $.ui.dialog.defaults.open = function() { if ($('.ui-widget-overlay').length == 0) return; if ($.browser.msie) { // scrollbar fix for IE $('html').css('overflow-y','hidden'); $('html').css('overflow-x','hidden'); } else { // disable scrollbar for other browsers $('body').css('overflow','hidden'); } }; $.ui.dialog.defaults.beforeclose = function(event, ui) { if ($('.ui-widget-overlay').length == 0) return; if ($.browser.msie) { // scrollbar fix for IE $('html').css('overflow-y','auto'); $('html').css('overflow-x','auto'); } else { // disable scrollbar for other browsers $('body').css('overflow','auto'); } }; })(jQuery); The above works when I have no custom open/beforeclose function specified when the dialog is created. So I'm wondering what is the best practice to add these functionality into all my dialogs, while preserving the ability to specify open/beforeclose functions.

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