Search Results

Search found 17342 results on 694 pages for 'custom draw'.

Page 615/694 | < Previous Page | 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 | Next Page >

difference between http.context.user and thread.currentprincipal and when to use them?

- by yamspog

I have just recently run into an issue running an asp.net web app under visual studio 2008. I get the error 'type is not resolved for member...customUserPrincipal'. Tracking down various discussion groups it seems that there is an issue with Visual Studio's web server when you assign a custom principal against the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. In my code, I now use... HttpContext.Current.User = myCustomPrincipal //Thread.CurrentPrincipal = myCustomPrincipal I'm glad that I got the error out of the way, but it begs the question "What is the difference between these two methods of setting a principal?". There are other stackoverflow questions related to the differences but they don't get into the details of the two approaches. I did find one tantalizing post that had the following grandiose comment but no explanation to back up his assertions... Use HttpConext.Current.User for all web (ASPX/ASMX) applications. Use Thread.CurrentPrincipal for all other applications like winForms, console and windows service applications. Can any of you security/dot.net gurus shed some light on this subject?

Read the article
Two pass JSP page rendering

- by dotsid

Suppose an example. I have following interface: public interface DataSource<T> { Future<T> fetch(); } This datasource can do asynchronous data fetching. And we have following tag for using datasource in JSP: <html> <d:fetch from="${orderDS}" var="orders"> <c:foreach in="${orders}" var="order"> <div class="order"> <c:out value="${order.title}" /> </div> </c:foreach> </d:fetch> </html> So, what I want? I want JSP rendering engine to call my custom tag (FetchTag in this example) twice. On first call FetchTag will do DataSource.fetch() call and save Future locally as a object field. On second call FetchTag do Future.get() call and will be blocked until data becomes available. Is there any way to do such a thing?

Read the article
http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

- by DavidG

I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

Read the article
JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

- by grapkulec

Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

Read the article
Why does the '#weight' property sometimes not have any effect in Drupal forms?

- by Adrian

Hello, I'm trying to create a node form for a custom type. I have organic groups and taxonomy both enabled, but want their elements to come out in a non-standard order. So I've implemented hook_form_alter and set the #weight property of the og_nodeapi subarray to -1000, but it still goes after taxonomy and menu. I even tried changing the subarray to a fieldset (to force it to actually be rendered), but no dice. I also tried setting $form['taxonomy']['#weight'] = 1000 (I have two vocabs so it's already being rendered as a fieldset) but that didn't work either. I set the weight of my module very high and confirmed in the system table that it is indeed the highest module on the site - so I'm all out of ideas. Any suggestions? Update: While I'm not exactly sure how, I did manage to get the taxonomy fieldset to sink below everything else, but now I have a related problem that's hopefully more manageable to understand. Within the taxonomy fieldset, I have two items (a tags and a multi-select), and I wanted to add some instructions in hook_form_alter as follows: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); You guessed it, this appears after the terms inserted by the taxonomy module. However, if I change this to a fieldset: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', // <-- here '#title' => 'Instructions', // <-- and here for good measure '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); then it magically floats to the top as I'd intended. I also tried textarea (this also worked) and explicitly saying markup (this did not). So basically, changing the type from "markup" (the default IIRC) to "fieldset" has the effect of no longer ignoring its weight.

Read the article
Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

- by Justin

I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

Read the article
How can I display both Button and Button Name in Listbox Item from Code behind?

- by Subhen

Hi I have the following code , which assign a list of custom radio buttons to my List Box. List<RadioButton> listUserControlBtns = new List<RadioButton>(); customLocalFolderButton btnLocalFolder = new customLocalFolderButton(); customLocalFolderButton btnPlayListFolder = new customLocalFolderButton(); customVideoButton btnVideoFolder = new customVideoButton(); cutsomAudioButton btnMusicFolder = new cutsomAudioButton(); customImageButton btnImageFolder = new customImageButton(); listUserControlBtns.Add(btnLocalFolder); listUserControlBtns.Add(btnPlayListFolder); listUserControlBtns.Add(btnVideoFolder); listUserControlBtns.Add(btnMusicFolder); listUserControlBtns.Add(btnImageFolder); listMainFolder.ItemsSource = listUserControlBtns; Now . I am able to display the radio buttons inside the listbox but also I want to display the name of the radiobutton below the radiobutton itself.This should happen for all the radiobuttons inside the listbox. I dont want to use binding in XAML . Your suggestions and solutions will help me in a great way. Thanks, Subhen

Read the article
Hibernate Envers : How to delete entries from my audit table?

- by Laurent T

Hi everyone, I am currently working with Hibernate Envers. My problem is the following : How to delete entries in the audit table related to the entity I want to delete? My entity has no relation with other entities. I figured out that I have to do that in onPostDelete method of my custom listener : import org.hibernate.envers.event.AuditEventListener; import org.hibernate.event.PostCollectionRecreateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostDeleteEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostInsertEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostUpdateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionRemoveEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionUpdateEvent; public class MyListener extends AuditEventListener { ... @Override public void onPostDelete(PostDeleteEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onPostDelete(arg0); } ... } I've read the documentation, forums, many things but I can't figure it out. May be it's not possible, I don't know. Has someone ever done this before? Thank you :)

Read the article
Options for displaying OG groups a node is published for on node page?

- by Erik Töyrä

What I want I have several OG groups in which content can be published. I would like to display which OG groups a node has been published for when viewing the node page. Like in "This page is published for: Department A, Department B." The code snipped below shows the data I have in the $node object in node.tpl.php. This data is generated by the OG module. Extracted data from $node ... [og_groups] => Array ( [993] => 993 [2078] => 2078 ) [og_groups_both] => Array ( [993] => Department A [2078] => Department B ) ... I know I could loop through the og_groups_both array in node.tpl.php and generate the output from there, but it feels like a quite dirty solution. The ideal solution would be to have a $og_groups variable in node.tpl.php, similiar to how $submitted is used in node.tpl.php (see below). Example of how $submitted is used <?php if ($submitted): ?> <div class="submitted"><?php print $submitted; ?></div> <?php endif; ?> Should I use hook_load() in a custom module to insert the new variable $og_groups in $node? What options do I have and which solution would you recommend?

Read the article
Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

- by Jakub

Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

Read the article
Google maps KM bounds box reapplying itself on map zoom

- by creminsn

I have a map in which I apply a custom overlay using KMbox overlay to signify where I think the users general point of interest lies. What I want is to display this map to the user and allow them to click on the map to give me an exact location match of their POI. This all works fine except for when the user clicks on the map and changes the zoom of the map. Here's my code to add the marker to the map. function addMarker(location) { if(KmOverlay) { KmOverlay.remove(); } if(last_marker) { last_marker.setMap(null); } marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map }); // Keep track for future unsetting... last_marker = marker; } And to show the map I have this function. function show_map(lt, ln, zoom, controls, marker) { var ltln = new google.maps.LatLng(lt, ln); var vars = { zoom: zoom, center: ltln, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: controls, navigationControlOptions: {style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.ZOOM_PAN} , mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, scrollwheel: false }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), vars); KmOverlay = new KmBox(map, new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lon), KmOpts); var totalBounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); totalBounds.union(KmOverlay.getBounds()); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { addMarker(event.latLng); }); } I have a working example at the following link here

Read the article
Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

- by artmania

Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

Read the article
What can a company possibly gain by making Android phones hard to root?

- by Chinmay Kanchi

As someone who recently got a HTC Hero, I had to jump through several hoops to get root access on the phone to install custom firmware. Now, Android is open-source and fairly easy to build and hack on an emulator. It seems to be against the spirit of open-source to lock down a phone so you can't hack the phone itself. Now, often, there are understandable (though not always justifiable) reasons for locking a device down. For example, it might have proprietary software on it or you might want to retain control of the platform. However, Android by its open-source nature makes such concerns moot. Everyone and their dog has access to the userland code, and HTC is forced by the GPL to release kernel sources for each of their devices. So, I fail to see any motivation for alienating the hackers, when there is no possible benefit (in my mind) to be had from doing this. Any idea why a company would want to do this? Is it just short-sightedness or am I missing possible commercial implications of this?

Read the article
How to fix Java Image Fetcher error ?

- by Frank

My code looks like this : private static JFileChooser fc; if (fc==null) { fc=new JFileChooser(Image_Dir); fc.addChoosableFileFilter(new Image_Filter()); // Add a custom file filter and disable the default (Accept All) file filter. fc.setAcceptAllFileFilterUsed(false); fc.setAccessory(new Image_Preview(fc)); // Add the preview pane. } int returnVal=fc.showDialog(JFileChooser_For_Image.this,"Get Image"); // Show it. After I select an image from the panel, I got the following error message : Exception in thread "Image Fetcher 0" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: Native Library C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\jpeg.dll already loaded in another classloader at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Runtime.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at sun.security.action.LoadLibraryAction.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.awt.image.JPEGImageDecoder.<clinit>(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.FileImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.doFetch(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.fetchloop(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.run(Unknown Source) When I run it from an executable Jar file, it works fine, but after I wrapped it into an exe file, I got the above error, why ? How to fix it ?

Read the article
Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

- by webtoad

Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

Read the article
Zend Routes conflict

- by meder

I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

Read the article
Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

- by Jeremy Hicks

Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

Read the article
Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

- by Rich Andrews

Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

Read the article
JQuery datepicker icon trigger broken after inserting data to database

- by crisgine callano

at first i got to load my icon for the JQuery datepicker but after i insert the value to my database the icon image is broken. im using Codeigniter framework. here's my html code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html lang="en-US"> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>CRUD</title> <?php echo link_tag(base_url() . 'css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.23.custom.css'); ?> </head> <body> <div> <?php echo form_label('BDay:', 'bday'); $data = array( 'name' => 'bday', 'id' => 'datepicker' ); echo form_input($data); ?> </div> </body> </html> and here's my jscript: <script> $(function() { $( "#datepicker" ).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showOn: "button", buttonImage: "<?php echo base_url() . '/images/icons/calendar_24.png' ?>", buttonImageOnly: true, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ $("input[name='bday']").val(dateText); } }); }); am i missing something? thanks!

Read the article
Javascript not registering/executing after button click

- by rs

I have a textbox which i convert to tinymce textbox using tinymce.js file. I'm trying to add a new script with database fields substituted based on selection made from dropdownlist to page using registerstartupscript. In page load protected sub page_load(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) handles me.load AddScriptToPage() if not page.ispostback() then session("fname") = nothing end if end sub Script Method Sub AddScriptToPage() dim _script = " c.onRenderMenu.add(function(c, m) { " & _ add_columns() & _ "}); " ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), keyword,_script) End Sub function add_columns() as string dim ret_string = String.empty select case ddlList.selectedvalue case 1 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 2 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 3 //Load from excel sqlcommand = nothing end select if sqlcommand isnot nothing then executereader() while reader.read() ret_string = ret_string & reader("column") end while elseif session("fname") isnot nothing dt = getdatatable(session("fname").tostring()) //method that opens oledb connection and returns columns for each dr in dt.rows ret_string = ret_string & dr("column") next end if add_columns = ret_string end function When excel file is uploaded to server this event is called protected sub btnclick(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) if hasfile then 'i have custom properties set after control validation 'Upload file 'set session value with filepath session("fname") = filepath 'call js register event AddScriptToPage() end if end sub When i click upload button i'm calling AddScriptToPage, and debug it it hits AddScripttoPage event and executes it but it doesn't showup on page. It should show column names in tinymce editor but it doesn't. But when i click another button on the same page it shows (becos session has the filename). On Upload button click page flow: Page load - AddScriptToPage is executed (registers scripts with no columns) Then AddScriptToPage in btnclick event is executed (registers scripts with columns) Why is this script not getting registered even though it is executed on vb code on uploadclick event? And why does it show up after another button click and not original button click that calls this event?

Read the article
C++: defining maximum/minimum limits for a class

- by Luis

Basically what the title says... I have created a class that models time slots in a variable-granularity daily schedule (where for example the first time slot is 30 minutes, but the second time slot can be 40 minutes); the first available slot starts at (a value comparable to) 1. What I want to do now is to define somehow the maximum and minimum allowable values that this class takes and I have two practical questions in order to do so: 1.- does it make sense to define absolute minimum and maximum in such a way for a custom class? Or better, does it suffice that a value always compares as lower-than any other possible value of the type, given the class's defined relational operators, to be defined the min? (and analogusly for the max) 2.- assuming the previous question has an answer modeled after "yes" (or "yes but ..."), how do I define such max/min? I know that there is std::numeric_limits<> but from what I read it is intended for "numeric types". Do I interpret that as meaning "represented as a number" or can I make a broader assumption like "represented with numbers" or "having a correspondence to integers"? After all, it would make sense to define the minimum and maximum for a date class, and maybe for a dictionary class, but numeric_limits may not be intended for those uses (I don't have much experience with it). Plus, numeric_limits has a lot of extra members and information that I don't know what to make with. If I don't use numeric_limits, what other well-known / widely-used mechanism does C++ offer to indicate the available range of values for a class?

Read the article
How do you compare using .NET types in an NHibernate ICriteria query for an ICompositeUserType?

- by gabe

I have an answered StackOverflow question about how to combine to legacy CHAR database date and time fields into one .NET DateTime property in my POCO here (thanks much Berryl!). Now i am trying to get a custom ICritera query to work against that very DateTime property to no avail. here's my query: ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria<InputFileLog>() .Add(Expression.Gt(MembersOf<InputFileLog>.GetName(x => x.FileCreationDateTime), DateTime.Now.AddDays(-14))) .AddOrder(Order.Desc(Projections.Id())) .CreateCriteria(typeof(InputFile).Name) .Add(Expression.Eq(MembersOf<InputFile>.GetName(x => x.Id), inputFileName)); IList<InputFileLog> list = criteria.List<InputFileLog>(); And here's the query it's generating: SELECT this_.input_file_token as input1_9_2_, this_.file_creation_date as file2_9_2_, this_.file_creation_time as file3_9_2_, this_.approval_ind as approval4_9_2_, this_.file_id as file5_9_2_, this_.process_name as process6_9_2_, this_.process_status as process7_9_2_, this_.input_file_name as input8_9_2_, gonogo3_.input_file_token as input1_6_0_, gonogo3_.go_nogo_ind as go2_6_0_, inputfile1_.input_file_name as input1_3_1_, inputfile1_.src_code as src2_3_1_, inputfile1_.process_cat_code as process3_3_1_ FROM input_file_log this_ left outer join go_nogo gonogo3_ on this_.input_file_token=gonogo3_.input_file_token inner join input_file inputfile1_ on this_.input_file_name=inputfile1_.input_file_name WHERE this_.file_creation_date > :p0 and this_.file_creation_time > :p1 and inputfile1_.input_file_name = :p2 ORDER BY this_.input_file_token desc; :p0 = '20100401', :p1 = '15:15:27', :p2 = 'LMCONV_JR' The query is exactly what i would expect, actually, except it doesn't actually give me what i want (all the rows in the last 2 weeks) because in the DB it's doing a greater than comparison using CHARs instead of DATEs. I have no idea how to get the query to convert the CHAR values into a DATE in the query without doing a CreateSQLQuery(), which I would like to avoid. Anyone know how to do this?

Read the article
NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

- by jr

I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

Read the article
Anyone NOT using a Web Framework? Why?

- by tom

I'm well aware of the many reasons to use a web framework. I'm just wondering whether anyone out there is using absolutely no web framework whatsoever to develop their web projects. I would really love to know the reason(s) why you're not using a web framework. For the sake of this discussion, your programming language of choice does not matter. Some possibilities for discussion: You don't hide behind an ORM. You don't rely on any sort of templating system. You think MVC is a really nice TLA but lacks an essential vowel or two. No need for any additional javascript framework tomfoolery. You just write as much code as possible in your native programming language(s). Summary of reasons thus far: Language learning opportunities. Specific performance reasons (write-intensive transaction processing). Seeking more nuanced control over your data and applications (less abstraction). You're building your own framework! Prove to yourself that you can succeed (or fail) just like the big framework-building gurus. Integration issues with unpopular/legacy technologies (exotic databases or protocols come to mind). Big company, lots of code, no talent nor buy-in present to move to a web framework. Some frameworks really lock you in and cannot perpetually grow along with your needs. These few black sheep don't make it easy to jump outside of the framework, write some custom code, and easily jump back in. When you finally escape the asylum, you'll never look back.

Read the article
form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

- by dhaval

I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

Read the article

< Previous Page | 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 | Next Page >