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• Printer spools but doesn't print

  - by DKNUCKLES

  I am having a bizarre issue with an end user who is unable to print to a USB attached printer. The environment is as Windows 7 machine with a Canon Pixma iP90 printer. The driver is installed (and has been re-installed several times), but whenever a print job is sent the printer spools but no printing ever occurs. The following is some relevant information I can confirm that the printer is spooling as the spool folder fills up, and the job "releases" and the spool folder empties I have turned off print spooling with no luck None of the features from the Canon utilities (ie Turn Printer Off) features work Computer recognizes the printer as being installed. When the cable is unplugged the printer icon grey's out in Devices and Printers Printer and cable are confirmed working as they work with other PC's in the office I have deleted the USB Root Hub devices and rebooted the machine with no luck No error messages are displayed or logged in the event viewer. The Canon diagnostics utility doesn't detect any problem and states the printer is functioning properly Printer is not shared User is able to print to other shared printers in the office Any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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• Toshiba Satellite C665 Rebooting from Standby

  - by Coodu

  I currently am working on a C665 with a strange issue. When the panel is closed the notebook will put itself to sleep in the usual way, and the power LED changes to the pulse to indicate that the device is asleep. However, when the panel is opened to resume using the notebook, the system will restart itself, instead beginning from the Toshiba logo and proceed to boot back in to W7. I should also note that each time this occurs, the "Windows Startup Recovery" option occurs, indicating that the system was not shut down correctly. Some things I have tried: Updated to latest Toshiba BIOS. Returned BIOS settings to their defaults. Swapped Memory to known good module, tested KGM in both memory slots within system. Confirmed that power settings are set to sleep/wake when power button is pressed. Ran a quick HDD fitness test using a parted magic USB stick. Checked for BSOD logs using BlueScreenView, none found. Ran src, no violations found. Any ideas? I have a good feeling the system is restarting itself, but in the event viewer there is a "Kernel Power" error, but it simply says "The system was not shut down correctly." Perhaps a bad driver? I'm not sure. Any advice would be great.

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• Why won't sql server express 2008 service restart after I enable TCP/IP Protocol?

  - by John

  Whenever I enable TCP/IP connections on my SQL Server Express 2008 database server running on Windows XP SP3, I cannot restart the service, it simply states "The request failed or did respond in a timely fashion". Any suggestions of what I may have configured incorrectly? [update] Here is the applicable part of the Error Log: MSSQL$SQLEXPRESS Server failed to list on 'any' 3060. Error: 0x2747. To proceed, notify you system administrator. MSSQL$SQLEXPRESS TDSSNIClient initialization failed with error 0x2747, status code 0xa. Reason: Unable to initialize the TCP/IP listener. An operation on a socket could not be performed because the system lacked sufficient buffer space or because a queue was full. MSSQL$SQLEXPRESS TDSSNIClient initialization failed with error 0x2747, status code 0x1. Reason: Initialization failed with an infrastructure error. Check for previous errors. An operation on a socket could not be performed because the system lacked sufficient buffer space or because a queue was full. MSSQL$SQLEXPRESS Could not start the network library because of an internal error in the network library. To determine the cause, review the errors immediately preceding this one in the error log. MSSQL$SQLEXPRESS SQL Server could not spawn FRunCM thread. Check the SQL Server error log and the Windows event logs for information about possible related problems.

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• Non-volatile cache RAID controllers: what kind of protection is there against NVCACHE failure?

  - by astrostl

  The battery back-up (BBU) model: admin enables write-back cache with BBU writes are cached to the RAID controller's RAM (major performance benefit) the battery saves uncommitted and cached data in the event of a power loss (reliability) If I lose power and come back within a day or so, my data should be both complete and uncorrupted. The downside to this is that, if the battery is dead or low, OR EVEN IF IT IS IN A RELEARN CYCLE (drain/charge loops to ensure the battery's health), the controller reverts to write-through mode and performance will suffer. What's more, the relearn cycles are usually automated on a schedule which may or may not happen in the middle of big traffic. So, that has to be manually disabled and manually scheduled for off-hours if it's a concern. Annoying either way. NV caches have capacitors with a sufficient charge to commit any uncommitted-to-disk data to flash. Not only is that more survivable in longer loss situations, but you don't have to concern yourself with battery death, wear-out, or relearning. All of that sounds great to me. What doesn't sound great to me is the prospect of that flash module having an issue, though. What if it's completely hosed? What if it's only partially hosed? A bit corrupted at the edges? Relearn cycles can tell when something like a simple battery is failing, but is there a similar process to verify that the flash is functional? I'm just far more trusting of a battery, warts and all. I know the card's RAM can fail, the card itself can fail - that's common territory, though. In case you didn't guess, yeah, I've experienced a shocking-to-me amount of flash/SSD/etc. failure :)

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• What can cause the system to freeze in a way where even the reset button takes a long time to react?

  - by ThiefMaster

  What can be the reason for system freezes that are so "hard" that even the hardware reset button takes about 3 seconds until it actually resets the system (and then it actually powers down and up again instead of doing a "clean" hard reset like when pressing it during a normally running system). Since it initially happened mainly while playing videos from YouTube I suspected the graphics card - however, I replaced it recently and it did not change it. It still happens from time to time (and sometimes more often, like a few times times in the last few hours). The system is running Windows 7 - but I don't think this matters since I don't think any software, not even the OS, can actually affect the reset button's behaviour. The PC is not overheated and the freezes happen randomly. There is also no malware on the system. The CPU is an Intel Core i7-920 on a Gigabyte EX58-UD5 mainboard. What could be the cause for this problem? Faulty RAM? I did not run a full memtest86 check yet, but I wonder if there is a more likely issue than faulty RAM - checking 12G of ram does take some time after all! There are no entries in the event log - but that's what I expected since the system freezes so hard that I doubt it has time to write anything to any log.

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• I really need help resolving a Window Vista BSOD (Blue Screen Crash) on my desktop

  - by anonymous

  Hi, thanks for taking the time to read this. I'll get straight to the details. My desktop is on the fritz; it keeps going to blue screen with the stop message of 0x0000007E immediately after the loading bar of vista, right before transitioning to the account selection screen. My desktop runs on a dual-core 32-bit processor with windows Vista Home(?) installed. I have 3 GB of ram as two separate modules, a 1GB acer module and a 2GB geil module. I have an ati video card, unfortunately I cannot recall the exact name but the chipset is ATI and the manufacturer is Sapphire and the card is on the lower end. My hard drive is 320GB (i think) partitioned into two. The C:\ partition is red lined, while the D:\ partition is still pretty empty. As per the advice of my friend, i tried restarting the system with the graphics card removed. Upon failure, i repeated the process removing one RAM module one at a time, but the system still failed to load. Vista would attempt to repair the system and it would initially report that the system was fixed, but vista really failed to fix the problem. After removing the memory modules, vista started to report it's inability to fix the problem. I tried running on safe mode and the driver listing would always stop at crcdisk.sys. I ran memory diagnostics using the windows memory diagnostic tool found in the screen after vista's failed attempt to fix the problem with no luck. the problem details are as such: Problem Event Name : StartupRepairV2 Problem Signature 01: AutoFailover 02: (vista's version number?) 03: 6 04: 720907 05: 0x7e 06: 0x7e 07: 0 08: 2 09: WrpRepair 10: 0 OS Version: 6.0.6000.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID 1033 any correct advice would be appreciated as i really need my pc to work so i can work on my projects. kinda sad, but i'm college of computer science and i have no idea what to do :P

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• Is there any any merit to routinely restore a linux system, even if unnecessary?

  - by field_guy

  I do fieldwork with a number of computers running ubuntu performing critical tasks doing fieldwork. The computers are similarly configured with slight variations. Since we've had some configuration issues in the past, my boss is pressing for us to take an image of the installation on each computer, and restore each computer to that image before they are to go into the field. My preferred solution would be to write a common script that checks to ensure that the configuration of the system is correct and that the system is operational. If the computer has been verified, isn't restoring it to that configuration redundant? And are there any inherent problems with doing so? My reluctance stems from the fact that our software and configuration is subject to change in the field, but these changes must be made across all the computers. That means that when a change is made, all the restoration images have to be updated as well. The differences in the configuration of each of the computers live in /etc. In the event that restoration is required, I would prefer to keep a single image containing everything that is common to all machines, and have a snapshot of each computer's /etc directory to be used for restoring the state of that particular machine. What's the better approach?

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• Web Server slows down (ASP.NET)

  - by mfeingold

  below is a question I posted on stackoverflow . as suggested by Martin Clarke I also post it here. We have a really strange problem. One of the servers in the server farm becomes really slow. We see a number of timeouts in the logs and overall response time is not where it should be (and is on other servers in the farm). What is also strange is that it is not just the web app - Just logging into the server takes up to 1.5 min to show you the desktop. Once you are in, the system is as responsive as ever - unless you try to launch something, i.e. notepad - it takes another minute to launch and after launch it works fine. I checked a number of things - memory utilization is reasonable, CPU is below 15%, windows handles, event logs do not show anything. Recycling the aps.net process does not fix it - it still takes over a minute to log in. Rebooting the server helped, but now it started to slow down again. After a closer look we found out that Windows Temp directory is full of temp files - over 65k files. This is certainly something to take care of. But my question is could it be the root cause of the sluggishness, or there is still something else lurking in the shadows? Edit After more digging I am zeroing in on the issue related to the size of temp directories. This article: (see the original post this thing will not let me include a second link) describes something very similar. It still does not answer the question why the server is still slow even there is no activity.

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• What is wrong with my home network? (Routing and connection issues)

  - by David

  I have a corporate laptop that was provided to me by a client and I'm having some rather odd difficulties with it when I put the laptop on my home network. When I first brought the machine home it behaved like any other laptop. Once it was connected to the network it was assigned an IP address and I could remote into it just fine using the machine name. Lately though, whenever I put this laptop on my network I am not able to ping or RDP into the machine as the host name doesn't properly resolve. Additionally I'm able to see the device and it's assigned IP address clearly in my router firmware. This gets even more strange as now when I try to ping it's IP address listed in my router, I see that it's actually trying to ping my own machine (screenshot of this very odd event below). This has actually driven me crazy to the point that I have actually replaced my router (it was behaving oddly in other ways), and I'm continuing to have these problems. The above ping capture is from the new router. As far as network goes I am now currently using an NetGear R7000 Nighthawk and I haven't customized any of the networking settings in the router just yet (installed yesterday). I would appreciate any advice possible and would be happy to provide further diagnostic information. Networking isn't my strong suit, so I'm not even sure where to begin unraveling this thing.

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• Exchange 2003 - The Case of the Disappearing Message

  - by John Gardeniers

  We run a single Exchange 2003 Standard server. On two separate occasions we have had the following happen, both times with the same sender and recipients. A user with an an email address in domain A sends a message to two others with email addresses in domain B. I must stress that this is all internal and on the same Exchange server. Both recipients were listed in the "to" field. The first listed recipient received the message, the other didn't. Checking message tracking in ESM, as well as manually checking the server Application event log, indicates that both messages were delivered without a hitch. However, the message just cannot be found in the second recipient's mailbox. Using both Outlook and OWA I have searched all the recipient's Outlook folders, in case it accidentally got moved to another folder or was deleted. I also checked the deleted message recovery folder. No sign of it anywhere. I'm completely baffled. How could a message that the system insists was delivered not actually be in the recipient's mailbox? What else can I do to try and track it down?

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• Mysql Replication out of sync? What commands do I run to sync it back up?

  - by Alex

  I have a master-master replication system. However, due to an auto-increment issue, I got an error in replication...and it stopped replicating. Someone told me to do: stop slave; SET GLOBAL SQL_SLAVE_SKIP_COUNTER = 1; start slave; It didn't work. Then they told me to do: SET GLOBAL SQL_SLAVE_SKIP_COUNTER = 2; It didn't work. Then to test it out, I did: SET GLOBAL SQL_SLAVE_SKIP_COUNTER = 99999; It starts, but it is not updating. I created a table on DB1...and it is not showing up on DB2... Below are the SHOW STATUS for both my DB1 and DB2 (I hit them together): mysql> show master status\G *************************** 1. row *************************** File: mysql-bin.000605 Position: 2019727 Binlog_Do_DB: Binlog_Ignore_DB: 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> show slave status\G; *************************** 1. row *************************** Slave_IO_State: Waiting for master to send event Master_Host: Master_User: Master_Port: Connect_Retry: 60 Master_Log_File: mysql-bin.000605 Read_Master_Log_Pos: 2008810 Relay_Log_File: mysqld-relay-bin.001731 Relay_Log_Pos: 10176595 Relay_Master_Log_File: mysql-bin.000470 Slave_IO_Running: Yes Slave_SQL_Running: Yes Replicate_Do_DB: Replicate_Ignore_DB: Replicate_Do_Table: Replicate_Ignore_Table: Replicate_Wild_Do_Table: Replicate_Wild_Ignore_Table: Last_Errno: 0 Last_Error: Skip_Counter: 4255373725 Exec_Master_Log_Pos: 10176458 Relay_Log_Space: 135062517347 Until_Condition: None Until_Log_File: Until_Log_Pos: 0 Master_SSL_Allowed: No Master_SSL_CA_File: Master_SSL_CA_Path: Master_SSL_Cert: Master_SSL_Cipher: Master_SSL_Key: Seconds_Behind_Master: 1376343 1 row in set (0.00 sec) How do I fix it so that they sync back up again? Thank you.

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• WPF ToggleButton changing image depending on state

  - by mack369

  I would like to use ToggleButton in following way: There are 5 different images and each of them should be displayed depending on current state: button disabled button enabled, unchecked button enabled, unchecked, pointed by mouse cursor button enabled, checked button enabled, checked, pointed by mouse cursor I've found a simple example with two images on http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/28c36bd2-2ef7-4232-9976-2a0967140e32 , but how to change the image depending on "checked" property? The second question: how can I avoid creating different styles for each button in my application? I'm using about 20 different buttons and each of them has different set of icons. So far I'm using only one icon, below my code. Is it possible to have common code (style and template) and to define the source of images in section where I want to create button (like in section 3 of my code)? <ControlTemplate x:Key="ToggleButtonTemplate" TargetType="{x:Type ToggleButton}"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ContentBorder" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1" Background="{DynamicResource ButtonOff}"> <ContentPresenter SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Border> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonOn}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsChecked" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonOn}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="false"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonDisabled}"/> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{DynamicResource BorderDisabled}"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> <Style x:Key="ToggleButtonStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ToggleButton}"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="64" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="64" /> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{DynamicResource ToggleButtonTemplate}" /> </Style> <ToggleButton IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsLectorModeEnabled}" Command="{Binding CmdLector}" Style="{DynamicResource ToggleButtonStyle}"> <Image Source="{DynamicResource LectorImage}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Stretch="None" /> </ToggleButton>

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• Creating Entity Framework objects with Unity for Unit of Work/Repository pattern

  - by TobyEvans

  Hi there, I'm trying to implement the Unit of Work/Repository pattern, as described here: http://blogs.msdn.com/adonet/archive/2009/06/16/using-repository-and-unit-of-work-patterns-with-entity-framework-4-0.aspx This requires each Repository to accept an IUnitOfWork implementation, eg an EF datacontext extended with a partial class to add an IUnitOfWork interface. I'm actually using .net 3.5, not 4.0. My basic Data Access constructor looks like this: public DataAccessLayer(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IRealtimeRepository realTimeRepository) { this.unitOfWork = unitOfWork; this.realTimeRepository = realTimeRepository; } So far, so good. What I'm trying to do is add Dependency Injection using the Unity Framework. Getting the EF data context to be created with Unity was an adventure, as it had trouble resolving the constructor - what I did in the end was to create another constructor in my partial class with a new overloaded constructor, and marked that with [InjectionConstructor] [InjectionConstructor] public communergyEntities(string connectionString, string containerName) :this() { (I know I need to pass the connection string to the base object, that can wait until once I've got all the objects initialising correctly) So, using this technique, I can happily resolve my entity framework object as an IUnitOfWork instance thus: using (IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer()) { container.RegisterType<IUnitOfWork, communergyEntities>(); container.Configure<InjectedMembers>() .ConfigureInjectionFor<communergyEntities>( new InjectionConstructor("a", "b")) DataAccessLayer target = container.Resolve<DataAccessLayer>(); Great. What I need to do now is create the reference to the repository object for the DataAccessLayer - the DAL only needs to know the interface, so I'm guessing that I need to instantiate it as part of the Unity Resolve statement, passing it the appropriate IUnitOfWork interface. In the past, I would have just passed the Repository constructor the db connection string, and it would have gone away, created a local Entity Framework object and used that just for the lifetime of the Repository method. This is different, in that I create an Entity Framework instance as an IUnitOfWork implementation during the Unity Resolve statement, and it's that instance I need to pass into the constructor of the Repository - is that possible, and if so, how? I'm wondering if I could make the Repository a property and mark it as a Dependency, but that still wouldn't solve the problem of how to create the Repository with the IUnitOfWork object that the DAL is being Resolved with I'm not sure if I've understood this pattern correctly, and will happily take advice on the best way to implement it - Entity Framework is staying, but Unity can be swapped out if not the best approach. If I've got the whole thing upside down, please tell me thanks

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• Unable to set maxReceivedMessageSize through web.config

  - by Michael Mortensen

  Hello there, I have now investigated the 400 - BadRequest code for the last two hours. A lot of sugestions goes towards ensuring the bindingConfiguration attribute is set correctly, and in my case, it is. Now, I need YOUR help before destroying the building i am in :-) I run a WCF RestFull service (very lightweight, using this resource for inspiration: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/dd315413.aspx) which (for now) accepts an XmlElement (POX) provided through the POST verb. I am currently ONLY using Fiddler's request builder before implementing a true client (as this is mixed environments). When I do this for XML smaller than 65K, it works fine - larger, it throws this exception: The maximum message size quota for incoming messages (65536) has been exceeded. To increase the quota, use the MaxReceivedMessageSize property on the appropriate binding element. Here is my web.config file (which I even included the client-tag for (desperate times!)): <system.web> <httpRuntime maxRequestLength="1500000" executionTimeout="180"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <diagnostics> <messageLogging logEntireMessage="true" logMalformedMessages="true" logMessagesAtServiceLevel="true" logMessagesAtTransportLevel="true" /> </diagnostics> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="WebHttpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="1500000" maxBufferPoolSize="1500000" maxBufferSize="1500000" closeTimeout="00:03:00" openTimeout="00:03:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:03:00"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="1500000" maxArrayLength="1500000" maxBytesPerRead="1500000" /> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebHttpBinding" contract="Commerce.ICatalogue"/> </client> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior" name="Catalogue"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="RestFull" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebHttpBinding" contract="Commerce.ICatalogue" /> <!-- endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" / --> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="RestFull"> <webHttp/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug httpHelpPageEnabled="true" includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> Thanks in advance for any help leading to succesfull call with 65K XML ;-)

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• Tips / techniques for high-performance C# server sockets

  - by McKenzieG1

  I have a .NET 2.0 server that seems to be running into scaling problems, probably due to poor design of the socket-handling code, and I am looking for guidance on how I might redesign it to improve performance. Usage scenario: 50 - 150 clients, high rate (up to 100s / second) of small messages (10s of bytes each) to / from each client. Client connections are long-lived - typically hours. (The server is part of a trading system. The client messages are aggregated into groups to send to an exchange over a smaller number of 'outbound' socket connections, and acknowledgment messages are sent back to the clients as each group is processed by the exchange.) OS is Windows Server 2003, hardware is 2 x 4-core X5355. Current client socket design: A TcpListener spawns a thread to read each client socket as clients connect. The threads block on Socket.Receive, parsing incoming messages and inserting them into a set of queues for processing by the core server logic. Acknowledgment messages are sent back out over the client sockets using async Socket.BeginSend calls from the threads that talk to the exchange side. Observed problems: As the client count has grown (now 60-70), we have started to see intermittent delays of up to 100s of milliseconds while sending and receiving data to/from the clients. (We log timestamps for each acknowledgment message, and we can see occasional long gaps in the timestamp sequence for bunches of acks from the same group that normally go out in a few ms total.) Overall system CPU usage is low (< 10%), there is plenty of free RAM, and the core logic and the outbound (exchange-facing) side are performing fine, so the problem seems to be isolated to the client-facing socket code. There is ample network bandwidth between the server and clients (gigabit LAN), and we have ruled out network or hardware-layer problems. Any suggestions or pointers to useful resources would be greatly appreciated. If anyone has any diagnostic or debugging tips for figuring out exactly what is going wrong, those would be great as well. Note: I have the MSDN Magazine article Winsock: Get Closer to the Wire with High-Performance Sockets in .NET, and I have glanced at the Kodart "XF.Server" component - it looks sketchy at best.

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• Using DefaultCredentials and DefaultNetworkCredentials

  - by Fred

  Hi, We're having a hard time figuring how these credentials objects work. In fact, they may not work how we expected them to work. Here's an explanation of the current issue. We got 2 servers that needs to talk with each other through webservices. The first one (let's call it Server01) has a Windows Service running as the NetworkService account. The other one (Server02) has ReportingServices running with IIS 6.0. The Windows Service on Server01 is trying to use the Server02's ReportingServices' WebService to generate reports and send them by email. So, here's what we tried so far. Setting the credentials at runtime (This works perfectly fine): rs.Credentials = new NetworkCredentials("user", "pass", "domain"); Now, if we could use a generic user all would be fine, however... we are not allowed to. So, we are trying to use the DefaultCredetials or DefaultNetworkCredentials and pass it to the RS Webservice: `rs.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultNetworkCredentials OR `rs.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials Either way won't work. We're always getting 401 Unauthrorized from IIS. Now, what we know is that if we want to give access to a resource logged as NetworkService, we need to grant it to "DOMAIN\MachineName$" (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms998320.aspx): Granting Access to a Remote SQL Server If you are accessing a database on another server in the same domain (or in a trusted domain), the Network Service account's network credentials are used to authenticate to the database. The Network Service account's credentials are of the form DomainName\AspNetServer$, where DomainName is the domain of the ASP.NET server and AspNetServer is your Web server name. For example, if your ASP.NET application runs on a server named SVR1 in the domain CONTOSO, the SQL Server sees a database access request from CONTOSO\SVR1$. We assumed that granting access the same way with IIS would work. However, it does not. Or at least, something is not set properly for it to authenticate correctly. So, here are some questions: We've read about "Impersonating Users" somewhere, do we need to set this somewhere in the Windows Service ? Is it possible to grant access to the NetworkService built-in account to a remote IIS server ? Thanks for reading!

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• Drawing a TextBox in an extended Glass Frame (C# w/o WPF)

  - by Lazlo

  I am trying to draw a TextBox on the extended glass frame of my form. I won't describe this technique, it's well-known. Here's an example for those who haven't heard of it: http://www.danielmoth.com/Blog/Vista-Glass-In-C.aspx The thing is, it is complex to draw over this glass frame. Since black is considered to be the 0-alpha color, anything black disappears. There are apparently ways of countering this problem: drawing complex GDI+ shapes are not affected by this alpha-ness. For example, this code can be used to draw a Label on glass (note: GraphicsPath is used instead of DrawString in order to get around the horrible ClearType problem): public class GlassLabel : Control { public GlassLabel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { GraphicsPath font = new GraphicsPath(); font.AddString( this.Text, this.Font.FontFamily, (int)this.Font.Style, this.Font.Size, Point.Empty, StringFormat.GenericDefault); e.Graphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; e.Graphics.FillPath(new SolidBrush(this.ForeColor), font); } } Similarly, such an approach can be used to create a container on the glass area. Note the use of the polygons instead of the rectangle - when using the rectangle, its black parts are considered as alpha. public class GlassPanel : Panel { public GlassPanel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Point[] area = new Point[] { new Point(0, 1), new Point(1, 0), new Point(this.Width - 2, 0), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width -1, this.Height - 2), new Point(this.Width -2, this.Height-1), new Point(1, this.Height -1), new Point(0, this.Height - 2) }; Point[] inArea = new Point[] { new Point(1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(1, this.Height - 1) }; e.Graphics.FillPolygon(new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(240, 240, 240)), inArea); e.Graphics.DrawPolygon(new Pen(Color.FromArgb(55, 0, 0, 0)), area); base.OnPaint(e); } } Now my problem is: How can I draw a TextBox? After lots of Googling, I came up with the following solutions: Subclassing the TextBox's OnPaint method. This is possible, although I could not get it to work properly. It should involve painting some magic things I don't know how to do yet. Making my own custom TextBox, perhaps on a TextBoxBase. If anyone has good, valid and working examples, and thinks this could be a good overall solution, please tell me. Using BufferedPaintSetAlpha. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms649805.aspx). The downsides of this method may be that the corners of the textbox might look odd, but I can live with that. If anyone knows how to implement that method properly from a Graphics object, please tell me. I personally don't, but this seems the best solution so far. Thanks!

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• Debugging XSLT with extension objects in Visual Studio 2010

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I'm currently working on a project that involves a lot of XSLT transformations and I really need a debugger (I have XSLTs that are 1000+ lines long and I didn't write them :-). The project is written in C# and makes use of extension objects: xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:<obj>", new <Obj>()); From my knowledge, in this situation Visual Studio is the only tool that can help me debug the transformations step-by-step. The static debugger is no use because of the extension objects (it throws an error when it reaches elements that reference their namespace). Fortunately, I've found this thread which gave me a starting point (at least I know it can be done). After searching MSDN, I found the criteria that makes stepping into the transform possible. They are listed here. In short: the XML and the XSLT must be loaded via a class that has the IXmlLineInfo interface (XmlReader & co.) the XML resolver used in the XSLTCompiledTransform constructor is file-based (XmlUriResolver should work). the stylesheet should be on the local machine or on the intranet (?) From what I can tell, I fit all these criteria, but it still doesn't work. The relevant code samples are posted below: // [...] xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(true); xslTransform.Load(XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(contents)), null, new BaseUriXmlResolver(xslLocalPath)); // [...] // I already had the xml loaded in an xmlDocument // so I have to convert to an XmlReader XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(new StringReader(xmlDoc.OuterXml)); XsltArgumentList xslArg = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:[...]", new [...]()); xslTransform.Transform(r, xslArg, context.Response.Output); I really don't get what I'm doing wrong. I've checked the interfaces on both XmlReader objects and they implement the required one. Also, BaseUriXmlResolver inherits from XmlUriResolver and the stylesheet is stored locally. The screenshot below is what I get when stepping into the Transform function. First I can see the stylesheet code after stepping through the parameters (on template-match), I get this: If anyone has any idea why it doesn't work or has an alternative way of getting it to work I'd be much obliged :). Thanks, Alex

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• WCF custom certificate validation with BasicHttpBinding

  - by Sprklnh2o

  I have a WCF application hosted on IIS 6 that needs to Have 2-way SSL authentication Validate client certificate content with some client host information Validate client certificate is issued by the valid subCA. I was able to do 1) successfully. I am trying to achieve 2) and 3) by following this - basically creating a class that inherits X509CertificateValidator and overriding the Validate method with my own validation implementation(step 2 and 3). I followed the MSDN instructions exactly however, it seem that the Validate method is not being called. I purposely throw a SecurityAccessDeniedException in the overidden Validate method and no exception is thrown when I tried to access the service via my browser. I can still access my website with any client certificate. I also read this thread but it didn't really help. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Here's my configuration: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="SimpleServiceBehavior" name="SampleNameSpace.SampleClass"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="NewBinding0" contract="SampleNameSpace.ISampleClass" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="SimpleServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="true" policyVersion="Default" /> <serviceCredentials> <clientCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="Custom" customCertificateValidatorType="SampleNameSpace.MyX509CertificateValidator, SampleAssembly"/> </clientCertificate> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="NewBinding0"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="Certificate" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings>

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• Prevent recursive CTE visiting nodes multiple times

  - by bacar

  Consider the following simple DAG: 1->2->3->4 And a table, #bar, describing this (I'm using SQL Server 2005): parent_id child_id 1 2 2 3 3 4 //... other edges, not connected to the subgraph above Now imagine that I have some other arbitrary criteria that select the first and last edges, i.e. 1-2 and 3-4. I want to use these to find the rest of my graph. I can write a recursive CTE as follows (I'm using terminology from MSDN): with foo(parent_id,child_id) as ( // anchor member that happens to select first and last edges: select parent_id,child_id from #bar where parent_id in (1,3) union all // recursive member: select #bar.* from #bar join foo on #bar.parent_id = foo.child_id ) select parent_id,child_id from foo However, this results in edge 3-4 being selected twice: parent_id child_id 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 // 2nd appearance! How can I prevent the query from recursing into subgraphs that have already been described? I could achieve this if, in my "recursive member" part of the query, I could reference all data that has been retrieved by the recursive CTE so far (and supply a predicate indicating in the recursive member excluding nodes already visited). However, I think I can access data that was returned by the last iteration of the recursive member only. This will not scale well when there is a lot of such repetition. Is there a way of preventing this unnecessary additional recursion? Note that I could use "select distinct" in the last line of my statement to achieve the desired results, but this seems to be applied after all the (repeated) recursion is done, so I don't think this is an ideal solution. Edit - hainstech suggests stopping recursion by adding a predicate to exclude recursing down paths that were explicitly in the starting set, i.e. recurse only where foo.child_id not in (1,3). That works for the case above only because it simple - all the repeated sections begin within the anchor set of nodes. It doesn't solve the general case where they may not be. e.g., consider adding edges 1-4 and 4-5 to the above set. Edge 4-5 will be captured twice, even with the suggested predicate. :(

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• ADO.NET Data Services Entity Framework request error when property setter is internal

  - by Jim Straatman

  I receive an error message when exposing an ADO.NET Data Service using an Entity Framework data model that contains an entity (called "Case") with an internal setter on a property. If I modify the setter to be public (using the entity designer), the data services works fine. I don’t need the entity "Case" exposed in the data service, so I tried to limit which entities are exposed using SetEntitySetAccessRule. This didn’t work, and service end point fails with the same error. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("User", EntitySetRights.AllRead); } The error message is reported in a browser when the .svc endpoint is called. It is very generic, and reads “Request Error. The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.” Unfortunately, there are no entries in the System and Application event logs. I found this stackoverflow question that shows how to configure tracing on the service. After doing so, the following NullReferenceExceptoin error was reported in the trace log. Does anyone know how to avoid this exception when including an entity with an internal setter? Blockquote 131076 3 0 2 MOTOJIM http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/System.ServiceModel.Diagnostics.TraceHandledException.aspx Handling an exception. 685a2910-19-128703978432492675 System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.CreateProvider(Type dataServiceType, Object dataSourceInstance, DataServiceConfiguration&amp; configuration) at System.Data.Services.DataService1.EnsureProviderAndConfigForRequest() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.ProcessRequestForMessage(Stream messageBody) at SyncInvokeProcessRequestForMessage(Object , Object[] , Object[] ) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.SyncMethodInvoker.Invoke(Object instance, Object[] inputs, Object[]&amp; outputs) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) </StackTrace> <ExceptionString>System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.P

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• TFS and shared projects in multiple solutions

  - by David Stratton

  Our .NET team works on projects for our company that fall into distinct categories. Some are internal web apps, some are external (publicly facing) web apps, we also have internal Windows applications for our corporate office users, and Windows Forms apps for our retail locations (stores). Of course, because we hate code reuse, we have a ton of code that is shared among the different applications. Currently we're using SVN as our source control, and we've got our repository laid out like this: - = folder, | = Visual Studio Solution -SVN - Internet | Ourcompany.com | Oursecondcompany.com - Intranet | UniformOrdering website | MessageCenter website - Shared | ErrorLoggingModule | RegularExpressionGenerator | Anti-Xss | OrgChartModule etc... So.. The OurCompany.com solution in the Internet folder would have a website project, and it would also include the ErrorLoggingModule, RegularExpressionGenerator, and Anti-Xss projects from the shared directory. Similarly, our UniformOrdering website solution would have each of these projects included in the solution as well. We prefer to have a project reference to a .dll reference because, first of all, if we need to add or fix a function in the ErrorLoggingModule while working on the OurCompany.com website, it's right there. Also, this allows us to build each solution and see if changes to shared code break any other applications. This should work well on a build server as well if I'm correct. In SVN, there is no problem with this. SVN and Visual Studio aren't tied together in the way TFS's source control is. We never figured out how to work this type of structure in TFS when we were using it, because in TFS, the TFS project was always tied to a Visual Studio Solution. The Source Code repository was a child of the TFS Project, so if we wanted to do this, we had to duplicate the Shared code in each TFS project's source code repository. As my co-worker put it, this "breaks every known best practice about code reuse and simplicity". It was enough of a deal breaker for us that we switched to SVN. Now, however, we're faced with truly fixing our development processes, and the Application Lifecycle Management of TFS is pretty close to exactly what we want, and how we want to work. Our one sticking point is the shared code issue. We're evaluating other commercial and open source solutions, but since we're already paying for TFS with our MSDN Subscriptions, and TFS is pretty much exactly what we want, we'd REALLY like to find a way around this issue. Has anybody else faced this and come up with a solution? If you've seen an article or posting on this that you can share with me, that would help as well. As always, I'm open to answers like "You're looking at it all wrong, bonehead, HERE'S the way it SHOULD be done.

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• GZip compression with WCF hosted on IIS7

  - by joniba

  So I'm going to add my query to the small ocean of questions on the subject. I'm trying to enable GZip compression on large soap responses from a WCF service. So far, I've followed instructions here and in a variety of other places to enable dynamic compression on IIS. Here's my dynamicTypes section from the applicationHost.config: <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xop+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> And also: <urlCompression doDynamicCompression="true" dynamicCompressionBeforeCache="true" /> Though I'm not so clear on why that's needed. Threw some extra mime-types in there just in case. I've implemented IClientMessageInspector to add Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate to my client's HttpRequests. Here's an example of a request-header taken from fiddler: POST http://[omitted]/TestMtomService/TextService.svc HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8 Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: [omitted] Content-Length: 542 Expect: 100-continue Now, this doesn't work. There's simply no compression happening, no matter what the size of the message (tried up to 1.5Mb). I've looked at this post, but have not run into an exception as he describes, so I haven't tried the CodeProject implementation that he proposes. Also I've seen a lot of other implementations that are supposed to get this to work, but cannot make sense of them (e.g., msdn's GZip encoder). Why would I need to implement the encoder, or the code-project solution? Shouldn't IIS take care of the compression? So what else do I need to do to get this to work? Joni

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• How to troubleshoot a 'System.Management.Automation.CmdletInvocationException'

  - by JamesD

  Does anyone know how best to determine the specific underlying cause of this exception? Consider a WCF service that is supposed to use Powershell 2.0 remoting to execute MSBuild on remote machines. In both cases the scripting environments are being called in-process (via C# for Powershell and via Powershell for MSBuild), rather than 'shelling-out' - this was a specific design decision to avoid command-line hell as well as to enable passing actual objects into the Powershell script. The Powershell script that calls MSBuild is shown below: function Run-MSBuild { [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.Build.Engine") $engine = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Engine $engine.BinPath = "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5" $project = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Project($engine, "3.5") $project.Load("deploy.targets") $project.InitialTargets = "DoStuff" # # Set some initial Properties & Items # # Optionally setup some loggers (have also tried it without any loggers) $consoleLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.ConsoleLogger $engine.RegisterLogger($consoleLogger) $fileLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.FileLogger $fileLogger.Parameters = "verbosity=diagnostic" $engine.RegisterLogger($fileLogger) # Run the build - this is the line that throws a CmdletInvocationException $result = $project.Build() $engine.Shutdown() } When running the above script from a PS command prompt it all works fine. However, as soon as the script is executed from C# it fails with the above exception. The C# code being used to call Powershell is shown below (remoting functionality removed for simplicity's sake): // Build the DTO object that will be passed to Powershell dto = SetupDTO() RunspaceConfiguration runspaceConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); using (Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(runspaceConfig)) { runspace.Open(); IList errors; using (var scriptInvoker = new RunspaceInvoke(runspace)) { // The Powershell script lives in a file that gets compiled as an embedded resource TextReader tr = new StreamReader(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("MyScriptResource")); string script = tr.ReadToEnd(); // Load the script into the Runspace scriptInvoker.Invoke(script); // Call the function defined in the script, passing the DTO as an input object var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild", dto, out errors); } } Assuming that the issue was related to MSBuild outputting something that the Powershell runspace can't cope with, I have also tried the following variations to the second .Invoke() call: var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-String", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-Null", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-Null"); I've also looked at using a custom PSHost (based on this sample: http://blogs.msdn.com/daiken/archive/2007/06/22/hosting-windows-powershell-sample-code.aspx), but during debugging I was unable to see any 'interesting' calls to it being made. Do the great and the good of Stackoverflow have any insight that might save my sanity?

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• getting autodiscover URL from Exchange email address

  - by Anthony

  I'm starting with an address for an Exchange 2007 server: [email protected] And I attempted to send an autodiscover request, as documented at MSDN. I attempted to use the generic autodiscover address documented at the TechNet White Paper. So, using curl on PHP, I sent the following request: <Autodiscover xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/requestschema/2006"> <Request> <EMailAddress>[email protected]</EMailAddress> <AcceptableResponseSchema> http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/responseschema/2006a </AcceptableResponseSchema> </Request> </Autodiscover> to the following URL: https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml But got no response, just an eventual timeout. I also tried: https://autodiscover.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml With the same result. Now, since my larger goal is to use Autodiscover with Exchange Web Services, and since all of the EWS URLs start with the same sub-domain as the Outlook Web Access address, I thought I'd give that a try: OWA: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org So I tried: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml And sure enough, I got back the expected response. However, I only knew the OWA sub-domain because it's the server I have access to and that I'm using to test everything. I would not know it for sure or be able to guess it if this were a live app and the user was entering in their own Exchange email. I know that whatever generic autodiscover settings must be turned on, because I can enter: [email protected] into Apple Mail on Snow Leopard and it finds everything without trouble. So the question is... Should https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml have worked, and I just missed a step when trying to connect to it? Or, Is there some trick (maybe involving pinging the email address?) that Apple Mail and other clients use to resolve the address to the OWA subdomain before sending the autodiscover request? Thanks to anyone who knows or can take a wild guess.

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