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  • Better code for accessing fields in a matlab structure array?

    - by John
    I have a matlab structure array Modles1 of size (1x180) that has fields a, b, c, ..., z. I want to understand how many distinct values there are in each of the fields. i.e. max(grp2idx([foo(:).a])) The above works if the field a is a double. {foo(:).a} needs to be used in the case where the field a is a string/char. Here's my current code for doing this. I hate having to use the eval, and what is essentially a switch statement. Is there a better way? names = fieldnames(Models1); for ix = 1 : numel(names) className = eval(['class(Models1(1).',names{ix},')']); if strcmp('double', className) || strcmp('logical',className) eval([' values = [Models1(:).',names{ix},'];']); elseif strcmp('char', className) eval([' values = {Models1(:).',names{ix},'};']); else disp(['Unrecognized class: ', className]); end % this line requires the statistics toolbox. [g, gn, gl] = grp2idx(values); fprintf('%30s : %4d\n',names{ix},max(g)); end

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  • Working with libpath with java reflection.

    - by C. Ross
    I'm dynamically loading a class and calling a method on it. This class does JNI. When I call the class, java attempts to load the library. This causes an error because the library is not on the libpath. I'm calling from instead a jar so I can't easily change the libpath (especially since the library is not in the same directory or a sub directory of the jar). I do know the path of the library, but how can I load it before I load the class. Current code: public Class<?> loadClass(String name) throws ClassNotFoundException { if(!CLASS_NAME.equals(name)) return super.loadClass(name); try { URL myUrl = new URL(classFileUrl); URLConnection connection = myUrl.openConnection(); InputStream input = connection.getInputStream(); byte[] classData = readConnectionToArray(input); return defineClass(CLASS_NAME, classData, 0, classData.length); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } catch (IOException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } } Exception: Can't find library libvcommon.so java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: vcommon (A file or directory in the path name does not exist.) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithPath(ClassLoader.java:998) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithClassLoader(ClassLoader.java:962) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(System.java:465) at vcommon.(vcommon.java:103) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initializeImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initialize(J9VMInternals.java:200) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:37) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:599) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.reflection.ReflectionvProcessor.calculateV(ReflectionvProcessor.java:36) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.UTLTestCase.execute(UTLTestCase.java:42) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.TestSuite.execute(TestSuite.java:15) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.execute(Testvendor.java:101) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.main(Testvendor.java:58) Related: Dynamic loading a class in java with a different package name

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  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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  • XSLT for-each from query results

    - by Ben Record
    I've been on a hunt for a while trying to find a solution to this but I cannot find anywhere that addresses this problem. I'm running a SQL query through XSLT which will return three rows. Here is the query: <query name="OrderedProductNames" rowElementName ="OrderedItem"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select OrderedProductName, Quantity from Orders_ShoppingCart where OrderNumber = 101689 // Hard coded order number for testing purposes. ]]> </sql> </query> Ideally, I would like to iterate through each row returned and do a choose when which is tested on a variable from the current row being inspected in the for-each loop, but I am not entirely sure thhis is possible. My secondary thought would be to use the for-each loop as a way to inject hidden HTML input elements with the values I would need, then I could write a javascript function to complete what I'm trying to do. Any suggestion on how I would go about completing either task would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Creating Actions from UIActionSheets help

    - by user337174
    I am using two UIAction sheets within my current project. I can get one to work perfectly fine but when i insert a second action sheet it runs the same arguements as the first. How do i define the actionsheets seperatly? -(IBAction) phoneButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Phone: %@",phone],nil]; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [actionSheet release]; } -(IBAction) mapButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *mapActionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Map"],nil]; mapActionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [mapActionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [mapActionSheet release]; } -(void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if(buttonIndex == 0){ NSString *callPhone = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@",phone]; NSLog(@"Calling: %@", callPhone); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:callPhone]]; } }

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  • Rails paginate existing array of ActiveRecord results

    - by SaoiseK
    Hello, I generally use will_paginate for the pagination in my app, but have hit a stumbler on my search feature. I'm using Thinking Sphinx for doing my full-text search, which returns results paginated. The problem I'm having is that after I've received the results from Thinking Sphinx, I need to merge them with some other results and re-order them. Once I've finished processing them I have an Array of results that is very different from the original from TS. As there could be 1000+ results in this Array Pagination is a necessity. The problem is that I can't figure out how to get will_paginate to play with an existing array. I've done some research and it seems the only solutions to this problem are from several years ago and are based around the old built-in Paginator class. The most recent one I could find that makes use of will_paginate was from devchix from mid-2007: http://www.devchix.com/2007/07/23/will_paginate-array/comment-page-1/ - I've given this a go but it doesn't seem to do anything for me. Are there any current methods for applying pagination (preferably via will_paginate) for existing arrays of AR results?

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  • Objective C code to handle large amount of data processing in iPhone

    - by user167662
    I had the following code that takes in 14 mb or more of image data encoded in base4 string and converts them to jpeg before writing to a file in iphone. It crashes my program giving the following error : Program received signal: “0”. warning: check_safe_call: could not restore current frame I tweak my program and it can process a few more images before the error appear again. My coding is as follows: // parameters is an array where the fourth element contains a list of images in base64 >encoded string NSMutableArray *imageStrList = (NSMutableArray*) [parameters objectAtIndex:5]; while (imageStrList.count != 0) { NSString *imgString = [imageStrList objectAtIndex:0]; // Create a file name using my own Utility class NSString *fileName = [Utility generateFileNName]; NSData *restoredImg = [NSData decodeWebSafeBase64ForString:imgString]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithData: restoredImg]; NSData *imgJPEG = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(img, 0.4f); [imgJPEG writeToFile:fileName atomically:YES]; [imageStrList removeObjectAtIndex:0]; } I tried playing around with UIImageJPEGRepresentation and found out that the lower the value, the more image it can processed but this should not be the way. I am wondering if there is anyway to free up memory of the imageStrList immediately after processing each image so that it can be used by the next one in the line.

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  • Should I invest in GraniteDS for Flex + Java development?

    - by Boden
    I'm new to Flex development, and RIAs in general. I've got a CRUD-style Java + Spring + Hibernate service on top of which I'm writing a Flex UI. Currently I'm using BlazeDS. This is an internal application running on a local network. It's become apparent to me that the way RIAs work is more similar to a desktop application than a web application in that we load up the entire model and work with it directly on the client (or at least the portion that we're interested in). This doesn't really jive well with BlazeDS because really it only supports remoting and not data management, thus it can become a lot of extra work to make sure that clients are in sync and to avoid reloading the model which can be large (especially since lazy loading is not possible). So it feels like what I'm left with is a situation where I have to treat my Flex application more like a regular old web application where I do a lot of fine grained loading of data. LiveCycle is too expensive. The free version of WebOrb for Java really only does remoting. Enter GraniteDS. As far as I can determine, it's the only free solution out there that has many of the data management features of LiveCycle. I've started to go through its documentation a bit and suddenly feel like it's yet another quagmire of framework that I'll have to learn just to get an application running. So my question(s) to the StackOverflow audience is: 1) do you recommend GraniteDS, especially if my current Java stack is Spring + Hibernate? 2) at what point do you feel like it starts to pay off? That is, at what level of application complexity do you feel that using GraniteDS really starts to make development that much better? In what ways?

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  • Is www.example.com/post/21/edit a RESTful URI? I think I know the answer, but have another question.

    - by tmadsen
    I'm almost afraid to post this question, there has to be an obvious answer I've overlooked, but here I go: Context: I am creating a blog for educational purposes (want to learn python and web.py). I've decided that my blog have posts, so I've created a Post class. I've also decided that posts can be created, read, updated, or deleted (so CRUD). So in my Post class, I've created methods that respond to POST, GET, PUT, and DELETE HTTP methods). So far so good. The current problem I'm having is a conceptual one, I know that sending a PUT HTTP message (with an edited Post) to, e.g., /post/52 should update post with id 52 with the body contents of the HTTP message. What I do not know is how to conceptually correctly serve the (HTML) edit page. Will doing it like this: /post/52/edit violate the idea of URI, as 'edit' is not a resource, but an action? On the other side though, could it be considered a resource since all that URI will respond to is a GET method, that will only return an HTML page? So my ultimate question is this: How do I serve an HTML page intended for user editing in a RESTful manner?

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  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

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  • How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

    - by cg
    For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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  • Weird stuttering issues not related to GC.

    - by Smills
    I am getting some odd stuttering issues with my game even though my FPS never seems to drop below 30. About every 5 seconds my game stutters. I was originally getting stuttering every 1-2 seconds due to my garbage collection issues, but I have sorted those and will often go 15-20 seconds without a garbage collection. Despite this, my game still stutters periodically even when there is no GC listed in logcat anywhere near the stutter. Even when I take out most of my code and simply make my "physics" code the below code I get this weird slowdown issue. I feel that I am missing something or overlooking something. Shouldn't that "elapsed" code that I put in stop any variance in the speed of the main character related to changes in FPS? Any input/theories would be awesome. Physics: private void updatePhysics() { //get current time long now = System.currentTimeMillis(); //added this to see if I could speed it up, it made no difference Thread myThread = Thread.currentThread(); myThread.setPriority(Thread.MAX_PRIORITY); //work out elapsed time since last frame in seconds double elapsed = (now - mLastTime2) / 1000.0; mLastTime2 = now; //measures FPS and displays in logcat once every 30 frames fps+=1/elapsed; fpscount+=1; if (fpscount==30) { fps=fps/fpscount; Log.i("myActivity","FPS: "+fps+" Touch: "+touch); fpscount=0; } //this should make the main character (theoretically) move upwards at a steady pace mY-=100*elapsed; //increase amount I translate the draw to = main characters Y //location if the main character goes upwards if (mY<=viewY) { viewY=mY; } }

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  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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  • Create static instances of a class inside said class in Python

    - by Samir Talwar
    Apologies if I've got the terminology wrong here—I can't think what this particular idiom would be called. I've been trying to create a Python 3 class that statically declares instances of itself inside itself—sort of like an enum would work. Here's a simplified version of the code I wrote: class Test: A = Test("A") B = Test("B") def __init__(self, value): self.value = value def __str__(self): return "Test: " + self.value print(str(Test.A)) print(str(Test.B)) Writing this, I got an exception on line 2 (A = Test("A")). I assume line 3 would also error if it had made it that far. Using __class__ instead of Test gives the same error. File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "<stdin>", line 2, in Test NameError: name 'Test' is not defined Is there any way to refer to the current class in a static context in Python? I could declare these particular variables outside the class or in a separate class, but for clarity's sake, I'd rather not if I can help it. To better demonstrate what I'm trying to do, here's the same example in Java: public class Test { private static final Test A = new Test("A"); private static final Test B = new Test("B"); private final String value; public Test(String value) { this.value = value; } public String toString() { return "Test: " + value; } public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(A); System.out.println(B); } } This works as you would expect: it prints: Test: A Test: B How can I do the same thing in Python?

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • Renderbuffer Width (Open GL ES)

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I'm currently experiencing an issue with an Open GL ES renderbuffer where the backing and width are are both set to 15. Is there any way to set them to the width of 320 and 480? My project is built up on Apple's EAGLView class and ES1Renderer, but I've moved it from the app delegate to a controller. I also moved the CADisplayLink outside of it (I update my game logic with the timestamp from this) Any help would be greatly appreciated. I add the glview to the window as follows: CGRect applicationFrame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; [window addSubview:gameController.glview]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; I synthesize the controller and the glview within it. The EAGLView and Renderer are otherwise unmodified. Renderer Initialization: // Get the layer CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = TRUE; eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:FALSE], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; renderer = [[ES1Renderer alloc] init]; Render "resize from layer" Method - (BOOL)resizeFromLayer:(CAEAGLLayer *)layer { // Allocate color buffer backing based on the current layer size glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context renderbufferStorage:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES fromDrawable:layer]; glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_WIDTH_OES, &backingWidth); glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_HEIGHT_OES, &backingHeight); NSLog(@"Backing Width:%i and Height: %i", backingWidth, backingHeight); if (glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES) { NSLog(@"Failed to make complete framebuffer object %x", glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES)); return NO; } return YES; }

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  • TicTacToe strategic reduction

    - by NickLarsen
    I decided to write a small program that solves TicTacToe in order to try out the effect of some pruning techniques on a trivial game. The full game tree using minimax to solve it only ends up with 549,946 possible games. With alpha-beta pruning, the number of states required to evaluate was reduced to 18,297. Then I applied a transposition table that brings the number down to 2,592. Now I want to see how low that number can go. The next enhancement I want to apply is a strategic reduction. The basic idea is to combine states that have equivalent strategic value. For instance, on the first move, if X plays first, there is nothing strategically different (assuming your opponent plays optimally) about choosing one corner instead of another. In the same situation, the same is true of the center of the walls of the board, and the center is also significant. By reducing to significant states only, you end up with only 3 states for evaluation on the first move instead of 9. This technique should be very useful since it prunes states near the top of the game tree. This idea came from the GameShrink method created by a group at CMU, only I am trying to avoid writing the general form, and just doing what is needed to apply the technique to TicTacToe. In order to achieve this, I modified my hash function (for the transposition table) to enumerate all strategically equivalent positions (using rotation and flipping functions), and to only return the lowest of the values for each board. Unfortunately now my program thinks X can force a win in 5 moves from an empty board when going first. After a long debugging session, it became apparent to me the program was always returning the move for the lowest strategically significant move (I store the last move in the transposition table as part of my state). Is there a better way I can go about adding this feature, or a simple method for determining the correct move applicable to the current situation with what I have already done?

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

    - by yongsun
    I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

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  • Would making plain int 64-bit break a lot of reasonable code?

    - by R..
    Until recently, I'd considered the decision by most systems implementors/vendors to keep plain int 32-bit even on 64-bit machines a sort of expedient wart. With modern C99 fixed-size types (int32_t and uint32_t, etc.) the need for there to be a standard integer type of each size 8, 16, 32, and 64 mostly disappears, and it seems like int could just as well be made 64-bit. However, the biggest real consequence of the size of plain int in C comes from the fact that C essentially does not have arithmetic on smaller-than-int types. In particular, if int is larger than 32-bit, the result of any arithmetic on uint32_t values has type signed int, which is rather unsettling. Is this a good reason to keep int permanently fixed at 32-bit on real-world implementations? I'm leaning towards saying yes. It seems to me like there could be a huge class of uses of uint32_t which break when int is larger than 32 bits. Even applying the unary minus or bitwise complement operator becomes dangerous unless you cast back to uint32_t. Of course the same issues apply to uint16_t and uint8_t on current implementations, but everyone seems to be aware of and used to treating them as "smaller-than-int" types.

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  • How to write automated tests for SQL queries?

    - by James
    The current system we are adopting at work is to write some extremely complex queries which perform multiple calculations and have multiple joins / sub-queries. I don't think I am experienced enough to say if this is correct or not so I am agreeing and attempting to function with this system as it has clear benefits. The problem we are having at the moment is that the person writing the queries makes a lot of mistakes and assumes everything is correct. We have now assigned a tester to analyse all of the queries but this still proves extremely time consuming and stressful. I would like to know how we could create an automated procedure (without specifically writing it with code if possible as I can work out how to do that the long way) to verify a set of 10+ different inputs, verify the output data and say if the calculations are correct. I know I could write a script using specific data in the database and create a script using c# (the db is SQL Server) and verify all the values coming out but I would like to know what the official "standard" is as my experience is lacking in this area and I would like to improve. I am happy to add more information if required, add a comment if necessary. Thank you. Edit: I am using c#

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  • Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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