Search Results

Search found 19279 results on 772 pages for 'everything'.

Page 617/772 | < Previous Page | 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624  | Next Page >

  • How to retrieve the Description property from SettingsProperty?

    - by BadNinja
    For each item in my application's settings, I've added text to its Description Property which I want to retrieve at runtime. I'm sure I'm missing some basic logical nuance here, but everything I've tried has failed. Clearly, my understanding of what value needs to be passed to the Attributes property of the SettingsProperty class is wrong. I'm further confused by the fact that when I iterate through all they keys returned by SettingsProperty.Attributes.Keys, I can see "System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute", but when I pass that string in as the key to the Attributes property, null is returned. Any insight into how to properly retrieve the value Description Property would be very much appreciated. Thanks. :) public void MyMethod() { SettingsPropertyCollection MyAppProperties = Properties.Settings.Default.Properties; IEnumerator enumerator = MyAppProperties.GetEnumerator(); // Iterate through all the keys to see what we have.... while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; ICollection myKeys = property.Attributes.Keys; foreach (object theKey in myKeys) System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print(theKey.ToString()); // One of the keys returned is: System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute } enumerator.Reset(); while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; string propertyValue = property.DefaultValue.ToString(); // This fails: Null Reference string propertyDescription = property.Attributes["System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute"].ToString(); // Do stuff with strings... } }

    Read the article

  • Several Objective-C objects become Invalid for no reason, sometimes.

    - by farnsworth
    - (void)loadLocations { NSString *url = @"<URL to a text file>"; NSStringEncoding enc = NSUTF8StringEncoding; NSString *locationString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] usedEncoding:&enc error:nil]; NSArray *lines = [locationString componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; for (int i=0; i<[lines count]; i++) { NSString *line = [lines objectAtIndex:i]; NSArray *components = [line componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]; Restaurant *res = [byID objectForKey:[components objectAtIndex:0]]; if (res) { NSString *resAddress = [components objectAtIndex:3]; NSArray *loc = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[components objectAtIndex:1], [components objectAtIndex:2]]; [res.locationCoords setObject:loc forKey:resAddress]; } else { NSLog([[components objectAtIndex:0] stringByAppendingString:@" res id not found."]); } } } There are a few weird things happening here. First, at the two lines where the NSArray lines is used, this message is printed to the console- *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFDictionary count]: method sent to an uninitialized mutable dictionary object' which is strange since lines is definitely not an NSMutableDictionary, definitely is initialized, and because the app doesn't crash. Also, at random points in the loop, all of the variables that the debugger can see will become Invalid. Local variables, property variables, everything. Then after a couple lines they will go back to their original values. setObject:forKey never has an effect on res.locationCoords, which is an NSMutableDictionary. I'm sure that res, res.locationCoords, and byId are initialized. I also tried adding a retain or copy to lines, same thing. I'm sure there's a basic memory management principle I'm missing here but I'm at a loss.

    Read the article

  • IE not rendering div contents

    - by The.Anti.9
    I've written an app using HTML 5 and I wan't to show an error box instead of the page when someone visits from IE. When it detects navigator.appName as Microsoft Internet Explorer it hides everything and shows the error div that started out hidden. The div is as follows: <div id='ieerror' style='display:none;width:500px;height:500px;border:3px solid #ff0000;position:absolute;top:50%;left:50%;margin-top:-250px;margin-left:-250px;'> <center> <h1 style='font-size: 30px;'>Internet Explorer is not supported by Aud!</h1><br /><br /> <p>Internet Explorer does not support HTML 5 and therefore this application cannot run.<br /> Please upgrade your browser. We suggest <a href='http://www.google.com/chrome'>Google Chrome</a>!</p> </center> </div> The problem is that when I visit the page in IE, the div pops up with the border, but it has no contents. Nothing is inside of it. I went to view->source and looked at it, and the code is still there, but none of it is rendered. How do I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Flex datagrid headerColor style is not working....

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. I am trying to change the datagrid header color by editing headerColor style. I could change the font size, font family...etc except the headerColor. Would someone help me about it? Thanks a lot. My code Mxml <mx:DataGrid id="dataGrid" creationComplete="dataGrid_creationCompleteHandler(event)" dataProvider="{cityinfoResult3.lastResult}"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Detail" dataField="detail"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Name" dataField="name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> Style #dataGrid{ headerColors: #ff6600; //everything works except this one. The color can't be //changed? rollOverColor: #33ccff; textRollOverColor: #ffffff; iconColor: #ff0000; fontFamily: Arial; fontSize:12; dropShadowEnabled: true; alternatingItemColors: #330099, #0000cc; color: #ffffff; borderColor: #ffffff; }

    Read the article

  • C# Late Binding for Parameterized Property

    - by optim
    I'm trying to use late binding to connect to a COM automation API provided by a program called Amibroker, using a C# WinForms project. So far I've been able to connect to everything in the API except one item, which I believe to be a "parameterized property" based on extensive Googling. Here's what the API specification looks like according to the docs (Full version here: http://www.amibroker.com/guide/objects.html): Property Filter(ByVal nType As Integer, ByVal pszCategory As String) As Long [r/w] A javascript snippet to update the value looks like this: AB = new ActiveXObject("Broker.Application"); AA = AB.Analysis; AA.Filter( 0, "market" ) = 0; Using the following C# late-binding code, I can get the value of the property, but I can't for the life of me figure out how to set the value: object[] parameter = new object[2]; parameter[0] = Number; parameter[1] = Type; object filters = _analysis.GetType().InvokeMember("Filter", BindingFlags.GetProperty, null, _analysis, parameter); So far I have tried: using BindingFlags.SetProperty, BindingFlags.SetField casting the returned object to a PropertyInfo object and trying to update the value using it adding extra object containing the value to the parameters object various other things as last-ditch efforts From what I can see, this should be straight-forward, but I'm finding the late binding in C# to be cumbersome at best. The property looks like a method call to me, which is what is throwing me off. How does one assign a value to a method, and what would the prototype for late-binding C# code look like for it? Hopefully that explains it well enough, but feel free to ask if I've left anything unclear. Thanks in advance for any help! Daniel

    Read the article

  • LinqToSQL not updating database

    - by codegarten
    Hi. I created a database and dbml in visual studio 2010 using its wizards. Everything was working fine until i checked the tables data (also in visual studio server explorer) and none of my updates were there. using (var context = new CenasDataContext()) { context.Log = Console.Out; context.Cenas.InsertOnSubmit(new Cena() { id = 1}); context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code i am using to update my database. At this point my database has one table with one field (PK) named ID. *INSERT INTO [dbo].Cenas VALUES (@p0) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1* This is LOG from the execution (printed the context log into the console). The problem i'm having is that these updates are not persistent in the database. I mean that when i query my database (visual studio server explorer - new query) i see the table is empty, every time. I am using a SQL Server database file (.mdf).

    Read the article

  • GitHub solution for personal repo

    - by Luke Maurer
    So I've got my private SVN repo on my home server, and it has maybe 30 different modules thrown together in it, ranging from abortive throw-away larks to a few endeavors that might actually go somewhere someday. But a recent filesystem failure (BTW, never ever EVER use XFS without a battery-backed hardware RAID) has me spooked and thinking of using a DVCS for all that. I've also just had quite the swig of the Git koolaid, and I've been working with GitHub of late, so that's where I'm looking right now. Of course, it would be silly to shell out major cash for a separate private Git repo for every little project, and I don't want to have to be selective about what I throw up there (I love all my children :-D ), so I'll have to be somewhat creative about this. I can happily use SSH to my home box to use Git the way I've been using SVN, and I'm thinking from there I could amalgamate everything into, say, a big project with 30 submodules, which I then push to GitHub. What'd be a sane way to set this up? Does using submodules sound feasible? How do I sync it all to my private GitHub repo? Cron job? Git hook? I'd love to hear it if anyone's done something similar. I'm not really married to Git or GitHub, so a sufficiently compelling feature of another solution might sway me. But if your answer does involve a different system (especially a different VCS), be advised it'll be a tougher sell :-)

    Read the article

  • Jquery Cycle Lite plugin unable to see images that have been loaded by an AJAX call

    - by William Macdonald
    Hi, I am having problems using the jquery cycle lite plugin on some images that are added via AJAX. Here is the jquery code: $(function() { resizeWindow(); $(window).bind("resize", resizeWindow); $("#assignment-nav").accordion({ header: "h3", autoHeight: false }); $(".project").click(function() { // get the HTML and load into div $('.image-holder').empty(); var justTheNumber = $(this).attr('id').replace('project-',''); $.get("get_project_images.php", {project_id:justTheNumber}, function(data){ $('.image-holder').append(data); } ); $(".image-holder").cycle({ // Cycle plugin prev: '#prev', next: '#next', timeout: 0, speed: 250 }) }); }); My code works fine in that the IMG tags are loaded and the first image of the slide show is displayed. However the prev/next buttons don't work. When I load the images via static HTML the slideshow prev/next links works fine. (I just copied and pasted the generated HTML.) I understand I need to use something like .bind or .live to make the Cycle plugin 'see' the new images. I have tried everything I can think of but I can't make it work. What am I doing wrong ?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET dropdownlist callback doesn't work inside div

    - by Wayne Werner
    This seems super weird to me. I have a callback handler done in VB which works fine with this code: <!-- Div Outside Form --> <div class="container"> <form id="querydata" runat="server"> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="myddl" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="myddlhandler"> <asp:ListItem>Hello</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>Goodbye</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="label1"></asp:Label> </form> </div> <!-- Yep, they're matching --> I can change the value and everything is A-OK, but if I change the code to this (div inside form): <form id="querydata" runat="server"> <!-- Div inside form doesn't work :( --> <div class="container"> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="myddl" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="myddlhandler"> <asp:ListItem>Hello</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>Goodbye</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="label1"></asp:Label> </div> </form> It the postback no longer works. Is how asp is supposed to work? Or is it some magic error that only works for me? And most importantly, if asp is not supposed to work this way, how should I be doing this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

    Read the article

  • Test MVC using moq

    - by Raminder
    I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

    Read the article

  • MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

    - by Barslett
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to implement Caliburn-like co-routines in VB.NET since there's no yield keyword

    - by Miroslav Popovic
    Note that I'm aware of other yield in vb.net questions here on SO. I'm playing around with Caliburn lately. Bunch of great stuff there, including co-routines implementation. Most of the work I'm doing is C# based, but now I'm also creating an architecture guideline for a VB.NET only shop, based on Rob's small MVVM framework. Everything looks very well except using co-routines from VB. Since VB 10 is used, we can try something like Bill McCarthy's suggestion: Public Function Lines(ByVal rdr as TextReader) As IEnumerable(Of String) Return New GenericIterator(Of String) (Function(ByRef nextItem As String) As Boolean nextItem = rdr.ReadLine Return nextItem IsNot Nothing End Function) End Function I'm just failing to comprehend how a little more complex co-routine method like the one below (taken from Rob's GameLibrary) could be written in VB: public IEnumerable<IResult> ExecuteSearch() { var search = new SearchGames { SearchText = SearchText }.AsResult(); yield return Show.Busy(); yield return search; var resultCount = search.Response.Count(); if (resultCount == 0) SearchResults = _noResults.WithTitle(SearchText); else if (resultCount == 1 && search.Response.First().Title == SearchText) { var getGame = new GetGame { Id = search.Response.First().Id }.AsResult(); yield return getGame; yield return Show.Screen<ExploreGameViewModel>() .Configured(x => x.WithGame(getGame.Response)); } else SearchResults = _results.With(search.Response); yield return Show.NotBusy(); } Any idea how to achieve that, or any thoughts on using Caliburn co-routines in VB?

    Read the article

  • Browser window popups - risks and special features

    - by Sandeepan Nath
    1. What exactly is the security risk with popups? The new browsers provide settings to block window popups (on blocking, sites with active popups display a message to user). What exactly is the security risk with popups? If allowing popups can execute something dangerous, then the main window can too. Is it not the case. I think I don't know about some special powers of window popups. 2. Any special features of popup windows? Take for example the HDFC bank netbanking site. The entire netbanking session happens in a new window popup and a user neither manually edit the URL or paste the URL in the main browser window. it does not work. Is a popup window needed for this feature? Does it improve security? (Asking because everything that is there in this site revolves around security - so they must have done that for a reason too). Why otherwise they would implement the entire netbanking on a popup window? 3. Is it possible to override browser's popup blocking settings Lastly, the HDFC site succcessfully displays popup window even when in the browser settings popups are blocked. So, how do they do it? Is that a browser hack? To see this - go to http://hdfcbank.com/ Under the "Login to your account" section select "HDFC Bank NetBanking" and click the "Login" button. You can verify that even if popups are blocked/popup blocker is enabled in the browser settings, this site is able to display popups. The answers to this question say that it is not possible to display popup windows if it has been blocked in browser settings. Solved Concluded with Pointy's solution and comments under that. Here is a fiddle demonstrating the same.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

    - by Laurence
    (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

    Read the article

  • Getting the name of a child class in the parent class (static context)

    - by Benoit Myard
    Hi everybody, I'm building an ORM library with reuse and simplicity in mind; everything goes fine except that I got stuck by a stupid inheritance limitation. Please consider the code below: class BaseModel { /* * Return an instance of a Model from the database. */ static public function get (/* varargs */) { // 1. Notice we want an instance of User $class = get_class(parent); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(self); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(); // value: string(9) "BaseModel" $class = __CLASS__; // value: string(9) "BaseModel" // 2. Query the database with id $row = get_row_from_db_as_array(func_get_args()); // 3. Return the filled instance $obj = new $class(); $obj->data = $row; return $obj; } } class User extends BaseModel { protected $table = 'users'; protected $fields = array('id', 'name'); protected $primary_keys = array('id'); } class Section extends BaseModel { // [...] } $my_user = User::get(3); $my_user->name = 'Jean'; $other_user = User::get(24); $other_user->name = 'Paul'; $my_user->save(); $other_user->save(); $my_section = Section::get('apropos'); $my_section->delete(); Obviously, this is not the behavior I was expecting (although the actual behavior also makes sense).. So my question is if you guys know of a mean to get, in the parent class, the name of child class.

    Read the article

  • jQuery .trigger() or $(window) not working in Google Chrome

    - by Jonathan
    I have this jQuery ajax navigation tabs plugin that I created using some help from CSS-Tricks.com and the jQuery hashchange event plugin (detects hash changes in browsers that don't support it). The code is little long to post it here but it goes something like this: Part 1) When a tab is clicked, it gets the href attribute of that tab and add it to the browsers navigation bar like '#tab_name': window.location.hash = $(this).attr("href"); Part 2) When the navigation bar changes (hash change), it gets the href change like this: window.location.hash.substring(1); (substring is to get only 'tab_name' without the '#'), and then call the ajax function to get the info to display. I want to automatically trigger the plugin to load the first tab when the page is accessed, so at the start of the code I put: if (window.location.hash === '') { // If no '#' is in the browser navigation bar window.location.hash = '#tab_1'; // Add #tab_1 to the navigation bar $(window).trigger('hashchange'); // Trigger a hashchange so 'Part 2' of the plugin calls the ajax function using the '#tab_1' added } The probles is that it works in FF but not in Chrome, I mean, everything works but it seems like the $(window).trigger('hashchange'); is not working because it doesnt get the first tab.. Any suggestions??

    Read the article

  • C# - retrieve file path from config file - @ doesn't do it's magic

    - by Bart
    Hi guys, I'm currently working on a web service that retrieves an XML message, archives it and then processes it further. The archive folder is read from the Web.config. This is what the archive method looks like private void Archive(System.Xml.XmlDocument xmlDocument) { try { string directory = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("ArchivePath"); ParseMessage(xmlDocument); directory = string.Format(@"{0}\{1}\{2}", @directory, _senderService, DateTime.Now.ToString("MMMyyyy")); System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(directory); string Id = _messageID; string senderService = _senderService; xmlDocument.Save(directory + @"\" + DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyyMMdd_") + Id + "_" + System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString().Substring(0, 13) + ".xml"); } The path structure I retrieve is C:\Program Files\Subfolder\Subfolder. In the development, QA, UAT and PRD environments everything works fine. But on another machine I now need to install the web service on (which I cannot debug, unfortunately), the directory string is 'C:Files'. Just to be sure I double checked the .NET version on the different machines (I thought perhaps the usage of @ before a string was version-dependent); all machines use 2.0.50727. Does anyone recognize this problem? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Populating a foreign key table with variable user input

    - by Vincent
    I'm working on a website that will be based on user contributed data, submitted using a regular HTML form. To simplify my question, let's say that there will be two fields in the form: "User Name" and "Country" (this is just an example, not the actual site). There will be two tables in the database : "countries" and "users," with "users.country_id" being a foreign key to the "countries" table (one-to-many). The initial database will be empty. Users from all over the world will submit their names and the countries they live in and eventually the "countries" table will get filled out with all of the country names in the world. Since one country can have several alternative names, input like Chile, Chili, Chilli will generate 3 different records in the countries table, but in fact there is only one country. When I search for records from Chile, Chili and Chilli will not be included. So my question is - what would be the best way to deal with a situation like this, with conditions such that the initial database is empty, no other resources are available and everything is based on user input? How can I organize it in such way that Chile, Chili and Chilli would be treated as one country, with minimum manual interference. What are the best practices when it comes to normalizing user submitted data and is there a scientific term for this? I'm sure this is a common problem. Again, I used country names just to simplify my question, it can be anything that has possible different spellings.

    Read the article

  • Strange layout behaviour

    - by andrii
    I am a little bit confused. Here is an small web page. There are two main div-s: top and mainBlock. First contain image. The problem is that firebug shows that div#top's height is equal to 0 and because of that the next div mainBlock moves up. If I would delete this peace of code: div#logo{ float: left; } everything will start working fine and div#mainBlock will be below the div#top. Could you, please, explain me how it works and how to avoid this in proper way? Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"/> <title>Paralab - Website &amp; interface design, web apps development, usability</title> <style text="text/css"> html, body{ } div#logo{ float: left; } #top{ width: 100%; } #mainBlock{ width:100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="top"> <div id="logo"> <img alt="logo" src="img/logo.png" /> </div> </div> <div id="mainBlock"> Contact Us </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

    - by Nazariy
    Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

    Read the article

  • Making a simple searchable directory of people and their skills in a day - Which technologies?

    - by gav
    Hi All, I am working with a small theatre company. Currently they have a list of people on paper with notes about their skills next to each one. I want to create a database / directory for them so that they can add, delete, update and search for people. It is a very simple and common scenario I know but the issue here is that I only have a day to build a working solution. The search has to be very simple At first I was thinking LAMP but I'd rather not have to create it all from scratch and host it myself. That lead me to Google Spreadsheet as a database, this has the advantage that they already use google docs for everything and if my front end goes tits up they can still get to the data. Presuming none of you can think of some existing software which does exactly what I want the next step is to make a front end for the database. You can create forms for Google Spreadsheets but they only let you add new entries, I can make a Google Gadget but that will only let me implement the search as the Google Visualisation API provides read only access. It's at this point I'm stuck, should I just create a Java Servlet front end for the Google Spreadsheet and use the Java API to add, search and update? I know this is a broad question but I'm just asking 'What would you do?' to implement this system with a day's development time? Gav

    Read the article

  • Unhandled Exception error message

    - by Joshua Green
    Does anyone know why including a term such as: t = PL_new_term_ref(); would cause an Unhandled Exception error message: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x0000000c. (Visual Studio 2008) I have a header file: class UserTaskProlog : public ArAction { public: UserTaskProlog( const char* name = " sth " ); ~UserTaskProlog( ); AREXPORT virtual ArActionDesired *fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ); private: term_t t; }; and a cpp file: UserTaskProlog::UserTaskProlog( const char* name ) : ArAction( name, " sth " ) { char** argv; argv[ 0 ] = "libpl.dll"; PL_initialise( 1, argv ); PlCall( "consult( 'myProg.pl' )" ); } UserTaskProlog::~UserTaskProlog( ) { } ArActionDesired *UserTaskProlog::fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ) { cout << " something " << endl; t = PL_new_term_ref( ); } Without t=PL_new_term_ref() everything works fine, but when I start adding my Prolog code (declarations first, such as t=PL_new_term_ref), I get this Access Violation error message. I'd appreciate any help. Thanks,

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624  | Next Page >