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  • A Linker Resolution Problem in a C++ Program

    - by Vlad
    We have two source files, a.cpp and b.cpp and a header file named constructions.h. We define a simple C++ class with the same name (class M, for instance) in each source file, respectively. The file a.cpp looks like this: #include "iostream" #include "constructions.h" class M { int i; public: M(): i( -1 ) { cout << "M() from a.cpp" << endl; } M( int a ) : i( a ) { cout << "M(int) from a.cpp, i: " << i << endl; } M( const M& b ) { i = b.i; cout << "M(M&) from a.cpp, i: " << i << endl; } M& operator = ( M& b ) { i = b.i; cout << "M::operator =(), i: " << i << endl; return *this; } virtual ~M(){ cout << "M::~M() from a.cpp" << endl; } operator int() { cout << "M::operator int() from a.cpp" << endl; return i; } }; void test1() { cout << endl << "Example 1" << endl; M b1; cout << "b1: " << b1 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 2" << endl; M b2 = 5; cout << "b2: " << b2 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 3" << endl; M b3(6); cout << "b3: " << b3 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 4" << endl; M b4 = b1; cout << "b4: " << b4 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 5" << endl; M b5; b5 = b2; cout << "b5: " << b5 << endl; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { test1(); test2(); cin.get(); return 0; } The file b.cpp looks like this: #include "iostream" #include "constructions.h" class M { public: M() { cout << "M() from b.cpp" << endl; } ~M() { cout << "M::~M() from b.cpp" << endl; } }; void test2() { M m; } Finally, the file constructions.h contains only the declaration of the function "test2()" (which is defined in "b.cpp"), so that it can be used in "a.cpp": using namespace std; void test2(); We compiled and linked these three files using either VS2005 or the GNU 4.1.0 compiler and the 2.16.91 ld linker under Suse. The results are surprising and different between the two build environments. But in both cases it looks like the linker gets confused about which definition of the class M it should use. If we comment out the definition of test2() from b.cpp and its invocation from a.cpp, then all the C++ objects created in test1() are of the type M defined in a.cpp and the program executes normally under Windows and Suse. Here is the run output under Windows: Example 1 M() from a.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: -1 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: -1 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: -1 Example 5 M() from a.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp If we enable the definition of test2() in "b.cpp" but comment out its invocation from main(), then the results are different. Under Suse, the C++ objects created in test1() are still of the type M defined in a.cpp and the program still seems to execute normally. The VS2005 versions behave differently in Debug or Release mode: in Debug mode, the program still seems to execute normally, but in Release mode, b1 and b5 are of the type M defined in b.cpp (as the constructor invocation proves), although the other member functions called (including the destructor), belong to M defined in a.cpp. Here is the run output for the executable built in Release mode: Example 1 M() from b.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: 4206872 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: 4206872 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: 4206872 Example 5 M() from b.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp Finally, if we allow the call to test2() from main, the program misbehaves in all circumstances (that is under Suse and under Windows in both Debug and Release modes). The Windows-Debug version finds a memory corruption around the variable m, defined in test2(). Here is the Windows output in Release mode (test2() seems to have created an instance of M defined in b.cpp): Example 1 M() from b.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: 4206872 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: 4206872 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: 4206872 Example 5 M() from b.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M() from b.cpp M::~M() from b.cpp And here is the Suse output. The objects created in test1() are of the type M defined in a.cpp but the object created in test2() is also of the type M defined in a.cpp, unlike the object created under Windows which is of the type M defined in b.cpp. The program crashed in the end: Example 1 M() from a.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: -1 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: -1 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: -1 Example 5 M() from a.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp Segmentation fault (core dumped) I couldn't make the angle brackets appear using Markdown, so I used quotes around the header file name iostream. Otherwise, the code could be copied verbatim and tried. It is purely scholastic. The statement cin.get() at the end of main() was included just to facilitate running the program directly from VS2005 (cause it to display the output window until we could analyze the output). We are looking for a software engineer in Sunnyvale, CA and may offer that position to the programmer capable of providing an intelligent and comprehensive explanation of these anomalies. I can be contacted at [email protected].

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  • Sending hidden fields via POST in iPhone in-app email

    - by Michael
    I'm letting my App's user send email from within the app to share some content on myserver. To do so I need to include a button with two bits of data and I want to use POST to keep it somewhat hidden. I've decided to add an html form using POST and two hidden fields in the email rather, like so: NSString *buttonCode = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<form method='post' action='http://www.example.com/iphone/nifty.php'> <input type='hidden' name='dataOne' value='%@'> <input type='hidden' name='dataTwo' value='%@'> <input type='submit'value='Submit'></form>",dataOne, dataTwo]; NSString *emailBody = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<b>%@ - %@</b>\n\n<HR WIDTH=200 SIZE=2 COLOR=#755f0f ALIGN=CENTER>\n Here is a email:<br><br>%@", dateString, timeString, buttonCode]; [picker setMessageBody:emailBody isHTML:YES]; I've confirmed by looking at the raw source of the email that the form is constructed correctly and I've copied and pasted it into a web page and it works. So here is the problem. When I click on the button in the received email (using apple's mail client) the dataOne and dataTwo variables don't get passed to my server. Is there a better way to do this or is the issue with my mail client?

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  • json-framework: EXC_BAD_ACCESS on stringWithObject

    - by Vegar
    UPDATE: I found that the reason for the previous error was an error in the documentation. The method should be named proxyForJson, not jsonProxyObject... But I'm still stuck, though. I now get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS error inside stringWithObject some where. Any clues? UPDATE 2: My proxyForJson implementation is a cut-n-paste from then documentation: - (id)proxyForJson { return [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: Navn, @"Navn", Adresse, @"Adresse", Alder, @"Alder", nil]; } Trying to make json serialization work for my custom objective-c class. As I understand the documentation, json-framework can serialize custom objects, if they implement the jsonProxyObject method. So I have this class: @interface MyObject : NSObject { NSString *Name; NSString *Addresse; NSInteger Age; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *Name; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *Addresse; @property (nonatomic, assign) NSInteger Age; - (id)jsonProxyObject; @end And I try to serialize an array with some instances in it: [json stringWithObject:list error:&error]; But all I get is he following error: "JSON serialisation not supported for MyObject" I guess the jsonWriter can't find my jsonProxyObject method for some reason, buy why? Regards.

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  • Django Upload form to S3 img and form validation

    - by citadelgrad
    I'm fairly new to both Django and Python. This is my first time using forms and upload files with django. I can get the uploads and saves to the database to work fine but it fails to valid email or check if the users selected a file to upload. I've spent a lot of time reading documentation trying to figure this out. Thanks! views.py def submit_photo(request): if request.method == 'POST': def store_in_s3(filename, content): conn = S3Connection(AWS_ACCESS_KEY_ID, AWS_SECRET_ACCESS_KEY) bucket = conn.create_bucket(AWS_STORAGE_BUCKET_NAME) mime = mimetypes.guess_type(filename)[0] k = Key(bucket) k.key = filename k.set_metadata("Content-Type", mime) k.set_contents_from_file(content) k.set_acl('public-read') if imghdr.what(request.FILES['image_url']): qw = request.FILES['image_url'] filename = qw.name image = filename content = qw.file url = "http://bpd-public.s3.amazonaws.com/" + image data = {image_url : url, user_email : request.POST['user_email'], user_twittername : request.POST['user_twittername'], user_website : request.POST['user_website'], user_desc : request.POST['user_desc']} s = BeerPhotos(data) if s.is_valid(): #import pdb; pdb.set_trace() s.save() store_in_s3(filename, content) return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('photos.views.thanks')) return s.errors else: return errors else: form = BeerPhotoForm() return render_to_response('photos/submit_photos.html', locals(),context_instance=RequestContext(request) forms.py class BeerPhotoForm(forms.Form): image_url = forms.ImageField(widget=forms.FileInput, required=True,label='Beer',help_text='Select a image of no more than 2MB.') user_email = forms.EmailField(required=True,help_text='Please type a valid e-mail address.') user_twittername = forms.CharField() user_website = forms.URLField(max_length=128,) user_desc = forms.CharField(required=True,widget=forms.Textarea,label='Description',) template.html <div id="stylized" class="myform"> <form action="." method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data" width="450px"> <h1>Photo Submission</h1> {% for field in form %} {{ field.errors }} {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {% endfor %} <label><span>Click here</span></label> <input type="submit" class="greenbutton" value="Submit your Photo" /> </form> </div>

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  • jquery newbie: combine validate with hidding submit button.

    - by Jeffb
    I'm new a jQuery. I have gotten validate to work with my form (MVC 1.0 / C#) with this: <script type="text/javascript"> if (document.forms.length > 0) { document.forms[0].id = "PageForm"; document.forms[0].name = "PageForm"; } $(document).ready(function() { $("#PageForm").validate({ rules: { SigP: { required: true } }, messages: { SigP: "<font color='red'><b>A Sig Value is required. </b></font>" } }); }); </script> I also want to hide the Submit button to prevent twitchy mouse syndrome from causing duplicate entry before the controller completes and redirects (I'm using an GPR pattern). The following works for this purpose: <script type="text/javascript"> // // prevent double-click on submit // jQuery('input[type=submit]').click(function() { if (jQuery.data(this, 'clicked')) { return false; } else { jQuery.data(this, 'clicked', true); return true; } }); </script> However, I can't get the two to work together. Specifically, if validate fails after the Submit button is clicked (which happens given how the form works), then I can't get the form submitted again unless I do a browser refresh that resets the 'clicked' property. How can I rewrite the second method above to not set the clicked property unless the form validates? Thx.

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  • How can I import a text file into javascript from an external website using jquery $get()?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    When the button in the following script gets clicked, it should load in the contents of the file "http://tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt" and display it on the screen. What is the correct syntaxt so that the .get() function retrieves the data from the external website and puts it in #content? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(function() { $('#toggleButton').click(loadDataFromExernalWebsite); }); function loadDataFromExernalWebsite() { $('#content').html('new content'); //$.get("http://tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt", function(data) { alert(data); }, ); } </script> </head> <body> <p>Click the button to load content:</p> <p id="content"></p> <input id="toggleButton" type="button" value="load content"/> </body> </html>

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  • FasterCSV Parsing issue?

    - by Schroedinger
    G'day guys, I'm currently using fastercsv to construct ActiveRecord elements and I can't for the life of me see this bug (tired), but for some reason when it creates, if in the rake file i output the column I want to save as the element value, it puts out correctly, as either a Trade or a Quote but when I try to save it into the activerecord, it won't work. FasterCSV.foreach("input.csv", :headers => true) do |row| d = DateTime.parse(row[1]+" "+row[2]) offset = Rational(row[3].to_i,24) o = d.new_offset(offset) t = Trade.create( :name => row[0], :type => row[4], :time => o, :price => row[6].to_f, :volume => row[7].to_i, :bidprice => row[10].to_f, :bidsize => row[11].to_i, :askprice => row[14].to_f, :asksize => row[15].to_i ) end Ideas? Name and Type are both strings, every other value works except for type. Have I missed something really simple?

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  • MySQL Connector for .NET - Is it REALLY mature?

    - by effkay
    After spending a miserable month with MySQL/.NET/EntityFramework, my findings: Support for Entity Framework is VERY primitive, please use it for student-subjects type of database. Kindly do not consider it using for serious development as they ARE STILL unable to sort out VERY BASIC things like: it DOES NOT support unsigned stuff it DOES NOT support unsigned columns as FK; if you try, it gives you a beautiful exception; "The specified value is not an instance of a valid constant type\r\nParameter name: value" [http://bugs.mysql.com/bug.php?id=44801] blob cannot store more then few KB; cannot compare null object with a column with a LEGAL null value [http://bugs.mysql.com/bug.php?id=49936] they are unable to write VERY PRIMITIVE check to return date as null if value in column is 0000-00-00 00:00:00 if you use Visual Studio; sorry; mysql/sun guys hate Microsoft, they will NOT LET you import more then two or three tables (for Micky Mouse type of tables, they allow five; but thats it) - if you try, it will throw TIME OUT error on your face ... unless you are smart enough to change the connection time in connection string Anyone who would like to add in above list? WISH I would have seen a list like this before I selected MySQL :(

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  • How to use an OSGi service from a web application?

    - by Jaime Soriano
    I'm trying to develop a web application that is going to be launched from a HTTP OSGi service, this application needs to use other OSGi service (db4o OSGi), for what I need a reference to a BundleContext. I have tried two different approaches to get the OSGi context in the web application: Store the BundleContext of the Activator in an static field of a class that the web service can import and use. Use FrameworkUtil.getBundle(this.getClass()).getBundleContext() (being this an instance of MainPage, a class of the web application). I think that first option is completely wrong, but anyway I'm having problems with the class loaders in both options. In the second one it raises a LinkageError: java.lang.LinkageError: loader constraint violation: loader (instance of org/apache/felix/framework/ModuleImpl$ModuleClassLoader) previously initiated loading for a different type with name "com/db4o/ObjectContainer" Also tried with Equinox and I have a similar error: java.lang.LinkageError: loader constraint violation: loader (instance of org/eclipse/osgi/internal/baseadaptor/DefaultClassLoader) previously initiated loading for a different type with name "com/db4o/ObjectContainer" The code that provokes the exception is: ServiceReference reference = context.getServiceReference(Db4oService.class.getName()); Db4oService service = (Db4oService)context.getService(reference); database = service.openFile("foo.db"); The exception is raised in the last line, database class is ObjectContainer, if I change the type of this variable to Object exception is not raised, but It's not useful as an Object :)

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  • Base class -> Derived class and vice-versa conversions in C++

    - by Ivan Nikolaev
    Hi! I have the following example code: #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; class Event { public: string type; string source; }; class KeyEvent : public Event { public: string key; string modifier; }; class MouseEvent : public Event { public: string button; int x; int y; }; void handleEvent(KeyEvent e) { if(e.key == "ENTER") cout << "Hello world! The Enter key was pressed ;)" << endl; } Event generateEvent() { KeyEvent e; e.type = "KEYBOARD_EVENT"; e.source = "Keyboard0"; e.key = "SPACEBAR"; e.modifier = "none"; return e; } int main() { KeyEvent e = generateEvent(); return 0; } I can't compile it, G++ throws an error of kind: main.cpp: In function 'int main()': main.cpp:47:29: error: conversion from 'Event' to non-scalar type 'KeyEvent' requested I know that the error is obvious for C++ guru's, but I can't understand why I can't do the conversion from base class object to derived one. Can someone suggest me the solution of the problem that I have? Thx in advice

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  • Ideas on C# DSL syntax

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am thinking about implementing a templating engine using only the plain C#/.NET 4 syntax with the benefit of static typing. Then on top of that templating language we could create Domain Specific Languages (let's say HTML4, XHTML, HTML5, RSS, Atom, Multipart Emails and so on). One of the best DSLs in .NET 4 (if not only one) is SharpDOM. It implements HTML-specific DSL. Looking at SharpDOM, I am really impressed of what you can do using .NET (4). So I believe there are some not-so-well-known ways for implementing custom DSLs in .NET 4. Possibly not as well as in Ruby, but still. So my the question would be: what are the C# (4) specific syntax features that can be used for implementing custom DSLs? Examples I can think of right now: // HTML - doesn't look tooo readable :) div(clas: "head", ul(clas: "menu", id: "main-menu", () => { foreach(var item in allItems) { li(item.Name) } }) // See how much noise it has with all the closing brackets? ) // Plain text (Email or something) - probably too simple Line("Dear {0}", user.Name); Line("You have been kicked off from this site"); For me it is really hard to come up with the syntax with least amount of noise. Please NOTE that I am not talking about another language (Boo, IronRuby etc), neither I am not talking about different templating engines (NHaml, Spark, StringTemplate etc). Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • GTK implementation of MessageBox

    - by Bernard
    I have been trying to implement Win32's MessageBox using GTK. The app using SDL/OpenGL, so this isn't a GTK app. I handle the initialisation (gtk_init) sort of stuff inside the MessageBox function as follows: int MessageBox(HWND hwnd, const char* text, const char* caption, UINT type){ GtkWidget *window = NULL; GtkWidget *dialog = NULL; gtk_init(&gtkArgc, &gtkArgv); window = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); g_signal_connect(G_OBJECT(window), "delete_event", G_CALLBACK(delete_event), NULL); g_signal_connect(G_OBJECT(window), "destroy", G_CALLBACK(destroy), NULL); // gcallback calls gtk_main_quit() gtk_init_add((GtkFunction)gcallback, NULL); if (type & MB_YESNO) { dialog = gtk_message_dialog_new(GTK_WINDOW(window), GTK_DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT, GTK_MESSAGE_QUESTION, GTK_BUTTONS_YES_NO, text); } else { dialog = gtk_message_dialog_new(GTK_WINDOW(window), GTK_DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT, GTK_MESSAGE_INFO, GTK_BUTTONS_OK, text); } gtk_window_set_title(GTK_WINDOW(dialog), caption); gint result = gtk_dialog_run(GTK_DIALOG(dialog)); gtk_main(); gtk_widget_destroy(dialog); if (type & MB_YESNO) { switch (result) { default: case GTK_RESPONSE_DELETE_EVENT: case GTK_RESPONSE_NO: return IDNO; break; case GTK_RESPONSE_YES: return IDYES; break; } } return IDOK;} Now, I am by no means an experienced GTK programmer, and I realise that I'm probably doing something(s) horribly wrong. However, my problem is that the last dialog popped up with this function stays around until the process exits. Any ideas?

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  • Why do properties require explicit typing during compilation?

    - by ctpenrose
    Compilation using property syntax requires the type of the receiver to be known at compile time. I may not understand something, but this seems like a broken or incomplete compiler implementation considering that Objective-C is a dynamic language. The property "comment" is defined with: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *comment; and synthesized with: @synthesize comment; "document" is an instance of one of several classes which conform to: @protocol DocumentComment <NSObject> @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *comment; @end and is simply declared as: id document; When using the following property syntax: stringObject = document.comment; the following error is generated by gcc: error: request for member 'comment' in something not a structure or union However, the following equivalent receiver-method syntax, compiles without warning or error and works fine, as expected, at run-time: stringObject = [document comment]; I don't understand why properties require the type of the receiver to be known at compile time. Is there something I am missing? I simply use the latter syntax to avoid the error in situations where the receiving object has a dynamic type. Properties seem half-baked.

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  • OSMDroid simple example required

    - by Bex
    Hi! I am trying to create an app that uses offline maps and custom tiles. For this I have decided to use OSMDroid and have included the jar within my project. I will create my custom tiles using MOBAC. I have been directed to these examples: http://code.google.com/p/osmdroid/source/browse/#svn%2Ftrunk%2FOpenStreetMapViewer%2Fsrc%2Forg%2Fosmdroid%2Fsamples but I am struggling to follow them as I am new to both java and android. I have created a class file called test (which I have created following an example!): public class test extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ protected static final String PROVIDER_NAME = LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); MapView map = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.map); map.setTileSource(TileSourceFactory.MAPQUESTOSM); map.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); map.setMultiTouchControls(true); map.getController().setZoom(16); map.getController().setCenter(new GeoPoint(30266000, -97739000)); } } with a layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <org.osmdroid.views.MapView android:id="@+id/map" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" tilesource="MapquestOSM" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> When I run this I see no map, just an empty grid. I think this is due to my tilesource but I'm not sure what I need to change it to. Can anyone help? Bex

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  • Trying to build a Drupal-like CMS in ASP.NET MVC - Newbie Questions

    - by user252160
    I am new to ASP.NET MVC, and the ASP.NET technology in general, so, please, excuse the stupidity of my questions. I have a lot of experience with php development and CMS customization (Drupal and Wordpress mainly), and I wanted to know whether some techniques could be applied in asp.net mvc. I want to know what exactly could be modified without recompiling an already built application Can I edit the views without recompiling the app. Can I create custom themes ? Can I add plugins compiled as dlls and use them at runtime. Can I "mark" the assembly in such a way that the web application will check on the next request and will reference it, without me manually adding it to the project and recompiling. I've heard that this is possible. I will make sure to add more when something comes up. The reason I am asking is because I'd like to try and develop a Drupal-like CMS (custom types, views, etc) in asp.net mvc. The dynamism of php will be quite a challenge to replicate in a compiled technology, yet I am ready to try.

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  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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  • How to get aspnet_Users.UserId for an anonymous user in ASP.NET membership ?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am trying to get the aspnet membership UserId field from an anonymous user. I have enabled anonymous identification in web.config : <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" /> I have also created a profile: <profile> <providers> <clear /> <add name="AspNetSqlProfileProvider" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> <properties> <add name="Email" type="System.String" allowAnonymous="true"/> <add name="SomethingElse" type="System.Int32" allowAnonymous="true"/> </properties> </profile> I see data in my aspnetdb\aspnet_Users table for anonymous users that have had profile information set. Userid PropertyNames PropertyValuesString 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5 Email:S:0:17: [email protected] I just need to find how to get the 'Userid' value. It is not possible to use : Membership.Provider.GetUser(Request.AnonymousID, false); The Request.AnonymousID is a different GUID and not equal to 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5. Is there any way to get this Userid. I want to associate it with incomplete activity for an anonymous user. Using the primary key of aspnet_Users is preferable to having to create my own GUID (which I could do and store in the profile). This is basically a dupe of this question but the question was never actually answered.

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  • Implementing BindingList<T>

    - by EtherealMonkey
    I am trying to learn more about BindingList because I believe that it will help me with a project that I am working on. Currently, I have an object class (ScannedImage) that is a subtype of a class (HashedImage) that subtypes a native .Net object (Image). There is no reason why I couldn't move the two subtypes together. I am simply subtyping an object that I had previously constructed, but I will now be storing my ScannedImage object in an RDB (well, not technically - only the details and probably the thumbnail). Also, the object class has member types that are my own custom types (Keywords). I am using a custom datagridview to present these objects, but am handling all changes to the ScannedImage object with my own code. As you can probably imagine, I have quite a few events to handle that occur in these base types. So, if I changed my object to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would the object collection (implementing BindingList) receive notifications of changes to the ScannedImage object? Also, if Keywords were to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would changes be accessible to the BindingList through the ScannedImage object? Sorry if this seems rather newbish. I only recently discovered the BindingList and not having formal training in C# programming - am having a difficult time moving forward with this. Also, if anyone has any good reference material, I would be thankful for links. Obviously, I have perused the MSDN Library. I have found a few good links on the web, but it seems that a lot of people are now using WPF and ObservableCollection. My project is based on Winforms and .Net3.5 framework. TIA

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  • twitter bootstrap typeahead 2.0.4 ajax error

    - by Adam Levitt
    I have the following code which definitely returns a proper data result if I use the 2.0.0 version, but for some reason bootstrap's typeahead plugin is giving me an error. I pasted it below the code sample: <input id="test" type="text" /> $('#test').typeahead({ source: function(typeahead, query) { return $.post('/Profile/searchFor', { query: query }, function(data) { return typeahead.process(data); }); } }); When I run this example I'm getting a jQuery bug that says the following: ** item is undefined matcher(item=undefined)bootst...head.js (line 104) <br/>(?)(item=undefined)bootst...head.js (line 91) <br/>f(a=function(), b=function(), c=false)jquery....min.js (line 2) <br/>lookup(event=undefined)bootst...head.js (line 90) <br/>keyup(e=Object { originalEvent=Event keyup, type="keyup", timeStamp=145718131, more...})bootst...head.js (line 198) <br/>f()jquery....min.js (line 2) <br/>add(c=Object { originalEvent=Event keyup, type="keyup", timeStamp=145718131, <br/>more...})jquery....min.js (line 3) <br/>add(a=keyup charCode=0, keyCode=70)jquery....min.js (line 3) <br/>[Break On This Error] <br/>return item.toLowerCase().indexOf(this.query.toLowerCase())** Any thoughts? ... The same code works in the 2.0.0 version of the plugin, but fails to write to my knockout object model.

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  • Are SharePoint site templates really less performant than site definitions?

    - by Jim
    So, it seems in the SharePoint blogosphere that everybody just copies and pastes the same bullet points from other blogs. One bullet point I've seen is that SharePoint site templates are less performant than site definitions because site definitions are stored on the file system. Is that true? It seems odd that site templates would be less performant. It's my understanding that all site content lives in a database, whether you use a site template or a site definition. A site template is applied once to the database, and from then on the site should not care if the content was created using a site template or not. So, does anybody have an architectural reason why a site template would be less performant than a site definition? Edit: Links to the blogs that say there is a performance difference: From MSDN: Because it is slow to store templates in and retrieve them from the database, site templates can result in slower performance. From DevX: However, user templates in SharePoint can lead to performance problems and may not be the best approach if you're trying to create a set of reusable templates for an entire organization. From IT Footprint: Because it is slow to store templates in and retrieve them from the database, site templates can result in slower performance. Templates in the database are compiled and executed every time a page is rendered. From Branding SharePoint:Custom site definitions hold the following advantages over custom templates: Data is stored directly on the Web servers, so performance is typically better. At a minimum, I think the above articles are incomplete, and I think several are misleading based on what I know of SharePoints architecture. I read another blog post that argued against the performance differences, but I can't find the link.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Ajax.BeginForm eats params of submit button clicked. Looks like bug.

    - by RonnBlack
    If you are using Ajax.BeginForm() with multiple submit buttons similar to this: // View.aspx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "MyControl", })) { %> <span id="MyControl"> <% Html.RenderPartial("MyControl"); %> </span> <% } %> //MyControl.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <input name="prev" type="submit" value="prev" /> <input name="next" type="submit" value="next" /> //... Everything is submitted to the controller fine but the params for the submit button that was clicked are absent from the Request. In otherwords Request["next"] and Request["prev"] are always null. I looked in to the JavaScript in Microsoft.MvcAjax.js and it looks like the function Sys_Mvc_MvcHelpers$_serializeForm completely skips over the inputs that are of type 'submit'. This doesn't seem logical at all. How else can you find out what button has been clicked? It looks like a bug to me. Is there any logical reason to skip these form parameters?

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  • Is there a difference between plain text emails, and multipart emails with only plain text?

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm using Rails to send emails and I just want to send a plain text email (there is no corresponding HTML part). I've noticed that if I just have one file named email.text.plain.erb it actually generates a multipart email with one part (the plain text part) like this: Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: Quoted-printable Content-Disposition: inline text of the email here... --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362-- But if I take out the text.plain part and name it email.erb ActionMailer generates a regular plain text email without multipart like this: Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 text of the email here... Both work fine most of the time (so this is kind of nitpicky), but I guess my question is whether the second one is more correct. My goal here is just to make sure deliverability is as high as possible across a wide variety of devices and email clients. I've read that plain text emails can have slightly better deliverability rates than html and was just curious if throwing in this multipart (even if it only contained a plain text part) might throw off some of the dumber email clients. Thanks for your help!

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  • Textbox autofill not in correct position in safari

    - by jerjer
    Hello All, Has anyone experience this weird issue on safari? Textbox autofill is not at its correct position, please see screenshot below. I have been searching for answers in google for almost a day, still no luck. This is the built-in autofill feature of safari. Here is the markup: index.php <html> <body> <div id="nav"></div> <div id="content"> <iframe style="width:100%;height:100%" src="add_user.php" frameborder="0"></iframe> </div> .... </body> </html> add_user.php <html> .... <body> <form method="post"> <h3>Add User (Admin only) <div id="msg">Please enter First and Last Name.</div> <ul> <li><label>* Email</label> <input type="text" id="email" /></li> <li><label>* First Name</label> <input type="text" id="fname" /></li> <li><label>* Last Name</label> <input type="text" id="lname" /></li> .... </ul> </form> </body> </html> I am suspecting that this is caused by the iframe, but it works just fine in other browsers. Also I could not change the page design(using iframe) right away for practical reasons. Thanks

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  • Improving Performance of Crystal Reports using Stored Procedures

    - by mjh41
    Recently I updated a Crystal Report that was doing all of its work on the client-side (Selects, formulas, etc) and changed all of the logic to be done on the server-side through Stored Procedures using an Oracle 11g database. Now the report is only being used to display the output of the stored procedures and nothing else. Everything I have read on this subject says that utilizing stored procedures should greatly reduce the running time of the report, but it still takes roughly the same amount of time to retrieve the data from the server. Is there something wrong with the stored procedure I have written, or is the issue in the Crystal Report itself? Here is the stored procedure code along with the package that defines the necessary REF CURSOR. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL ( invdata_cur IN OUT sftnecm.inv_data_all_pkg.inv_data_all_type, dCurrentEndDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type, dCurrentStartDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type ) AS BEGIN OPEN invdata_cur FOR SELECT vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS, vw_METADATA.CASENUMBER, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE < dCurrentStartDate AND ( (vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is null OR vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS != 'Closed') OR TO_DATE(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') >= dCurrentStartDate) then 1 else 0 end) InventoryBegin, (CASE WHEN (to_date(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate) AND vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE is not null AND vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is not null then 1 else 0 end) CaseClosed, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate then 1 else 0 end) CaseCreated FROM vw_METADATA WHERE vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE <= dCurrentEndDate ORDER BY vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS; END SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL; And the package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE inv_data_all_pkg AS TYPE inv_data_all_type IS REF CURSOR RETURN inv_data_all_temp%ROWTYPE; END inv_data_all_pkg;

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  • Two Way Data Binding With a Object in WPF,Image Control

    - by Candy
    Sorry, my English is not very good, I have a object "Stuffs" "Stuffs" have a Property “Icon” now: xaml <Button Click="Button_Click"><Image Width="80" Height="80" Source="{Binding Path=Icon,Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/></Button> cs private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { IconFloder.Title = "Icon"; String IconFloderPath = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + ItemIconFloder; if (!System.IO.Directory.Exists(IconFloderPath)) System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(IconFloderPath); IconFloder.InitialDirectory = IconFloderPath; IconFloder.Filter = "Image File|*.jpeg"; IconFloder.ValidateNames = true; IconFloder.CheckPathExists = true; IconFloder.CheckFileExists = true; if (IconFloder.ShowDialog() == true) { HideImage.Text = ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName; ((sender as Button).Content as Image).Source = new ImageConverter().Convert(ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName, Type.GetType("System.Windows.Media.ImageSource"), null, new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en-US")) as ImageSource; } } class ImageConverter:IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (value is string&&!String.IsNullOrEmpty(value.ToString())) { try { return new BitmapImage(new Uri(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + value)); } catch { } } return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to click buttons, change the picture, Also change Data Binding Stuffs.Icon But failed,I have no idea?I need help? I do not know whether I speak clearly

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