Search Results

Search found 37074 results on 1483 pages for 'define method'.

Page 618/1483 | < Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >

  • Redirecting to a Facelet is not working when extending FaceletViewHandler

    - by Abel Morelos
    I'm overriding the handleRenderResponse method defined in com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler: protected void handleRenderException(FacesContext context, Exception ex) I'm overriding this method so I can redirect the user to a custom error page (which contain the desired look and feel and other stuff). This is the way I'm trying to String errorPage = "/error.xhtml"; String contextPath = context.getExternalContext().getRequestContextPath(); String errorPagePath = contextPath+errorPage; context.getExternalContext().redirect(errorPagePath); The previous code is what I'm using to perform the redirect to this custom error page. Anyway, when I perform the redirect I'm prompted with a download dialog (this is with Internet Explorer, in Firefox the page does not display properly or as I would expect). I tried changing "/error.xhtml" to "/error.jsf" but in that case I get a 404 error. Somehow I think that the XHTML file is not being handled to the Facelets ViewHandler after the redirect, if I open the downloaded xhtml file I can see that the EL expressions were not resolved and the the ui tags were not handled. I don't have problems with other pages in my application, only when doing the redirect programatically. Important data from my web.xml: facelets.VIEW_MAPPINGS is set to *.xhtml javax.faces.DEFAULT_SUFFIX is set to .xhtml servlet-mapping for the "Faces Servlet" is ".jsf" and "/faces/"

    Read the article

  • Reloading the model of a TTTableViewController

    - by user341338
    My problem is that I have a Register Controller and a Login Controller. The Login Screen displays a Login Screen or a Logout Screen depending if a user is logged in. Now when a user registers, does not close the app, and then goes to the Login Screen it will still display a Login Screen, although there is a logged in user already. This is because the Screen is created when the application loads and does not change afterwards. I tried doing this: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; but that did not work, since it is only called on the first init. then i tried: - (void)viewDidLoad { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; } But that method had the same problem. Then I found this method: - (TTNavigationMode)navigationModeForURL:(NSString*)URL; with the following options: typedef enum { TTNavigationModeNone, TTNavigationModeCreate, // a new view controller is created each time TTNavigationModeShare, // a new view controller is created, cached and re-used TTNavigationModeModal, // a new view controller is created and presented modally TTNavigationModeExternal, // an external app will be opened } TTNavigationMode; It seems like TTNavigationModeCreate would be the right thing to use, but I have no clue how to use it. Any help? Thnx.

    Read the article

  • BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding

    - by Tim
    Mr. Ayende wrote in his latest blog post about an implementation of a queue. In the post he's using two magical files: BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding can write both int and long? using the following method signatures: void WriteBitEncodedNullableInt64(long? value) & void Write7BitEncodedInt(int value) and BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding can read the values written using the following method signatures: long? ReadBitEncodedNullableInt64() and int Read7BitEncodedInt() So far I've only managed to find a way to read the 7BitEncodedInt: protected int Read7BitEncodedInt() { int value = 0; int byteval; int shift = 0; while(((byteval = ReadByte()) & 0x80) != 0) { value |= ((byteval & 0x7F) << shift); shift += 7; } return (value | (byteval << shift)); } I'm not too good with byte shifting - does anybody know how to read and write the 7BitEncoded long? and write the int ?

    Read the article

  • Indentation control while developing a small python like language

    - by sap
    Hello, I'm developing a small python like language using flex, byacc (for lexical and parsing) and C++, but i have a few questions regarding scope control. just as python it uses white spaces (or tabs) for indentation, not only that but i want to implement index breaking like for instance if you type "break 2" inside a while loop that's inside another while loop it would not only break from the last one but from the first loop as well (hence the number 2 after break) and so on. example: while 1 while 1 break 2 'hello world'!! #will never reach this. "!!" outputs with a newline end 'hello world again'!! #also will never reach this. again "!!" used for cout end #after break 2 it would jump right here but since I don't have an "anti" tab character to check when a scope ends (like C for example i would just use the '}' char) i was wondering if this method would the the best: I would define a global variable, like "int tabIndex" on my yacc file that i would access in my lex file using extern. then every time i find a tab character on my lex file i would increment that variable by 1. when parsing on my yacc file if i find a "break" keyword i would decrement by the amount typed after it from the tabIndex variable, and when i reach and EOF after compiling and i get a tabIndex != 0 i would output compilation error. now the problem is, whats the best way to see if the indentation got reduced, should i read \b (backspace) chars from lex and then reduce the tabIndex variable (when the user doesn't use break)? another method to achieve this? also just another small question, i want every executable to have its starting point on the function called start() should i hardcode this onto my yacc file? sorry for the long question any help is greatly appreciated. also if someone can provide an yacc file for python would be nice as a guideline (tried looking on Google and had no luck). thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

    Read the article

  • C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

    - by Lukasz Lysik
    I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

    Read the article

  • Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

    - by Nick H247
    I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

    Read the article

  • Switching textstorage of NSTextViews back and forth

    - by Jakob Dam Jensen
    I'm trying to make a feature in a product which gives the user the ability to split a textview into two. The way this is done is by removing the textview from it's superview, making a NSSplitView and adding the textview as well as a new NSTextView instance to this splitview. Lastly I make these two textviews share the same textstorage in order to make them share the same content. It works great. But the problem is when I want to make one of the two textviews change textstorage. The replaceTextStorage method in NSLayoutManager causes both NSTextView to change textStorage. The API documentation states: replaceTextStorage: All NSLayoutManager objects sharing the original NSTextStorage object then share the new one. This method makes all the adjustments necessary to keep these relationships intact, unlike setTextStorage:. So it makes sense that it would do this. But the question is how do I make it possible to have two (or more) textviews first share the same storage and after that having them using their own? I've tried replacing the layoutManager and even making new instances of NSTextViews but no luck... Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

    Read the article

  • How do I detect if both left and right buttons are pushed?

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I would like have three mouse actions over a control: left, right and BOTH. I've got the left and right and am currently using the middle button for the third, but am curious how I could use the left and right buttons being pressed together, for those situations where the user has a mouse without a middle button. This would be handled in the OnMouseDown method of a custom control. UPDATE After reviewing the suggested answers, I need to clarify that what I was attempting to do was to take action on the mouse click in the MouseDown event (actually OnMouseDown method of a control). Because it appears that .NET will always raise two MouseDown events when both the left and right buttons on the mouse are clicked (one for each button), I'm guessing the only way to do this would be either do some low level windows message management or to implement some sort of delayed execution of an action after MouseDown. In the end, it is just way simpler to use the middle mouse button. Now, if the action took place on MouseUp, then Gary's or nos's suggestions would work well. Any further insights on this problem would be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

    Read the article

  • How to use the LINQ where expression?

    - by NullReference
    I'm implementing the service \ repository pattern in a new project. I've got a base interface that looks like this. Everything works great until I need to use the GetMany method. I'm just not sure how to pass a LINQ expression into the GetMany method. For example how would I simply sort a list of objects of type name? nameRepository.GetMany( ? ) public interface IRepository<T> where T : class { void Add(T entity); void Update(T entity); void Delete(T entity); void Delete(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where); T GetById(long Id); T GetById(string Id); T Get(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where); IEnumerable<T> GetAll(); IEnumerable<T> GetMany(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where); } public virtual IEnumerable<T> GetMany(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return dbset.Where(where).ToList(); }

    Read the article

  • How to get MySQL database to appear on index.php

    - by Teddy Truong
    Hi, I have a submission form on my website (index.php) and I have the data(user submissions) being stored into a MySQL database. Right now, I have the user submitting a post and then the page directs them to an update.php which shows what they inputed. However, I want all of the data in the database in MySQL to be shown on the index.php. It's a lot like a comment system. User submits a post... and sees their post above the other submitted posts all on the same page. I think I'm missing AJAX... ? Here is the code for index.php <div align="center"> <p>&nbsp;</p> <h2 align="center" class="Title"><em><strong>REDACTED</strong></em></h2> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="update.php"> <hr /> <label><br /> <form action="update.php" method="post"> REDACTED: <input type="text" name="text" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </label> </form> </div> On update.php I have this: ?php $text = $_POST['text']; $myString = "REDACTED"; mysql_connect ("db----.net", "-----3", "------------") or die ('Error: ' . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("-----------"); $query="INSERT INTO TextArea (ID, text) VALUES ('NULL', '".$text."')"; mysql_query($query) or die ('Error updating database'); echo " $myString "," $text "; ?> Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • java and threads: very strange behaviour

    - by Derk
    private synchronized Map<Team, StandingRow> calculateStanding() { System.out.println("Calculate standing for group " + getName()); Map<Team, StandingRow> standing = new LinkedHashMap<Team, StandingRow>(); for (Team team : teams) { standing.put(team, new StandingRow(team)); } StandingRow homeTeamRow, awayTeamRow; for (Match match : matches.values()) { homeTeamRow = standing.get(match.getHomeTeam()); awayTeamRow = standing.get(match.getAwayTeam()); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getHomeTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getHomeTeam())); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getAwayTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getAwayTeam())); } } This is my code. matches contains 6 elements, but the problem is that after two matches no keys are anymore found in the standing map. The output is for example Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: true Contains key for Mexico: true Contains key for Uruguay: true Contains key for Frankrijk: true Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false This is in a threaded environment, but the method is synchronized so I thought that this would not give a problem? I have also a simple unit test for this method and that works well.

    Read the article

  • DB2 Driver Connection Hanging in Glassfish Connection Pool

    - by Ant
    We have an intermittent issue around the DB2 used from a Glassfish connection pool. What happens is this: Under situations where the database (DB2 on ZOS) is under stress, our application (which is a multi-threaded application using connections to DB2 via a Glassfish connection pool) stops doing anything. The following are observed: 1) Looking at the server using JConsole, we can see a thread waiting indefinitely in the DB2 driver's getConnection() method. We can also see that it has gained a lock on a Vector within the driver. Several other threads are also calling the getConnection() method in the driver, and are hanging waiting for the lock on the Vector to be released. 2) Looking at the database itself, we can see that there are connections from the Glassfish server open and waiting to be used. It seems that there is some sort of mismatch between the connection pool on Glassfish and the connections actually open to DB2. Has anyone come across this issue before? Or something similar? If you need any more information that I haven't provided, then please let me know!

    Read the article

  • .NET Web Service hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

    Read the article

  • NPE annotation scenarios and static-analysis tools for Java

    - by alex2k8
    Here is a number of code snippets that can throw NullPointerException. 01: public void m1(@Nullable String text) { System.out.print(text.toLowerCase()); // <-- expect to be reported. } 02: private boolean _closed = false; public void m1(@Nullable String text) { if(_closed) return; System.out.print(text.toLowerCase()); // <-- expect to be reported. } 03: public void m1(@NotNull String text) { System.out.print(text.toLowerCase()); } public @Nullable String getText() { return "Some text"; } public void m2() { m1(getText()); // <-- expect to be reported. } Different people have access to different static-analysis tools. It would be nice to collect information, what tools are able to detect and report the issues, and what are failing. Also, if you have your own scenarious, please, publish them. Here my results FindBugs (1.3.9): 01: Parameter must be nonnull but is marked as nullable 02: NOT reported 03: NOT reported IntelliJ IDE 9.0.2 (Community edition): 01: Method invocation text.toLowerCase() may produce java.lang.NullPointerException 02: Method invocation text.toLowerCase() may produce java.lang.NullPointerException 03: Argument getText() might be null

    Read the article

  • Losing URI segments when paginating with CodeIgniter

    - by Danny Herran
    I have a /payments interface where the user should be able to filter via price range, bank, and other stuff. Those filters are standard select boxes. When I submit the filter form, all the post data goes to another method called payments/search. That method performs the validation, saves the post values into a session flashdata and redirects the user back to /payments passing the flashdata name via URL. So my standard pagination links with no filters are exactly like this: payments/index/20/ payments/index/40/ payments/index/60/ And if you submit the filter form, the returning URL is: payments/index/0/b48c7cbd5489129a337b0a24f830fd93 This works just great. If I change the zero for something else, it paginates just fine. The only issue however is that the << 1 2 3 4 page links wont keep the hash after the pagination offset. CodeIgniter is generating the page links ignoring that additional uri segment. My uri_segment config is already set to 3: $config['uri_segment'] = 3; I cannot set the page offset to 4 because that hash may or may not exists. Any ideas of how can I solve this? Is it mandatory for CI to have the offset as the last segment in the uri? Maybe I am trying an incorrect approach, so I am all ears. Thank you folks.

    Read the article

  • why am I stuck on "Initiating update" when deploying to google

    - by michelle
    I've have not had any trouble deploying through eclipse until now. I'm guessing it might have to do with all the stuff I've added today a folder of .pdf and .tex files (in war/web-inf directory) a bit of JDO stuff and a servlet that reads the files in the directory and indexes them into the JDO Is there any way to find out what exactly is the problem? I currently get stuck at "Initiating update" and the stack trace say "ConnectionReset" Any helkp of imput will be appreciated, I really need to deploy this today, thanks! here's the deploy trace: Unable to update: java.net.SocketException: Connection reset at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection$6.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getChainedException(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at java.net.HttpURLConnection.getResponseCode(Unknown Source) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.getAuthCookie(ServerConnection.java:315) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.authenticate(ServerConnection.java:219) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.send(ServerConnection.java:145) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.post(ServerConnection.java:81) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppVersionUpload.send(AppVersionUpload.java:427) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppVersionUpload.beginTransaction(AppVersionUpload.java:241) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppVersionUpload.doUpload(AppVersionUpload.java:98) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppAdminImpl.update(AppAdminImpl.java:56) at com.google.appengine.eclipse.core.proxy.AppEngineBridgeImpl.deploy(AppEngineBridgeImpl.java:271) at com.google.appengine.eclipse.core.deploy.DeployProjectJob.runInWorkspace(DeployProjectJob.java:148) at org.eclipse.core.internal.resources.InternalWorkspaceJob.run(InternalWorkspaceJob.java:38) at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55) Caused by: java.net.SocketException: Connection reset at java.net.SocketInputStream.read(Unknown Source) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.fill(Unknown Source) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read1(Unknown Source) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.parseHTTPHeader(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.parseHTTP(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.parseHTTP(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getHeaderFieldKey(Unknown Source) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.ClientCookieManager.readCookies(ClientCookieManager.java:123) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.connect(ServerConnection.java:340) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.ServerConnection.getAuthCookie(ServerConnection.java:314) ... 11 more

    Read the article

  • Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

    - by Geir
    I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

    Read the article

  • Comparing two images from the clipboard class

    - by VeXe
    In a C# winform app. I'm writing a Clipboard log manager that logs test to a log file, (everytime a Ctrl+c/x is pressed the copied/cut text gets appended to the file) I also did the same for images, that is, if you press "prtScreen", the screen shot you took will also go to a folder. I do that by using a timer, inside I have something which 'looks' like this: if (Clipboard.ContainsImage()) { if (IsClipboardUpdated()) { LogData(); UpdateLastClipboardData(); } } This is how the rest of the methods look like: public void UpdateLastClipboardData() { // ... other updates LastClipboardImage = Clipboard.GetImage(); } // This is how I determine if there's a new image in the clipboard... public bool IsClipboardUpdated() { return (LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()); } public void LogData() { Clipboard.GetImage().Save(ImagesLogFolder + "\\Image" + now_hours + "_" + now_mins + "_" + now_secs + ".jpg"); } The problem is: inside the update method, "LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()" is always returning true! I even did the following inside the update method: Image img1 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img2 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img3 = img2; bool b1 = img1 == img2; // this returned false. WHY?? bool b2 = img3 == img2; // this returned true. Makes sense. Please help, the comparison isn't working... why?

    Read the article

  • CSS background images not showing in IE?

    - by Kevin
    In IE8 and below, I'm doing this <ul class="dependants_list" style="border-bottom: dashed 1px #53a1dc"> <li class="dependants_summary"> <strong>Name:</strong> De Silva, Angelina<br /> <strong>Gender:</strong> Female<br /> <strong>Date of birth:</strong> 7/3/2009<br /> </li> <form action="/Dependant/Delete/11413" method="get"><input class="delete btn" id="Delete_this_Profile" name="Delete_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Delete this Profile" /> </form><form action="/Dependant/Edit/11413" method="get"><input class="edit btn" id="Modify_this_Profile" name="Modify_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Modify this Profile" /> </form><br /><hr style="display:none" /> and the CSS for it is: .dependants_summary { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 10px; padding-right: 0px; padding-left: 85px; padding-top: 5px; padding-bottom: 5px; width: 430px; float: left; font: 120% Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .dependants_list { padding: 0; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(odd) { background: #fff url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(even) { background: #c9e3f4 url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } The images are not being shown in IE, but they are in ffox and chrome

    Read the article

  • Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

    - by DecodingSand
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Why do case class companion objects extend FunctionN?

    - by retronym
    When you create a case class, the compiler creates a corresponding companion object with a few of the case class goodies: an apply factory method matching the primary constructor, equals, hashCode, and copy. Somewhat oddly, this generated object extends FunctionN. scala> case class A(a: Int) defined class A scala> A: (Int => A) res0: (Int) => A = <function1> This is only the case if: There is no manually defined companion object There is exactly one parameter list There are no type arguments The case class isn't abstract. Seems like this was added about two years ago. The latest incarnation is here. Does anyone use this, or know why it was added? It increases the size of the generated bytecode a little with static forwarder methods, and shows up in the #toString() method of the companion objects: scala> case class A() defined class A scala> A.toString res12: java.lang.String = <function0>

    Read the article

  • Finding Palindromes in an Array

    - by Jack L.
    For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >