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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • How do I call the methods in a model via controller? Zend Framework

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I've been searching for tutorials to better understand this, but I'm having no luck. Please forgive the lengthy explination, but I want make sure I explain myself well. First, I'm quite new to the MVC structure, though I have been doing tutorials and learning as best I can. I have been moving over a live site into the Zend Framework model. So far, I have all the views within views/scripts/index/example.phtml. So therefore I'm using one IndexController and I have the code in each Action method for each page: IE public function exampleAction() Because I didn't know how to interact with a model, I put all the methods at the bottom of the controller (a fat controller). So basically, I had a working site by using a View and Controller and no model. ... Now I'm trying to learn how to incorporate the Model. So I created a View at: view/scripts/calendar/index.phtml I created a new Controller at: controller/CalendarControllers.php and a new model at: model/Calendar.php The problem is I think I'm not correctly communication with the model (I'm still new to OOP). Can you look over my controller and model and tell me if you see a problem. I'm needing to return an array from runCalendarScript(), but I'm not sure if I can return an array into the object like I'm trying to? I don't really understand how to "run" the runCalendarScript() from the controller? Thanks for any help! I'm stripping out most of the guts of the methods for the sake of brevity: controller: <?php class CalendarController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $finishedFeedArray = new Application_Model_Calendar(); $this->view->googleArray = $finishedFeedArray; } } model: <?php class Application_Model_Calendar { public function _runCalendarScript(){ $gcal = $this->_validateCalendarConnection(); $uncleanedFeedArray = $this->_getCalendarFeed($gcal); $finishedFeedArray = $this->_cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray); return $finishedFeedArray; } //Validate Google Calendar connection public function _validateCalendarConnection() { ... return $gcal; } //extracts googles calendar object into the $feed object public function _getCalendarFeed($gcal) { ... return $feed; } //cleans the feed to just text, etc protected function _cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray) { $contentText = $this->_cleanupText($event); $eventData = $this->_filterEventDetails($contentText); return $cleanedArray; } //Cleans up all formatting of text from Calendar feed public function _cleanupText($event) { ... return $contentText; } //filterEventDetails protected function _filterEventDetails($contentText) { ... return $data; } }

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  • NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

    - by AJ
    I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

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  • UCA + Natural Sorting

    - by Alix Axel
    I recently learnt that PHP already supports the Unicode Collation Algorithm via the intl extension: $array = array ( 'al', 'be', 'Alpha', 'Beta', 'Álpha', 'Àlpha', 'Älpha', '????', 'img10.png', 'img12.png', 'img1.png', 'img2.png', ); if (extension_loaded('intl') === true) { collator_asort(collator_create('root'), $array); } Array ( [0] => al [2] => Alpha [4] => Álpha [5] => Àlpha [6] => Älpha [1] => be [3] => Beta [11] => img1.png [9] => img10.png [8] => img12.png [10] => img2.png [7] => ???? ) As you can see this seems to work perfectly, even with mixed case strings! The only drawback I've encountered so far is that there is no support for natural sorting and I'm wondering what would be the best way to work around that, so that I can merge the best of the two worlds. I've tried to specify the Collator::SORT_NUMERIC sort flag but the result is way messier: collator_asort(collator_create('root'), $array, Collator::SORT_NUMERIC); Array ( [8] => img12.png [7] => ???? [9] => img10.png [10] => img2.png [11] => img1.png [6] => Älpha [5] => Àlpha [1] => be [2] => Alpha [3] => Beta [4] => Álpha [0] => al ) However, if I run the same test with only the img*.png values I get the ideal output: Array ( [3] => img1.png [2] => img2.png [1] => img10.png [0] => img12.png ) Can anyone think of a way to preserve the Unicode sorting while adding natural sorting capabilities?

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  • how to fix protocol violation in c#

    - by Jeremy Styers
    I have a c# "client" and a Java "server". The java server has a wsdl it serves to the client. So far it works for c# to make a request for the server to perform a soap action. My server gets the soap request executes the method and tries to return the result back to the client. When I send the response to c# however, I get "The server committed a protocol violation. Section=ResponseStatusLine". I have spent all day trying to fix this and have come up with nothing that works. If I explain what i did, this post would be very long, so I'll keep it brief. i Googled for hours and everything tells me my "response line" is correct. I tried shutting down Skype, rearranging the response line, adding things, taking things away, etc, etc. All to no avail. This is for a class assignment so no, I can not use apis to help. I must do everything manually on the server side. That means parsing by hand, creating the soap response and the http response by hand. Just thought you'd like to know that before you say to use something that does it for me. I even tried making sure my server was sending the correct header by creating a java client that "mimicked" the c# one so I could see what the server returned. However, it's returning exactly what i told it to send. I tried telling my java client to do the same thing but to an actuall running c# service, to see what a real service returns, and it returned basically the same thing. To be safe, I copied it's response and tried sending it to the c# client and it still threw the error. Can anyone help? I've tried all i can think of, including adding the useUnsafeHeaderParsing to my app config. Nothing is working though. I send it exactly what a real service sends it and it yells at me. I send it what i want and it yells. I'm sending this: "200 OK HTTP/1.0\r\n" + "Content-Length: 201\r\n" + "Cache-Control: private\r\n" + "Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8\r\n\r\n";

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • Using drawAtPoint with my CIImage not doing anything on screen

    - by Adam
    Stuck again. :( I have the following code crammed into a procedure invoked when I click on a button on my application main window. I'm just trying to tweak a CIIMage and then display the results. At this point I'm not even worried about exactly where / how to display it. I'm just trying to slam it up on the window to make sure my Transform worked. This code seems to work down through the drawAtPoint message. But I never see anything on the screen. What's wrong? Thanks. Also, as far as displaying it in a particular location on the window ... is the best technique to put a frame of some sort on the window, then get the coordinates of that frame and "draw into" that rectangle? Or use a specific control from IB? Or what? Thanks again. // earlier I initialize a NSImage from JPG file on disk. // then create NSBitmapImageRep from the NSImage. This all works fine. // then ... CIImage * inputCIimage = [[CIImage alloc] initWithBitmapImageRep:inputBitmap]; if (inputCIimage == Nil) NSLog(@"could not create CI Image"); else { NSLog (@"CI Image created. working on transform"); CIFilter *transform = [CIFilter filterWithName:@"CIAffineTransform"]; [transform setDefaults]; [transform setValue:inputCIimage forKey:@"inputImage"]; NSAffineTransform *affineTransform = [NSAffineTransform transform]; [affineTransform rotateByDegrees:3]; [transform setValue:affineTransform forKey:@"inputTransform"]; CIImage * myResult = [transform valueForKey:@"outputImage"]; if (myResult == Nil) NSLog(@"Transformation failed"); else { NSLog(@"Created transformation successfully ... now render it"); [myResult drawAtPoint: NSMakePoint ( 0,0 ) fromRect: NSMakeRect ( 0,0,128,128 ) operation: NSCompositeSourceOver fraction: 1.0]; //100% opaque [inputCIimage release]; } }

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  • Ideas on implementing threads and cross process communication. - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occured. I have already implemented a thread on the first process which currently creates the data to send to the second process and makes it available to the second process. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Rolling the dice and sending the data: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'd like to think I am at least on the right lines, although for some reason when the application finishes creating the thread it hits the return DefWindowProc(hMainWindow, message, wParam, lParam); it crashes saying there's no more source code for the current location. I know there are certain ways to implement things but as I've mentioned I'm not sure if i'm doing this the right way, has anybody else tried to do the same thing? Thanks!

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  • c# event fires windows form incorrectly

    - by MikeW
    I'm trying to understand what's happening here. I have a CheckedListBox which contains some ticked and some un-ticked items. I'm trying to find a way of determining the delta in the selection of controls. I've tried some cumbersome like this - but only works part of the time, I'm sure there's a more elegant solution. A maybe related problem is the myCheckBox_ItemCheck event fires on form load - before I have a chance to perform an ItemCheck. Here's what I have so far: void clbProgs_ItemCheck(object sender, ItemCheckEventArgs e) { // i know its awful System.Windows.Forms.CheckedListBox cb = (System.Windows.Forms.CheckedListBox)sender; string sCurrent = e.CurrentValue.ToString(); int sIndex = e.Index; AbstractLink lk = (AbstractLink)cb.Items[sIndex]; List<ILink> _links = clbProgs.DataSource as List<ILink>; foreach (AbstractLink lkCurrent in _links) { if (!lkCurrent.IsActive) { if (!_groupValues.ContainsKey(lkCurrent.Linkid)) { _groupValues.Add(lkCurrent.Linkid, lkCurrent); } } } if (_groupValues.ContainsKey(lk.Linkid)) { AbstractLink lkDirty = (AbstractLink)lk.Clone(); CheckState newValue = (CheckState)e.NewValue; if (newValue == CheckState.Checked) { lkDirty.IsActive = true; } else if (newValue == CheckState.Unchecked) { lkDirty.IsActive = false; } if (_dirtyGroups.ContainsKey(lk.Linkid)) { _dirtyGroups[lk.Linkid] = lkDirty; } else { CheckState oldValue = (CheckState)e.NewValue; if (oldValue == CheckState.Checked) { lkDirty.IsActive = true; } else if (oldValue == CheckState.Unchecked) { lkDirty.IsActive = false; } _dirtyGroups.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } } else { if (!lk.IsActive) { _dirtyGroups.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } else { _groupValues.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } } } Then onclick of a save button - I check whats changed before sending to database: private void btSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<AbstractLink> originalList = new List<AbstractLink>(_groupValues.Values); List<AbstractLink> changedList = new List<AbstractLink>(_dirtyGroups.Values); IEnumerable<AbstractLink> dupes = originalList.ToArray<AbstractLink>().Intersect(changedList.ToArray<AbstractLink>()); foreach (ILink t in dupes) { MessageBox.Show("Changed"); } if (dupes.Count() == 0) { MessageBox.Show("No Change"); } } For further info. The definition of type AbstractLink uses: public bool Equals(ILink other) { if (Object.ReferenceEquals(other, null)) return false; if (Object.ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; return IsActive.Equals(other.IsActive) && Linkid.Equals(other.Linkid); }

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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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  • Patterns: Local Singleton vs. Global Singleton?

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    There is a pattern that I use from time to time, but I'm not quite sure what it is called. I was hoping that the SO community could help me out. The pattern is pretty simple, and consists of two parts: A singleton factory, which creates objects based on the arguments passed to the factory method. Objects created by the factory. So far this is just a standard "singleton" pattern or "factory pattern". The issue that I'm asking about, however, is that the singleton factory in this case maintains a set of references to every object that it ever creates, held within a dictionary. These references can sometimes be strong references and sometimes weak references, but it can always reference any object that it has ever created. When receiving a request for a "new" object, the factory first searches the dictionary to see if an object with the required arguments already exits. If it does, it returns that object, if not, it returns a new object and also stores a reference to the new object within the dictionary. This pattern prevents having duplicative objects representing the same underlying "thing". This is useful where the created objects are relatively expensive. It can also be useful where these objects perform event handling or messaging - having one object per item being represented can prevent multiple messages/events for a single underlying source. There are probably other reasons to use this pattern, but this is where I've found this useful. My question is: what to call this? In a sense, each object is a singleton, at least with respect to the data it contains. Each is unique. But there are multiple instances of this class, however, so it's not at all a true singleton. In my own personal terminology, I tend to call the factory method a "global singleton". I then call the created objects "local singletons". I sometimes also say that the created objects have "reference equality", meaning that if two variables reference the same data (the same underlying item) then the reference they each hold must be to the same exact object, hence "reference equality". But these are my own invented terms, and I am not sure that they are good ones. Is there standard terminology for this concept? And if not, could some naming suggestions be made? Thanks in advance...

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  • [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • MySQL LEFT OUTER JOIN virtual table

    - by user1707323
    I am working on a pretty complicated query let me try to explain it to you. Here is the tables that I have in my MySQL database: students Table --- `students` --- student_id first_name last_name current_status status_change_date ------------ ------------ ----------- ---------------- -------------------- 1 John Doe Active NULL 2 Jane Doe Retread 2012-02-01 students_have_courses Table --- `students_have_courses` --- students_student_id courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date --------------------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- 1 1 2012-01-01 2012-01-04 2012-01-05 1 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 2 1 2012-01-10 2012-01-11 NULL students_have_optional_courses Table --- `students_have_optional_courses` --- students_student_id optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date e_date --------------------- ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 1 2012-01-02 2012-01-03 1 1 2012-01-06 NULL 1 5 2012-01-07 NULL Here is my query so far SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_optional_courses` ON ( `students_have_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id; What I want to be returned is the student_id, first_name, and last_name for all Active or Retread students and then LEFT JOIN the highest course_id, s_date, e_date, and int_date for the those students where the s_date is since the status_change_date if status is 'Retread'. Then LEFT JOIN the highest optional_courses_opcourse_id, s_date, and e_date from the students_have_optional_courses TABLE where the students_have_optional_courses.s_date is greater or equal to the students_have_courses.s_date and the students_have_optional_courses.e_date IS NULL Here is what is being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 1 2012-01-06 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Here is what I want being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 5 2012-01-07 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Everything is working except one thing, I cannot seem to get the highest students_have_optional_courses.optional_courses_opcourse_id no matter how I form the query Sorry, I just solved this myself after writing this all out I think it helped me think of the solution. Here is the solution query: SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT * FROM `students_have_optional_courses` ORDER BY `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id DESC ) `students_optional_courses` ON ( `students_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id;

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  • Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

    - by Greggo
    I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • Delphi - Read File To StringList, then delete and write back to file.

    - by Jkraw90
    I'm currently working on a program to generate the hashes of files, in Delphi 2010. As part of this I have a option to create User Presets, e.g. pre-defined choice of hashing algo's which the user can create/save/delete. I have the create and load code working fine. It uses a ComboBox and loads from a file "fhpre.ini", inside this file is the users presets stored in format of:- PresetName PresetCode (a 12 digit string using 0 for don't hash and 1 for do) On application loading it loads the data from this file into the ComboBox and an Array with the ItemIndex of ComboBox matching the corrisponding correct string of 0's and 1's in the Array. Now I need to implement a feature to have the user delete a preset from the list. So far my code is as follows, procedure TForm1.Panel23Click(Sender : TObject); var fil : textfile; contents : TStringList; x,i : integer; filline : ansistring; filestream : TFileStream; begin //Start Procedure //Load data into StringList contents := TStringList.Create; fileStream := TFileStream.Create((GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini'), fmShareDenyNone); Contents.LoadFromStream(fileStream); fileStream.Destroy(); //Search for relevant Preset i := 0; if ComboBox4.Text <> Contents[i] then begin Repeat i := i + 1; Until ComboBox4.Text = Contents[i]; end; contents.Delete(i); //Delete Relevant Preset Name contents.Delete(i); //Delete Preset Digit String //Write StringList back to file. AssignFile(fil,(GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini')); ReWrite(fil); for i := 0 to Contents.Count -1 do WriteLn(Contents[i]); CloseFile(fil); Contents.Free; end; However if this is run, I get a 105 error when it gets to the WriteLn section. I'm aware that the code isn't great, for example doesn't have checks for presets with same name, but that will come, I want to get the base code working first then can tweak and add extra checks etc. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Resize AIR app window while dragging

    - by matt lohkamp
    So I've noticed Windows 7 has a disturbing tendency to prevent you from dragging the title bar of windows off the top of the screen. If you try - in this case, using an air app with a draggable area at the bottom of the window, allowing you to push the top of the window up past the screen - it just kicks the window back down far enough that the title bar is at the top of what it considers the 'visible area.' One solution would be to resize the app window as it moves, so that the title bar is always where windows wants it. How would you resize the window while you're dragging it, though? Would you do it like this? dragHitArea.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(e:MouseEvent):void{ stage.nativeWindow.height += 50; stage.nativeWindow.startMove(); stage.nativeWindow.height -= 50; }); see what's going on there? When I click, I'm doing startMove(), which is hooking into the OS' function for dragging a window around. I'm also increasing and decreasing the height of the window by 50 pixels - which should give me no net increase, right? Wrong - the first '.height +=' gets executed, but the '.height -=' after the .startMove() never runs. Why? update - If you're curious, I'm programming an air widget with fly-out menus which expand rightwards and upwards - and since those element can only be displayed within the boundaries of the application window itself (even though the window is set to be chromeless and transparent) I have to expand the application's borders to include the area that the menu 'pops up' into. In the extreme case, with the widget positioned bottom left, and the menus expanded completely across to the right side and top edge of the screen, the application area could very well cover the entire desktop. The problem is, when it's expanded like this, if the user drags it up and to the right, it causes the 'title bar' area of the application window to move above the top edge of the desktop area, where it would normally be unreachable; and Windows automatically re-positions the window back below that edge once the .startMove() operation is completed. So what I want to do is continually resize the height of the application so that the visual effect will be the same for the user, but for the benefit of the operating system the window's title bar will never be above that top boundary of the desktop area.

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  • expand div with focus-jquery

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm revisiting this after a few weeks, because I could never get it to work before, and hoping to now. Please look at this website-notice the newsletter signup form at the top right. http://www.rattletree.com I am wanting it to look exactly this way for now, but when the user clicks in the box to enter their email address, the containing div will expand (or simply appear) above the email field to also include a "name" and "city" field. I'm using jquery liberally in the sight, so that is at my disposal. This form is in the header so any id info, etc can't be withing the body tag... This is what I have so far: <div class="outeremailcontainer"> <div id="emailcontainer"> <?php include('verify.php'); ?> <form action="index_success.php" method="post" id="sendEmail" class="email"> <h3 class="register2">Newsletter Signup:</h3> <ul class="forms email"> <li class="email"><label for="emailFrom">Email: </label> <input type="text" name="emailFrom" class="info" id="emailFrom" value="<?= $_POST['emailFrom']; ?>" /> <?php if(isset($emailFromError)) echo '<span class="error">'.$emailFromError.'</span>'; ?> </li> <li class="buttons email"> <button type="submit" id="submit">Send</button> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" id="submitted" value="true" /> </li> </ul> </form> <div class="clearing"> </div> </div> css: p.emailbox{ text-align:center; margin:0; } p.emailbox:first-letter { font-size: 120%; font-weight: bold; } .outeremailcontainer { height:60px; width: 275px; background-image:url(/images/feather_email2.jpg); /*background-color:#fff;*/ text-align:center; /* margin:-50px 281px 0 auto ; */ float:right; position:relative; z-index:1; } form.email{ position:relative; } #emailcontainer { margin:0; padding: 0 auto; z-index:1000; display:block; position:relative; } Thanks for any help! Joel

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  • BULK INSERT from one table to another all on the server

    - by steve_d
    I have to copy a bunch of data from one database table into another. I can't use SELECT ... INTO because one of the columns is an identity column. Also, I have some changes to make to the schema. I was able to use the export data wizard to create an SSIS package, which I then edited in Visual Studio 2005 to make the changes desired and whatnot. It's certainly faster than an INSERT INTO, but it seems silly to me to download the data to a different computer just to upload it back again. (Assuming that I am correct that that's what the SSIS package is doing). Is there an equivalent to BULK INSERT that runs directly on the server, allows keeping identity values, and pulls data from a table? (as far as I can tell, BULK INSERT can only pull data from a file) Edit: I do know about IDENTITY_INSERT, but because there is a fair amount of data involved, INSERT INTO ... SELECT is kinda of slow. SSIS/BULK INSERT dumps the data into the table without regards to indexes and logging and whatnot, so it's faster. (Of course creating the clustered index on the table once it's populated is not fast, but it's still faster than the INSERT INTO...SELECT that I tried in my first attempt) Edit 2: The schema changes include (but are not limited to) the following: 1. Splitting one table into two new tables. In the future each will have its own IDENTITY column, but for the migration I think it will be simplest to use the identity from the original table as the identity for the both new tables. Once the migration is over one of the tables will have a one-to-many relationship to the other. 2. Moving columns from one table to another. 3. Deleting some cross reference tables that only cross referenced 1-to-1. Instead the reference will be a foreign key in one of the two tables. 4. Some new columns will be created with default values. 5. Some tables aren’t changing at all, but I have to copy them over due to the "put it all in a new DB" request.

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  • Is there a way to enforce/preserve order of XML elements in an XML Schema?

    - by MarcoS
    Let's consider the following XML Schema: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <schema targetNamespace="http://www.example.org/library" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:lib="http://www.example.org/library"> <element name="library" type="lib:libraryType"></element> <complexType name="libraryType"> <sequence> <element name="books" type="lib:booksType"></element> </sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="booksType"> <sequence> <element name="book" type="lib:bookType" maxOccurs="unbounded" minOccurs="1"></element> </sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="bookType"> <attribute name="title" type="string"></attribute> </complexType> </schema> and a corresponding XML example: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <lib:library xmlns:lib="http://www.example.org/library" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.example.org/library src/library.xsd "> <lib:books> <lib:book title="t1"/> <lib:book title="t2"/> <lib:book title="t3"/> </lib:books> </lib:library> Is there a way to guarantee that the order of <lib:book .../> elements is preserved? I want to be sure that any parser reading the XML will return books in the specified oder, that is first the book with title="t1", then the book with title="t2", and finally the book with title="t3". As far as I know XML parsers are not required to preserve order. I wonder whether one can enforce this through XML Schema? One quick solution for me would be adding an index attribute to the <lib:book .../> element, and delegate order preservation to the application reading the XML. Comments? Suggestions?

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  • Showing div based on filled form field

    - by Fabio
    I have this script where I use a slider to show some elements of a form. So far so good. The way I'm doing it is by having a slider (can't use a multistep form since it uses a plugin not allowing multistep forms, plus some graphic behaviors) and a button that goes to the next slider. So now I need that button (not part of the form) to show only if a certain field is filled. I tried teh following, but it's not working, I assume some error but can't figure what. My code is as follows: $('#clientname').change(function() { var clientVal = $("input").val() == ''; $(".next").hide(); if ($('#clientname').val() != '').show(); else $('.next').hide(); }); and the html as follows: <div class="b40-right"> <h3>The Basics</h3> <div class="label"> Your Name (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-name"><input id="clientname" type="text" name="your-name" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-validates-as-required" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Your Email (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-email"><input type="text" name="your-email" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-email wpcf7-validates-as-required wpcf7-validates-as-email" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Type of Business</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap type-of-business"><textarea name="type-of-business" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-textarea" cols="40" rows="10"></textarea></span> </div> </div> <a class="next" href="javascript:stepcarousel.stepBy('mygallery2', 1)"><img id="nextbut1" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/next.png" alt="" /></a> any help on what am I doing wrong? Is there a better approach/solution? (I'm not a programmer as you may figure) Thank you in advance!

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