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• How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

  - by Max Williams

  hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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• How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

  - by arareko

  Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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• Vector Usage in MPI(C++)

  - by lsk1985

  I am new to MPI programming,stiil learning , i was successful till creating the Derived data-types by defining the structures . Now i want to include Vector in my structure and want to send the data across the Process. for ex: struct Structure{ //Constructor Structure(): X(nodes),mass(nodes),ac(nodes) { //code to calculate the mass and accelerations } //Destructor Structure() {} //Variables double radius; double volume; vector<double> mass; vector<double> area; //and some other variables //Methods to calculate some physical properties Now using MPI i want to sent the data in the structure across the processes. Is it possible for me to create the MPI_type_struct vectors included and send the data? I tried reading through forums, but i am not able to get the clear picture from the responses given there. Hope i would be able to get a clear idea or approach to send the data PS: i can send the data individually , but its an overhead of sending the data using may MPI_Send/Recieve if we consider the domain very large(say 10000*10000)

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• Overhead of calling tiny functions from a tight inner loop? [C++]

  - by John

  Say you see a loop like this one: for(int i=0; i<thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE).count(); ++i) { thing.getData().insert( thing.GetData().Count(), thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE)[i].getName() ); } if this was Java I'd probably not think twice. But in performance-critical sections of C++, it makes me want to tinker with it... however I don't know if the compiler is smart enough to make it futile. This is a made up example but all it's doing is inserting strings into a container. Please don't assume any of these are STL types, think in general terms about the following: Is having a messy condition in the for loop going to get evaluated each time, or only once? If those get methods are simply returning references to member variables on the objects, will they be inlined away? Would you expect custom [] operators to get optimized at all? In other words is it worth the time (in performance only, not readability) to convert it to something like: ElementContainer &source = thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE); int num = source.count(); Store &destination = thing.getData(); for(int i=0;i<num;++i) { destination.insert(thing.GetData().Count(), source[i].getName(); } Remember, this is a tight loop, called millions of times a second. What I wonder is if all this will shave a couple of cycles per loop or something more substantial? Yes I know the quote about "premature optimisation". And I know that profiling is important. But this is a more general question about modern compilers, Visual Studio in particular.

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• Global State and Singletons Dependency injection

  - by Manu

  this is a problem i face lot of times when i am designing a new app i'll use a sample problem to explain this think i am writing simple game.so i want to hold a list of players. i have few options.. 1.use a static field in some class private static ArrayList<Player> players = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Player getPlayer(int i){ return players.get(i); } but this a global state 2.or i can use a singleton class PlayerList{ private PlayerList instance; private PlayerList(){...} public PlayerList getInstance() { if(instance==null){ ... } return instance; } } but this is bad because it's a singleton 3.Dependency injection class Game { private PlayerList playerList; public Game(PlayerList list) { this.list = list; } public PlayerList getPlayerList() { return playerList; } } this seems good but it's not, if any object outside Game need to look at PlayerList (which is the usual case) i have to use one of the above methods to make the Game class available globally. so I just add another layer to the problem. didn't actually solve anything. what is the optimum solution ? (currently i use Singleton approach)

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• C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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• Is `super` local variable?

  - by Michael

  // A : Parent @implementation A -(id) init { // change self here then return it } @end A A *a = [[A alloc] init]; a. Just wondering, if self is a local variable or global? If it's local then what is the point of self = [super init] in init? I can successfully define some local variable and use like this, why would I need to assign it to self. -(id) init { id tmp = [super init]; if(tmp != nil) { //do stuff } return tmp; } b. If [super init] returns some other object instance and I have to overwrite self then I will not be able to access A's methods any more, since it will be completely new object? Am I right? c. super and self pointing to the same memory and the major difference between them is method lookup order. Am I right? sorry, don't have Mac to try, learning theory as for now...

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• EF4 querying through the generations

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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• Comparing lists of field-hashes with equivalent AR-objects.

  - by Tim Snowhite

  I have a list of hashes, as such: incoming_links = [ {:title => 'blah1', :url => "http://blah.com/post/1"}, {:title => 'blah2', :url => "http://blah.com/post/2"}, {:title => 'blah3', :url => "http://blah.com/post/3"}] And an ActiveRecord model which has fields in the database with some matching rows, say: Link.all => [<Link#2 @title='blah2' @url='...post/2'>, <Link#3 @title='blah3' @url='...post/3'>, <Link#4 @title='blah4' @url='...post/4'>] I'd like to do set operations on Link.all with incoming_links so that I can figure out that <Link#4 ...> is not in the set of incoming_links, and {:title => 'blah1', :url =>'http://blah.com/post/1'} is not in the Link.all set, like so: #pseudocode #incoming_links = as above links = Link.all expired_links = links - incoming_links missing_links = incoming_links - links expired_links.destroy missing_links.each{|link| Link.create(link)} One route I've tried: I'd rather not rewrite Array#- and such, and I'm okay with converting incoming_links to a set of unsaved Link objects; so I've tried overwriting hash eql? and so on in Link so that it ignored the id equality that AR::Base provides by default. But this is the only place this sort of equality should be considered in the application - in other places the Link#id default identity is required. Is there some way I could subclass Link and apply the hash, eql?, etc overwriting there? The other route I've tried is to pull out the attributes hash for each Link and doing a .slice('id',...etc) to prune the hashes down. But this requires writing seperate methods for keeping track of the Link objects while doing set operations on the hashes, or writing seperate Collection classes to wrap the incoming_links hash-list and Link-list which seems a bit overkill. What is the best way to design this interaction? Extra credit for cleanliness.

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• MVC3 Custom view engine

  - by eth0

  I have a custom View Engine that derives from WebFormViewEngine. There's a lot of stuff going on in here, mostly caching. I want to be able to use WebFormViewEngine AND RazorViewEngine at the same time, is this possible? Ideally I'd like to do; ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<WebFormsViewEngine>()); ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<RazorViewEngine>()); if a .ascx/.aspx/.master file exists then use WebForms, otherwise use Razor is a .cshtml file exists. EDIT: I should of worded my question better. As my custom view engine derives from WebFormViewEngine it obviously uses WebForms, I can't derive from two classes. I can derive from RazorViewEngine but then I'll loose WebForms. I can duplicate my code entirely, derive from RazorViewEngine and edit the views file extensions, etc. but as I said I've got a lot of custom code in my view engine and would be duplicating hundreds of lines. WebFormViewEngine and RazorViewEngine derive from BuildManagerViewEngine which in turn implements IViewEngine. The problem with that is I have to implement methods CreatePartialView() and CreateView() but how would I know what to return (WebForms/Razor?) using generics?

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• How to enforce jsf to create new instance of bean instead of throwing NullPointerException?

  - by Roman

  I'm almost sure that I do something wrong and thus the question's title is a bit incorrect. I have a form with several fields for creating a new User-objects (fields like login, password, birthday etc). And I have 2 buttons - Cancel and Create. I didn't finish Create yet :) , but when I press Cancel I see NullPointerException. Here is simplified code: <f:view> <h:form> <h:panelGroup layout="block"> <h:inputText id="add_login" value="#{userSupport.user.login}"/> <h:inputSecret id="add_password" value="#{userSupport.user.password}"/> <h:inputText id="add_name" value="#{userSupport.user.name}"/> <h:inputText id="add_surname" value="#{userSupport.user.surname}"/> <h:commandButton value="Cancel" action="cancel"/> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> </f:view> UserSupport class has field user with getter and setter and some other methods. It's a Spring bean with Session scope. When I press cancel, I see NPE because jsf tries to save values from inputs in user-object, but user-object is null. What is the correct way of doing this?

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• Is this method a good aproach to get SQL values from C#?

  - by MadBoy

  I have this little method that i use to get stuff from SQL. I either call it with varSearch = "" or varSearch = "something". I would like to know if having method written this way is best or would it be better to split it into two methods (by overloading), or maybe i could somehow parametrize whole WHERE clausule? private void sqlPobierzKontrahentDaneKlienta(ListView varListView, string varSearch) { varListView.BeginUpdate(); varListView.Items.Clear(); string preparedCommand; if (varSearch == "") { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } else { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] WHERE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] LIKE @searchValue ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetails)) using (SqlCommand sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@searchValue", "%" + varSearch + "%"); using (SqlDataReader sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { string varKontrahenciID = sqlQueryResult["KlienciID"].ToString(); string varKontrahent = sqlQueryResult["Nazwa"].ToString(); ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(varKontrahenciID, 0); item.SubItems.Add(varKontrahent); varListView.Items.AddRange(new[] {item}); } } } varListView.EndUpdate(); }

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• Struts2 Value Stack

  - by vipul12389

  I want to understand Struts 2 value stack vs request scope. I want the struts2 value stack to work same as request scope. for e.g. i have invoked action1 in struts 2, the action performs some db task and gets back. it performs some operation on a object called cases (type Cases, where Cases is bean class with getters and setters). cases object is declared at class level. action1 led a view to be rendered say jsp1. jsp1 again has some action called as action2. action2 leads to the same java file as of action1 but has different method. Now, i want to access the object which was used in action1. during action1 cases was pushed to Value Stack and was accessed on jsp1. I simply tried accessing its getter methods, but it returns a null value....!! any solution on how to do ??? or is it possible ?? i know if its possible then what is the difference between vs and request scope...

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• Get notified when UITableView has finished asking for data?

  - by kennethmac2000

  Hi everyone, Is there some way to find out when a UITableView has finished asking for data from its data source? None of the viewDidLoad/viewWillAppear/viewDidAppear methods of the associated view controller (UITableViewController) are of use here, as they all fire too early. None of them (entirely understandably) guarantee that queries to the data source have finished for the time being (eg, until the view is scrolled). One workaround I have found is to call reloadData in viewDidAppear, since, when reloadData returns, the table view is guaranteed to have finished querying the data source as much as it needs to for the time being. However, this seems rather nasty, as I assume it is causing the data source to be asked for the same information twice (once automatically, and once because of the reloadData call) when it is first loaded. The reason I want to do this at all is that I want to preserve the scroll position of the UITableView - but right down to the pixel level, not just to the nearest row. When restoring the scroll position (using scrollRectToVisible:animated:), I need the table view to already have sufficient data in it, or else the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method call does nothing (which is what happens if you place the call on its own in any of viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear or viewDidAppear). Thanks in advance for your assistance!

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• Background loading javascript into iframe with using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

  - by jedi_coder

  This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

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• Calling a class method within a method definition in the same class

  - by user1786288

  So I'm writing a program for an intro Java class. I'm defining a method to add two fractions together within the class Fraction. Fraction has 2 variables, numerator and denominator. Each of these variables has a setter and a getter. Anyway, I have a problem with my addition method, which is shown below. I've just sort of tried to implement it in a way that made sense, but I'm sure I did something with calling methods/using objects that doesn't work. public void add(Fraction fraction1, Fraction fraction2) { Fraction fraction3 = new Fraction(); int a = fraction1.getNumerator; int b = fraction1.getDenominator; int c = fraction2.getNumerator; int d = fraction2.getDenominator; fraction3.setNumerator((a * d) + (b * c)); fraction3.setDenominator(b * d); } I don't know if the problem is in the method definition, if I can use the object type that way, or if there's something else wrong. any help would be appreciated, and if I need to provide any information, I'll do so ASAP.

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• Best way to implement some type of ITaggable interface

  - by Jack

  I've got a program I'm creating that reports on another certain programs backup xml files. I've gotten to the point where I need to implement some type of ITaggable interface - but am unsure how to go about it code wise. My idea is that each item (BackupClient, BackupVersion, and BackupFile) should implement an ITaggable interface for highlighting old, out of date, or non-existent files in their HTML or Excel report. The user will be able to specify tags in the settings. My question is this, how can a user dynamically specify a "tag" such as File Date 3 days old? - Background Color = Red. Actually I guess my question is more, how can I, the programmer, implement this dynamically? I was thinking Expression trees, but am unsure this is the way to go as I havn't studied them much. I know my ITaggable interface would have methods such as AddTag(T tag), RemoveTag(T tag), but what exactly specifies the criteria for the tag to be added? I realize this may be subjective, and can be marked as wiki if need be, but I truly am stuck. Any input would be greatly helpful!

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• HTML5 Local Storage of audio element source - is it possible?

  - by andrewdotcom

  Hi stackoverflow experts I've been experimenting with the audio and local storage features of html5 of late and have run into something that has me stumped. I'd like to be able to cache or store the source of the audio element locally to enable speedier and offline playback. The problem is I can't see how this is possible with the current implementation. I have tried the following using webkit: Creating a manifest file to set up local caching but the audio file appears not to be a cacheable item maybe due to the way it is stream or something I have also attempted to use javascript to put an audio object into local storage but the size of the mp3 makes this impossible due to memory issues (i think). I have tried to use the data uri and base64 to use the html as a audio transport that can be cached but again the filesize makes this prohibitive. Also the audio element does not seem to like this in webkit (works fine in mozilla) I have tried several methods of putting the data into the local database store. Again suffering the same issues as the other cases. I'd love to hear any other ideas anyone may have as to how I could achieve my goal of offline playback using caching/local storage in webkit.

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• What does Postgres do when BEGIN is run on a connection in autocommit mode?

  - by DNS

  I'm trying to better understand the concept of 'autocommit' when working with a Postgres (psycopg) connection. Let's say I have a fresh connection, set its isolation level to ISOLATION_LEVEL_AUTOCOMMIT, then run this SQL directly, without using the cursor begin/rollback methods (as an exercise; not saying I actually want to do this): INSERT A INSERT B BEGIN INSERT C INSERT D ROLLBACK What happens to INSERTs C & D? Is autocommit is purely an internal setting in psycopg that affects how it issues BEGINs? In that case, the above SQL is unafected; INSERTs A & B are committed as soon as they're done, while C & D are run in a transaction and rolled back. What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or is autocommit a real setting on the connection itself? In that case, how does it affect the handling of BEGIN? Is it ignored, or does it override the autocommit setting to actually start a transaction? What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or am I completely off-target?

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• Python OOP - object has no attribute

  - by user1744269

  I am attempting to learn how to program. I really do want to learn how to program; I love the building and design aspect of it. However, in Java and Python, I have tried and failed with programs as they pertain to objects, classes, methods.. I am trying to develop some code for a program, but im stumped. I know this is a simple error. However I am lost! I am hoping someone can guide me to a working program, but also help me learn (criticism is not only expected, but APPRECIATED). class Converter: def cTOf(self, numFrom): numFrom = self.numFrom numTo = (self.numFrom * (9/5)) + 32 print (str(numTo) + ' degrees Farenheit') return numTo def fTOc(self, numFrom): numFrom = self.numFrom numTo = ((numFrom - 32) * (5/9)) return numTo convert = Converter() numFrom = (float(input('Enter a number to convert.. '))) unitFrom = input('What unit would you like to convert from.. ') unitTo = input('What unit would you like to convert to.. ') if unitFrom == ('celcius'): convert.cTOf(numFrom) print(numTo) input('Please hit enter..') if unitFrom == ('farenheit'): convert.fTOc(numFrom) print(numTo) input('Please hit enter..')

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• Java getMethod with subclass parameter

  - by SelectricSimian

  I'm writing a library that uses reflection to find and call methods dynamically. Given just an object, a method name, and a parameter list, I need to call the given method as though the method call were explicitly written in the code. I've been using the following approach, which works in most cases: static void callMethod(Object receiver, String methodName, Object[] params) { Class<?>[] paramTypes = new Class<?>[params.length]; for (int i = 0; i < param.length; i++) { paramTypes[i] = params[i].getClass(); } receiver.getClass().getMethod(methodName, paramTypes).invoke(receiver, params); } However, when one of the parameters is a subclass of one of the supported types for the method, the reflection API throws a NoSuchMethodException. For example, if the receiver's class has testMethod(Foo) defined, the following fails: receiver.getClass().getMethod("testMethod", FooSubclass.class).invoke(receiver, new FooSubclass()); even though this works: receiver.testMethod(new FooSubclass()); How do I resolve this? If the method call is hard-coded there's no issue - the compiler just uses the overloading algorithm to pick the best applicable method to use. It doesn't work with reflection, though, which is what I need. Thanks in advance!

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• How to implement the "System.out.println(ClassName::MethodName <then my message>)" of Eclipse in Netbeans?

  - by Sen

  I would like to know if there is the same feature as in eclipse to automatically generate and print the System.out.println(ClassName::MethodName <then my message>) functionality (which will print the class name and method name for debugging in the console) in Netbeans also. For example, in Eclipse Editor, Typing syst + Ctrl+ Space will auto generate a System.out.println(ClassName::MethodName ) type output in the console. Is such a method available in Netbeans? As of now, I have only two methods here in Netbeans: sout + Tab (System.out.println()) and soutv + Tab (System.out.println(prints the variable used just above the line)) automatically. Let me rephrase, instead of myMethod1, I want to get the enclosing method name. Eg. : public class X { public void myMethod1(int a) { System.out.println(X::myMethod1()); // This should be produced when I type the Code-Template abbreviation (example: syst) and press tab (or corresponding key). } } public class Y { public void myMethod2(int b) { System.out.println(Y::myMethod2()); // This should be produced when I type the Code-Template abbreviation (example: syst) and press tab (or corresponding key). } } Update: With the following code template: syst = System.out.println("${classVar editable="false" currClassName default="getClass()"}"); I am able to print the classname, but still no clue for the Method name.

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• MVC2 AJAX - determining UpdateTargetId based on the returned data

  - by DanielJW

  The scenario: I'm creating a login form for an MVC2 application. How i'm doing it: The form submits to an MVC2 action which validates the username/password. If it fails validation the action returns the form (a partial view) for the user to try again. If it passes validation the action returns the page the user was visiting before they logged in (a view). What i want to happen: 1 - when the form is submitted and the user validates successfully, The returned result should replace the current page (like what happens if you don't set an UpdateTargetId). 2 - When the form is submitted and the user fails validation, the returned result should replace the form (like what happens if you set the UpdateTargetID to the form's containing element). The problem: I can make both of those things work, but not at the same time. I can either have it always replace the current page, or always just replace the contents of the UpdateTargetId element. But I need it to be able to do either depending on whether the user successfully validated or not. What I need The ideal solution would be to be able to examine the result of the ajax request and determine whether to use the UpdateTargetId (replacing just the form) or not (replacing the whole page). I expect it would involve some work with jquery (assuming it's possible) but i'm not really that great with jquery yet to figure out how to do it myself. If it can't be done this way I'm also open to other methods/solutions for making it work in a similar fashion. Thanks in advance ..

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• Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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