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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • Should I call class destructor in this code?

    - by peterg
    I am using this sample to decode/encode some data I am retrieving/sending from/to a web server, and I want to use it like this: BOOL HandleMessage(UINT uMsg,WPARAM wParam,LPARAM lParam,LRESULT* r) { if(uMsg == WM_DESTROY) { PostQuitMessage(0); return TRUE; } else if(uMsg == WM_CREATE) { // Start timer StartTimer(); return TRUE; } else if(uMsg == WM_TIMER) { //get data from server char * test = "test data"; Base64 base64; char *temp = base64.decode(test); MessageBox(TEXT(temp), 0, 0); } } The timer is set every 5 minutes. Should I use delete base64 at the end? Does delete deallocates everything used by base64?

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  • call glutinit in an php extension

    - by Yijinsei
    hi guys, I am developing an php extension that require the use of opengl I tried to initialize the library with glutinit, and it works in CLI environment, but when i tried on browser, it doesn't seem to execute the code. I very new to opengl, so I'm not sure what kind of error is this, does anybody have any knowledge with this?

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  • virtual function call from base class

    - by Gal Goldman
    Say we have: Class Base { virtual void f(){g();}; virtual void g(){//Do some Base related code;} }; Class Derived : public Base { virtual void f(){Base::f();}; virtual void g(){//Do some Derived related code}; }; int main() { Base *pBase = new Derived; pBase-f(); return 0; } Which g() will be called from Base::f()? Base::g() or Derived::g()? Thanks...

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  • Direct VoIP call from one iOS device to another

    - by user1682856
    Could you please give some advises. I'am going to develop peer-to-peer VoIP iOS application. And want do it without any SIP proxy, SIP providers and other servers. Just VoIP calls frpm iOSdevice-to-iOSdevice. Both iOSdevice could be somewhere in Internet. Is it real in VoIP (with PJSIP for example and general with SIP)? Could you please point me to main keys that I need for development. I'am already read these topics. Is it real solve problems with addressing in my configuration. Anybody know is PJSIP could help with correcting addresing.

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  • How to call the previous querystring parameter in .aspx

    - by Ingó Vals
    Let's say I have a ActionResult method that has a pageNumber parameter and a category parameter. The user should be able to set the category he's browsing which would be a ActionLink to the first page of that category. However if I have an another ActionLink where I go to the next page the category parameter would go back to default. How can I set the category parameter to be the same as on the previous page.

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  • Call a Firebug command from client code.

    - by ProfK
    I would like to apply some sort of IoC, with debugee code, i.e. the current HTML document, and the debugger, Firebug. It would be great to have some sort of document that asks Firebug to open a push channel from the document, versus the more common scenario of the debugger pulling information from the debugee document. Is this possible and or feasible?

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  • Remove never-run call to templated function, get allocation error on run-time

    - by Narfanator
    First off, I'm a bit at a loss as to how to ask this question. So I'm going to try throwing lots of information at the problem. Ok, so, I went to completely redesign my test project for my experimental core library thingy. I use a lot of template shenanigans in the library. When I removed the "user" code, the tests gave me a memory allocation error. After quite a bit of experimenting, I narrowed it down to this bit of code (out of a couple hundred lines): void VOODOO(components::switchBoard &board){ board.addComponent<using_allegro::keyInputs<'w'> >(); } Fundementally, what's weirding me out is that it appears that the act of compiling this function (and the template function it then uses, and the template functions those then use...), makes this bug not appear. This code is not being run. Similar code (the same, but for different key vals) occurs elsewhere, but is within Boost TDD code. I realize I certainly haven't given enough information for you to solve it for me; I tried, but it more-or-less spirals into most of the code base. I think I'm most looking for "here's what the problem could be", "here's where to look", etc. There's something that's happening during compile because of this line, but I don't know enough about that step to begin looking. Sooo, how can a (presumably) compilied, but never actually run, bit of templated code, when removed, cause another part of code to fail? Error: Unhandled exceptionat 0x6fe731ea (msvcr90d.dll) in Switchboard.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xcdcdcdc1. Callstack: operator delete(void * pUser Data) allocator< class name related to key inputs callbacks ::deallocate vector< same class ::_Insert_n(...) vector< " " ::insert(...) vector<" "::push_back(...) It looks like maybe the vector isn't valid, because _MyFirst and similar data members are showing values of 0xcdcdcdcd in the debugger. But the vector is a member variable...

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  • powershell capture call stack after an error is thrown

    - by davidhayes
    Hi, I want to do something like this... try { # Something in this function throws an exception Backup-Server ... }catch { # Capture stack trace of where the error was thrown from Log-Error $error } Ideally I'd like to capture arguments to the function and line numbers etc. (like you see in get-pscallstack) Any ideas how to achieve this? Dave

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  • Ruby on Rails with_option cannot call class method

    - by Dmitri
    I have a problem calling class method from the with_option block with validations: Model: class Model < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :field with_options :if => "<not important>" do |step| ... bunch of validations step.validates :field, :inclusion => {:within => Model.field} end private self.field (1..10) end end And it returns: undefined method `field' for #Class:0x5f394a8 self.class.field also doesn't work. What is wrong with it ? How to fix it ? Big big thanks!

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  • How to call another class's method from my app delegate

    - by Jared
    I have an application that utilizes UILocalNotifications to pop-up UIAlertViews. When the notification fires, the user chooses to go into the app, and this method is called from my app delegate: - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions {...} Where I can handle it and where I also prompt another alertview for more information. So when the app launches, it is displaying view A, and then the alertview pops up and prompts for input. This alertview, however, is originating from my app delegate. I need to be able to reload view A when the user hits Yes/No on the alertview. How can I do that from within my app delegate? Any help is appreciated!!

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  • Identifying the GeoPoint that trigger an onTap call

    - by Akroy
    I'm developing a Google Maps app on Android. I have a number of GeoPoints that I'm displaying by adding them as OverlayItems to an ItemizedOverlay. This works well for displaying them and bringing up a nice box when I click them, however I'm trying to put info in the box it brings up. Thus, I've extended ItemizedOverlay with my own class, and I'm overriding onTap (final GeoPoint p, final MapView mapView). At first I thought that this would be very simple, as one of the parameters is the GeoPoint, so I would know exactly which GeoPoint was clicked. However, from what I can tell, the GeoPoint argument there is the GeoPoint for where the user actually touched. Given the range the user can touch and still trigger the onTap, that GeoPoint isn't very helpful for knowing precisely which GeoPoint was actually touched. I'm currently checking the parameter GeoPoint against all my existing GeoPoints and seeing which it's closest to. This seems like a super hacky abstraction inversion. Is there a better way to know what was actually tapped?

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  • how to display values of an arraylist defined in servlet using ajax call

    - by veena123
    can anyone please help me with below code servlet: below servlet is for statically defining an array. import java.io.; import javax.servlet.; import javax.servlet.http.; import java.util.; public class SampleAjax extends HttpServlet{ public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { response.setContentType("text/html"); string plociyno = "abd1234"; PrintWriter pw = response.getWriter(); if (policyno.equals("abc1234")) { List dataList= new ArrayList(); dataList.add("automated refund possible"); request.setAttribute("data",dataList); RequestDispatcher dispatcher = request.getRequestDispatcher("refund.jsp"); if (dispatcher != null){ dispatcher.forward(request, response); } } } and my jsp: jsp for displayng the values of the arraylist in a table.... i want to do the same thing but using ajax.... please help <html <body><table id= "table" border="0" width="303"> <tr> <td width="250"><b>Your Policy Refund Details is:</b></td> </tr> <%Iterator itr; %> <% ArrayList refund= (ArrayList)request.getAttribute("data"); if(refund != null){ for(itr=refund.iterator(); itr.hasNext();){ %> <tr> <td><%=itr.next()%></td> </tr> <%}}%> </table> </body> </html> how can i display this arraylist values using ajax??? please help

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  • Creating a PHP call home "time bomb" to protect my interests

    - by RC
    Hi everyone, I produced a PHP web app for a client some months back that is hosted on their own server. I have still not been paid for this work, and they are giving me the runaround. It turns out that I still have remote admin access to their server, so I can make code changes. What I was thinking of doing was to move the core kernel off-site onto one of my own servers, and program in some kind of callback or include that gets the kernel (critical functions) from my server. Give it two weeks or so for their backups to catch this change, and then pull the plug and exercise leverage. If I do this, they will pay immediately, because the site is a critical one for a very large and influential client of theirs. What is the most effective and easiest way of doing this? What code do I use? Thanks for any pointers.

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  • Call .NET Webservice with Android

    - by Lasse P
    Hi, I know this question has been asked here before, but I don't think those answers were adequate for my needs. We have a SOAP webservice that is used for an iPhone application, but it is possible that we need an Android specific version or a proxy of the service, so we have the option to go with either SOAP or JSON. I have a few concerns about both methods: SOAP solution: Is it possible to generate java source code from a WSDL file, if so, will it include some kind of proxy class to invoke the webservice and will it work in the Android environment at all? Google has not provided any SOAP library in Android, so i need to use 3rd party, any suggestion? What about the performance/overhead with parsing and transmitting SOAP xml over the wire versus the JSON solution? JSON solution: There is a few classes in the Android sdk that will let me parse JSON, but does it support generic parsing, like if I want the result to be parsed as a complex type? Or would I need to implement that myself? I have read about 2 libraries before here on Stackoverflow, GSON an Jackson. What is the difference performance and usability (from a developers perspective) wise? Do you guys have any experince with either of those libraries? So i guess the big question is, what method to go with? I hope you can help me out. Thanks in advance :-)

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  • How to use type: "POST" in jsonp ajax call

    - by MKS
    Hi Guy, I am using JQuery ajax jsonp. I have got below JQuery Code: $.ajax({ type:"GET", url: "Login.aspx", // Send the login info to this page data: str, dataType: "jsonp", timeout: 200000, jsonp:"skywardDetails", success: function(result) { // Show 'Submit' Button $('#loginButton').show(); // Hide Gif Spinning Rotator $('#ajaxloading').hide(); } }); The above code is working fine, I just want to send the request as "POST" instead of "GET", Please suggest how can I achieve this. Thanks

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  • return ArrayList from spring controller for ajax call and render in second dropdown

    - by user1708125
    I've a spring bean with 3 Maps all of which are to be populated incrementally. First map is an item category list, second map is a product list and third map is a hobby for item type list All the maps are mapped to and on the JSP. When the page is loaded only the first map is populated on the onchange event of first map, I need to populate the second map in the bean and similarly on the onchange event of second map, I need to populate the third map in the bean. Is there a way to do this using Ajax?? I need some code samples to how to render JSON response in second and third dropdown. Clarification: @Donal: I have a simple JSP page with 3 dropdowns corresponding to 3 maps stored in my commandBean. So when the page loads for the first time only the first map and hence the first dropdown is populated. Now whenever the user selects anything out of the first dropdown, I need to send the same commandbean back with the values of the first dropdown and get the values for the second map and hence the second dropdown and so forth for the 3rd dropdown as well. For each dropdown I 've got 3 maps and 3 variables for storing the selected values. Now I want to understand if this is possible using Ajax. I hope this clarifies whatever you need to know. Thanx

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  • Block temporarily interaction during wcf call!

    - by Muhammad Jamal Shaikh
    hi , Silverlight version : 4 Silverlight patter :MVVM Visual Studio template :Silverlight navigation application How do I block main navigation on (mainpage.xaml) as in any silverlight navigation application and block page's controls ( i.e whichever page is it in ) during async webservice calls in my viewmodel? Any best practices?

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • c++: Schedule function call in the future?

    - by User
    Using Visual C++ with MFC. When a certain event occurs in my code, I want to set a function to be called 10 seconds later to perform some activity. The handling of the event happens in a static library that doesn't have any direct links to MFC (and I'd like to keep it that way). How can I schedule a function to be called at some point in the future? Use a Timer I guess? How do I decouple the Timer (which is an MFC dependency) so my business code doesn't have a direct dependency on the GUI? Or maybe something else besides a timer?

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  • Progressbar: Force element.innerHTML update before javascript sort call

    - by maras
    Hi, what is the best practice for this scenario: 1) User clicks "Sort huge javascript array" 2) Browser shows "Sorting..." through element.innerHTML="Sorting" 3) Browser sorts huge javascript array (100% CPU for several seconds) while displaying "Sorting..." message. 4) Browser shows result. Pseudo code: ... <a href="#" onclick="sortHugeArray();return false">Sort huge array</a> ... function sortHugeArray(){ document.getElementById("progress").innerHTML="Sorting..."; ...do huge sort ... ...render result... document.getElementById("progress").innerHTML=result; } When i do that this way, browser never shows "Sorting...", it freezes browser for several seconds and shows result without noticing user... Thank you for advice.

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