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  • BizTalk SMTP Message Part Getting XML Encoding

    - by alram
    I have a email multi-part message which I am using to send failed message routing from the messagebox to a business users mailbox. Email{ Body - RawString; OriginalMessage - string}; The original message gets set from the received message that activates the orchestration. For example assume the original failed message is from a Flat file that failed disassembly with the contents: Order,1,2,3,4,5,<6>, I set the message using: Email.OriginalMessage = MyUtil.XlangMsgToStringMethod(FailedMessage);// XmlDocument type, this can be malformed xml, valid xml, or flat file that fails in disassembler. I can then write to the event log to test whats in Email.OriginalMessage: System.Diagnostics.EventLog.WriteEntry("BizTalk Server 2006", Email.OriginalMessage, Information); // This displays the correct original message "Order, 1,2,3,4,5,<6," When the email is delivered using a SMTP server and a dynamic send port, with the attachment set to text/plain mime type, the original message gets xml encoding escaped and wrapped in xml: <?xml version="1.0"?> <string>Order, 1,2,3,4,5,&lt;6&gt;,</string> Any ideas why? The SMTP port has passthrutransmit as pipeline. Thanks.

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  • Writing to EEPROM on PIC

    - by JB
    Are there any PIC microcontroller programmers here? I'm learning some PIC microcontroller programming using a pickit2 and the 16F690 chip that came with it. I'm working through trying out the various facilities at the moment. I can sucessfully read a byte from the EEPROM in code if I set the EEPROM vaklue in MPLAB but I don't seem to be able to modify the value using the PIC itsself. Simply nothing happens and I don't read back the modified value, I always get the original which implies to me that the write isn't working? This is my code for that section, am I missing something? I know I'm doing a lot of unnecessary bank switches, I added most of them to ensure that being on the wrong bank wasn't the issue. ; ------------------------------------------------------ ; Now SET the EEPROM location ZERO to 0x08 ; ------------------------------------------------------ BANKSEL EEADR CLRF EEADR ; Set EE Address to zero BANKSEL EEDAT MOVLW 0x08 ; Store the value 0x08 in the EEPROM MOVWF EEDAT BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WREN ; Enable writes to the EEPROM BANKSEL EECON2 MOVLW 0x55 ; Do the thing we have to do so MOVWF EECON2 ; that writes can work MOVLW 0xAA MOVWF EECON2 BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WR ; And finally perform the write WAIT BTFSC EECON1, WR ; Wait for write to finish GOTO WAIT BANKSEL PORTC ; Just to make sure we are on the right bank

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  • Which coding system should I use in Emacs?

    - by Vivi
    I am a newbie in Emacs, and I am not a programmer. I have just tried to save a simple *.rtf file with some websites and tips on how to use emacs and I got These default coding systems were tried to encode text in the buffer `notes.rtf': (iso-latin-1-dos (315 . 8216) (338 . 8217) (1514 . 8220) (1525 . 8221)) However, each of them encountered characters it couldn't encode: iso-latin-1-dos cannot encode these: ‘ ’ “ ” .... etc, etc, etc Now what is that? Now it is asking me to chose an encoding system Select coding system (default chinese-iso-8bit): I don't even know what an encoding system is, and I would rather not have to choose one every time I try and save a document... Is there any way I can set an encoding system that will work with all my files so I don't have to worry about this? I saw another question and asnswer elsewhere in this website (see it here) and it seems that if I type the following (defun set-coding-system () (setq buffer-file-coding-system 'utf-8-unix)) (add-hook 'find-file-hook 'set-coding-system) then I can have Emacs do this, but I am not sure... Can someone confirm this to me? Thanks so much :)

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  • Conflict When Two Storyboards Sets the Opacity Property?

    - by kennethkryger
    Hi, Background: I have a WPF UserControl (MainControl - not shown in code below) that contains another one (called MyControl in the code below). MainControl has it's DataContext set to an object, that has a Project-property. When MainControl loads, the Project-property is always null. The problem: When MainControl loads, I want to fade in the MyControl using a special storyboard (only used this one time (this "specialFadeInStoryboard" changes Opacity-property of MyControl from 0 to 1). When the Project-property is set to a value other than null, I want the MyControl to fade out using the "fadeOutStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 0) and if it's set to null afterwards I want to fade it in again this time using the "fadeInStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 1). However, after adding the code for the "specialFadeInStoryboard", the MyControl is never faded out... What am I doing wrong? <local:MyControl Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=Opacity, Converter={StaticResource opacityToVisibilityConverter}, Mode=OneWay}"> <local:MyControl.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="FrameworkElement.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource specialFadeInStoryboard}"/> </EventTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Project, Converter={StaticResource nullToBooleanConverter}, Mode=OneWay}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeOutStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> <DataTrigger.ExitActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeInStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.ExitActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </local:MyControl.Style> </local:MyControl>

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  • How do I expose the columns collection of GridView control that is inside a user control

    - by Christopher Edwards
    See edit. I want to be able to do this in the aspx that consumes the user control. <uc:MyControl ID="MyGrid" runat="server"> <asp:BoundField DataField="FirstColumn" HeaderText="FirstColumn" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="SecondColumn" HeaderText="SecondColumn" /> </uc> I have this code (which doesn't work). Any ideas what I am doing wrong? VB Partial Public Class MyControl Inherits UserControl <System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(GetType(DataControlFieldCollection))> _ Public Property Columns() As DataControlFieldCollection Get Return MyGridView.Columns End Get Set(ByVal value As DataControlFieldCollection) ' The Columns collection of the GridView is ReadOnly, so I rebuild it MyGridView.Columns.Clear() For Each c As DataControlField In value MyGridView.Columns.Add(c) Next End Set End Property ... End Class C# public partial class MyControl : UserControl {         [System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(typeof(DataControlFieldCollection))]     public DataControlFieldCollection Columns {         get { return MyGridView.Columns; }         set {             MyGridView.Columns.Clear();             foreach (DataControlField c in value) {                 MyGridView.Columns.Add(c);             }         }     } ... } EDIT: Actually it does work, but auto complete does not work between the uc:MyControl opening and closing tags and I get compiler warnings:- Content is not allowed between the opening and closing tags for element 'MyControl'. Validation (XHTML 1.0 Transitional): Element 'columns' is not supported. Element 'BoundField' is not a known element. This can occur if there is a compilation error in the Web site, or the web.config file is missing. So I guess I need to use some sort of directive to tell the complier to expect content between the tags. Any ideas?

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  • Android -Layout Manager not showing buttons

    - by Arun
    The following is my code. I want an interface where I have a single line textbox, a multiline textbox with 2 buttons below. I want the multiline textbox to occupy all the space available after rendering the buttons and textbox. For this I created two LinearLayouts inside the main layout. The first one has vertical orientation with layout_width set to fill_parent. The second one is horizontal with fill_parent again. The first one has a textbox for which I have set the layout_height to fill parent. The second one has two textboxes OK and Cancel. When I run this application I get the UI, but the Buttons are very small. I have to set the button height manually. What am I doing wrong here. I don't want to hard code the button height. <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Name"></TextView> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"></EditText> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Contents"></TextView> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="top" /> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1"> <Button android:id="@+id/okbutt" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="OK" android:layout_weight="1" /> <Button android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="Cancel" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> Thanks, Arun

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  • WPF TextBlock Binding to DependencyProperty

    - by Bill Campbell
    Hi, I have what I believe to be about one of the most simple cases of attempting to bind a view to a dependencyproperty in the view model. It seems that the initial changes are reflected in the view but other changes to the DP do not update the view's TextBlock. I'm probably just missing something simple but I just can't see what it is. Please take a look... My XAML has a status bar on the bottom of the window. I want to bind to the DP "VRAStatus". <StatusBar x:Name="sbar" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="LightBlue" Opacity="0.4" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" > <StatusBarItem> <TextBlock x:Name="statusBar" Text="{Binding VRAStatus}" /> </StatusBarItem> <StatusBarItem> <Separator Style="{StaticResource StatusBarSeparatorStyle}"/> </StatusBarItem> </StatusBar> My viewmodel has the DP defined: public string VRAStatus { get { return (string)GetValue(VRAStatusProperty); } set { SetValue(VRAStatusProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for VRAStatus. public static readonly DependencyProperty VRAStatusProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("VRAStatus", typeof(string), typeof(PenskeRouteAssistViewModel),new PropertyMetadata(string.Empty)); Then, in my code I set the DP: VRAStatus = "Test Message..."; Is there something obvious here that I am missing? In my constructor for the viewmodel I set the DP like this: VRAStatus = "Ready"; I never get the Test Message to display. Please Help. thanks in advance! Bill

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  • Reading component parameters and setting defaults

    - by donut
    I'm pulling my hair on this because it should be simple, but can't get it to do the right thing. What's the best practice way of doing the following I've created a custom component that extends <s:Label> so now the Label has additional properties color2 color3 value which can be called like this and are used in the skin. <s:CustomLabel text="Some text" color2="0x939202" color3="0x999999" value="4.5" /> If I don't supply these parameters, I'd like some defaults to be set. So far I've had some success, but it doesn't work 100% of the time, which leads me to think that I'm not following best practices when setting those defaults. I do it now like this: [Bindable] private var myColor2:uint = 0x000000; [Bindable] private var myColor3:uint = 0x000000; [Bindable] private var myValue:Number = 10.0; then in the init function, I do a variation of this to set the default myValue = hostComponent.value; myValue = (hostComponent.value) ? hostComponent.value : 4.5; Sometimes it works, sometimes it doesn't, depending on the type of variable I'm trying to set. I eventually decided to read them as Strings then convert them to the desired type, but it seems that this also works half the time.

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  • Entity framework entity class mapping with plain .net class

    - by Elan
    I have following in entity framework Table - Country Fields List item Country_ID Dialing_Code ISO_Alpha2 ISO_Alpha3 ISO_Full I would like to map only selected fields from this entity model to my domain class. My domain model class is public class DomainCountry { public int Country_ID { get; set; } public string Dialing_Code { get; set; } public string ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 { get; set; } } The following will work however insert or update is not possible. In order to get insert or update we need to use ObjectSet< but it will not support in my case. IQueryable<DomainCountry> countries = context.Countries.Select( c => new DomainCountry { Country_ID = c.Country_Id, Dialing_Code = c.Dialing_Code, ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 = c.ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 }); It will be really fantastic could someone provide a nice solution for this. Ideally it will be kind of proxy class which will support all the futures however highly customizable i.e. only the columns we want to expose to the outer world

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  • How does XMPP work with perl?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    Hey everybody, I am trying to make my own jabber bot but i have run into a little trouble. I have gotten my bot to respond to messages, however, if I try to change the bot's presence then it seems as though all of the messages you send to the bot get delayed. What I mean is when I run the script I change the presence so I can see that it is online. Then When I send it a message it takes 3 before the callback subroutine i have set up for messages gets called. After the 3rd message is sent and the chat subroutine is called it still process the first message I sent. This really doesn't pose TOO much of a problem except that I have it set up to log out when I send the message "logout" and it has to be followed by two more messages in order to log out. I am not sure what it is that I have to do to fix this but i think it has something to do with iq packets because I have an iq callback set as well and it gets called 2 times after setting the presence. Here is my source code: http://pastebin.com/MgKMhTML Thanks for your help!

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  • Error in asp.net c# code (mysql database connection)

    - by Ishan
    My code is to update a record if it already exists in database else insert as a new record. My code is as follows: protected void Button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OdbcConnection MyConnection = new OdbcConnection("Driver={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver};Server=localhost;Database=testcase;User=root;Password=root;Option=3;"); MyConnection.Open(); String MyString = "select fil_no,orderdate from temp_save where fil_no=? and orderdate=?"; OdbcCommand MyCmd = new OdbcCommand(MyString, MyConnection); MyCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("", HiddenField4.Value); MyCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("", TextBox3.Text); using (OdbcDataReader MyReader4 = MyCmd.ExecuteReader()) { //** if (MyReader4.Read()) { String MyString1 = "UPDATE temp_save SET order=? where fil_no=? AND orderdate=?"; OdbcCommand MyCmd1 = new OdbcCommand(MyString1, MyConnection); MyCmd1.Parameters.AddWithValue("", Editor1.Content.ToString()); MyCmd1.Parameters.AddWithValue("", HiddenField1.Value); MyCmd1.Parameters.AddWithValue("", TextBox3.Text); MyCmd1.ExecuteNonQuery(); } else { // set the SQL string String strSQL = "INSERT INTO temp_save (fil_no,order,orderdate) " + "VALUES (?,?,?)"; // Create the Command and set its properties OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand(strSQL, MyConnection); objCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("", HiddenField4.Value); objCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("", Editor1.Content.ToString()); objCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("", TextBox3.Text); // execute the command objCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } I am getting the error as: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 3.51 Driver][mysqld-5.1.51-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'order,orderdate) VALUES ('04050040272009','&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&' at line 1 The datatype for fields in table temp_save are: fil_no-->INT(15)( to store a 15 digit number) order-->LONGTEXT(to store contents from HTMLEditor(ajax control)) orderdate-->DATE(to store date) Please help me to resolve my error.

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  • Change NSTimer interval for repeating timer.

    - by user300713
    Hi, I am running a mainLoop in Cocoa using an NSTimer set up like this: mainLoopTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0/fps target:self selector:@selector(mainloop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:mainLoopTimer forMode:NSEventTrackingRunLoopMode]; At Program startup I set the timeInterval to 0.0 so that the mainloop runs as fast as possible. Anyways, I would like to provide a function to set the framerate(and thus the time interval of the timer) to a specific value at runtime. Unfortunately as far as I know that means that I have to reinitialize the timer since Cocoa does not provide a function like "setTimerInterval" This is what I tried: - (void)setFrameRate:(float)aFps { NSLog(@"setFrameRate"); [mainLoopTimer invalidate]; mainLoopTimer = nil; mainLoopTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0/aFps target:self selector:@selector(mainloop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:mainLoopTimer forMode:NSEventTrackingRunLoopMode]; } but this throws the following error and stops the mainloop: 2010-06-09 11:14:15.868 myTarget[7313:a0f] setFrameRate 2010-06-09 11:14:15.868 myTarget[7313:a0f] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x40cd80 of class __NSCFDate autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 11:14:15.869 myTarget[7313:a0f] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x40e700 of class NSCFTimer autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 0.614628 I also tried to recreate the timer using the "retain" keyword, but that didn't change anything. Any ideas about how to dynamically change the interval of an NSTimer at runtime? Thanks!

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  • sql 2008 sqldmo alternative

    - by alexdelpiero
    Hi! I previously was using sqldmo to automatically generate scripts from the databse. Now I upgraded to sql server 2008 and I don’t want to use this feature anymore since Microsoft will be dropping this feature off. Is there any other alternative I can use to connect to a server and generate scripts automatically from a database? Any answer is welcome. Thanks in advance. This is the procedure i was previously using: CREATE PROC GenerateSP ( @server varchar(30) = null, @uname varchar(30) = null, @pwd varchar(30) = null, @dbname varchar(30) = null, @filename varchar(200) = 'c:\script.sql' ) AS DECLARE @object int DECLARE @hr int DECLARE @return varchar(200) DECLARE @exec_str varchar(2000) DECLARE @spname sysname SET NOCOUNT ON -- Sets the server to the local server IF @server is NULL SELECT @server = @@servername -- Sets the database to the current database IF @dbname is NULL SELECT @dbname = db_name() -- Sets the username to the current user name IF @uname is NULL SELECT @uname = SYSTEM_USER -- Create an object that points to the SQL Server EXEC @hr = sp_OACreate 'SQLDMO.SQLServer', @object OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error create SQLOLE.SQLServer' RETURN END -- Connect to the SQL Server IF @pwd is NULL BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END ELSE BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname, @pwd IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END --Verify the connection EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'VerifyConnection', @return OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error VerifyConnection' RETURN END SET @exec_str = 'DECLARE script_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM ' + @dbname + '..sysobjects WHERE type = ''P'' ORDER BY Name' EXEC (@exec_str) OPEN script_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname WHILE (@@fetch_status < -1) BEGIN SET @exec_str = 'Databases("'+ @dbname +'").StoredProcedures("'+RTRIM(UPPER(@spname))+'").Script(74077,"'+ @filename +'")' EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, @exec_str, @return OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Script' RETURN END FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname END CLOSE script_cursor DEALLOCATE script_cursor -- Destroy the object EXEC @hr = sp_OADestroy @object IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error destroy object' RETURN END GO

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  • Skipping one item in the column

    - by zurna
    I created a simple news website. I store both videos and images in IMAGES table. Videos added have videos and images added have images stored in a column called ImagesType. Images and Videos attached to a news is stored in ImagesID column of the NEWS table. My problem occurs when I need to display the first image of a news. i.e. IMAGES table: ImagesID ImagesLgURL ImagesType 1 /FLPM/media/videos/0H7T9C0F.flv videos 2 /FLPM/media/images/8R5D7M8O.jpg images 3 /FLPM/media/images/0E7Q9Z0C.jpg images NEWS table NewsID ImagesID NewsTitle 1 1;2; Street Chic: Paris ERROR 2 3; Paris Runway NO ERROR The following code give me an error with the 2nd news item because the first ImageID stored in the list is not an image but a video. I need to figure out a way to skip the video item and display the next image. I hope I made sense. SQL = "SELECT NEWSID, CATEGORIESID, IMAGESID, NEWSTITLE, NEWSSHORTDESC, NEWSACTIVE, NEWSDATEENTERED" SQL = SQL & " FROM NEWS N" SQL = SQL & " WHERE NEWSACTIVE = 1" SQL = SQL & " ORDER BY NEWSDATEENTERED DESC" Set objNews = objConn.Execute(SQL) Do While intLooper1 <= 3 And Not objNews.EOF IMAGES = Split(Left(objNews("IMAGESID"),Len(objNews("IMAGESID"))-1), ";") SQL = "SELECT ImagesID, ImagesName, ImagesLgURL, ImagesSmURL, ImagesType" SQL = SQL & " FROM IMAGES I" SQL = SQL & " WHERE ImagesID = " & IMAGES(0) & " AND ImagesType = 'images'" Set objLgImage = objConn.Execute(SQL) <div> <a href="?Section=news&SubSection=redirect&NEWSID=<%=objNews("NEWSID")%>"> <img src="<%=objLgImage("ImagesLgURL")%>" alt="<%=objLgImage("ImagesName")%>" /> </a> </div> <% objLgImage.Close Set objLgImage = Nothing intLooper1 = intLooper1 + 1 objNews.MoveNext Loop %>

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  • Project with multiple binaries in Eclipse CDT

    - by Robert Schneider
    I think it is quite normal to have more than one binary in a project. However, with Eclipse CDT I don't know how to set up the IDE to get things done. I know I can create several projects - one per binary. And I know I can set the dependencies per project. However, I cannot regard them as one project in Eclipse. If I'd like to share the code with a version control system (like svn), each developer has to import the projects separately. What I miss is something like the Solution (sln file) in Visual Studio. Should I create a single project and create the make files by myself? I haven't tried it out yet, but there is this 'project set' which can be ex- and imported. Is this the solution? Can this be put into version control? My goal it to put everything under version control, not only subprojects. I cannot imagine that CDT makes only sense for single-binary applications. How can I work properly?

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  • Nhibernate get collection by ICriteria

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at getting my entity. MApping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> </class> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } I want get query such as SELECT * FROM sales s INNER JOIN sales_users su on su.sales_id=s.id WHERE su.user_id=:N How can i do this through ICriterion object? Thanks a lot.

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  • LinqToSQL Double Insert issue

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF service with an object structure similar to this: public class MyClass { public List<MySubItem> SubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubItem { public List<MySubSubItem> SubSubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubSubItem { public string DataValue { get; set; } } public class MyClassDAL { public void InsertMyClass(MyClass myClass) { ctx.MyClasses.InsertOnSubmit(myClass); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } Sometimes my client will call in with a MyClass that submits only half of the values that it has in the list SubSubItems. Later it calls the insert with the rest of the list. The problem is that when it does this I get a Primary Key violation. The reason is that it is trying to insert the MySubItem again (because there are more items in the SubSubItems owned by the same MySubItem object). How do I deal with this? Do I just call an Update? Do I have to try to separate them out (updates from inserts)? SQL Server 2008 has a really cool Merge functionally. Is there some way to access that from LinqToSQL?

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  • Create inherited class from base class

    - by Raj
    public class Car { private string make; private string model; public Car(string make, string model) { this.make = make; this.model = model; } public virtual void Display() { Console.WriteLine("Make: {0}", make); Console.WriteLine("Model: {0}", model); } public string Make { get{return make;} set{make = value;} } public string Model { get{return model;} set{model = value;} } } public class SuperCar:Car { private Car car; private int horsePower; public SuperCar(Car car) { this.car = car; } public int HorsePower { get{return horsePower;} set{horsepower = value;} } public override void Display() { base.Display(); Console.WriteLine("I am a super car"); } When I do something like Car myCar = new Car("Porsche", "911"); SuperCar mySupcar = new SuperCar(myCar); mySupcar.Display(); I only get "I am a supercar" but not the properties of my base class. Should I explicitly assign the properties of my base class in the SuperCar constructor? In fact I'm trying Decorator pattern where I want a class to add behaviour to a base class.

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  • Generating code -- is there an easy way to get a proper string representation of nullable type?

    - by Cory Larson
    So I'm building an application that is going to do a ton of code generation with both C# and VB output (depending on project settings). I've got a CodeTemplateEngine, with two derived classes VBTemplateEngine and CSharpTemplateEngine. This question regards creating the property signatures based on columns in a database table. Using the IDataReader's GetSchemaTable method I gather the CLR type of the column, such as "System.Int32", and whether it IsNullable. However, I'd like to keep the code simple, and instead of having a property that looks like: public System.Int32? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } or public Nullable<System.Int32> SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; }, where the property type would be resolved with this function (from my VBTemplateEngine), public override string ResolveCLRType(bool? isNullable, string runtimeType) { Type type = TypeUtils.ResolveType(runtimeType); if (isNullable.HasValue && isNullable.Value == true && type.IsValueType) { return "System.Nullable(Of " + type.FullName + ")"; // or, for example... return type.FullName + "?"; } else { return type.FullName; } }, I would like to generate a simpler property. I hate the idea of building a Type string from nothing, and I would rather have something like: public int? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } Is there anything built-in anywhere, such as in the VBCodeProvider or CSharpCodeProvider classes that would somehow take care of this for me? Or is there a way to get a type alias of int? from a type string like System.Nullable'1[System.Int32]? Thanks!

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  • Databinding question: DataGridView <=> XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

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  • What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

    - by jonathan_ou
    Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Changing Positions of the Chart When Creating Multiple Charts Automatically via Vbasic in Excel 2007

    - by McVey
    I am creating a new chart for each row of data in an Excel spreadsheet. I have the Vbasic working properly, but I want to change the position of the chart on the sheet that is added for each row. Below is my code, what do I need to do to change the position of the chart on the page automatically? Ideally, I would like it to be in the upper left hand corner of each sheet. Sub DrawCharts() Dim Ws As Worksheet Dim NewWs As Worksheet Dim cht As Chart Dim LastRow As Long Dim CurrRow As Long Set Ws = ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") LastRow = Ws.Range("A65536").End(xlUp).Row For CurrRow = 2 To LastRow Set NewWs = ThisWorkbook.Worksheets.Add NewWs.Name = Ws.Range("A" & CurrRow).Value Set cht = ThisWorkbook.Charts.Add With cht .ChartType = xl3DColumnClustered .SeriesCollection.NewSeries .SeriesCollection(1).Values = "=" & Ws.Name & "!R" & CurrRow & "C3:R" & CurrRow & "C8" .SeriesCollection(1).Name = "=" & Ws.Name & "!R" & CurrRow & "C2" .SeriesCollection(1).XValues = "Sheet1!R1C3:R1C8" .Axes(xlValue).MinimumScale = 0 .Axes(xlValue).MaximumScale = 1 .Axes(xlValue).MajorUnit = 0.2 .SetElement (msoElementDataLabelShow) .SetElement (msoElementLegendNone) .Location Where:=xlLocationAsObject, Name:=NewWs.Name End With Next CurrRow End Sub Any help is appreciated.

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  • Why does VBA Find loop fail when called from Evaluate?

    - by Abiel
    I am having some problems running a find loop inside of a subroutine when the routine is called using the Application.Evaluate or ActiveSheet.Evaluate method. For example, in the code below, I define a subroutine FindSub() which searches the sheet for a string "xxx". The routine CallSub() calls the FindSub() routine using both a standard Call statement and Evaluate. When I run Call FindSub, everything will work as expected: each matching address gets printed out to the immediate window and we get a final message "Finished up" when the code is done. However, when I do Application.Evaluate "FindSub()", only the address of the first match gets printed out, and we never reach the "Finished up" message. In other words, an error is encountered after the Cells.FindNext line as the loop tries to evaluate whether it should continue, and program execution stops without any runtime error being printed. I would expect both Call FindSub and Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" to yield the same results in this case. Can someone explain why they do not, and if possible, a way to fix this? Thanks. Note: In this example I obviously do not need to use Evaluate. This version is simplified to just focus on the particular problem I am having in a more complex situation. Sub CallSub() Call FindSub Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" End Sub Sub FindSub() Dim rngFoundCell As Range Dim rngFirstCell As Range Set rngFoundCell = Cells.Find(What:="xxx", after:=ActiveCell, LookIn:=xlValues, _ LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:=xlNext, _ MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) If Not rngFoundCell Is Nothing Then Set rngFirstCell = rngFoundCell Do Debug.Print rngFoundCell.Address Set rngFoundCell = Cells.FindNext(after:=rngFoundCell) Loop Until (rngFoundCell Is Nothing) Or (rngFoundCell.Address = rngFirstCell.Address) End If Debug.Print "Finished up" End Sub

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  • How to get NSFormatter subclass to work with NSTableColumn sort key and selector?

    - by Andrew
    My setup: I have a sqlite database from which I populate a NSMutableArray of NSDictionary objects this is the DataSource for my NSTableView. One of the columns holds "time", the time is a float that holds seconds. I would like to display the values in this column as minutes:seconds. For instance my data would be 123.4329387 I want to display 2:03 which I have no problem doing with a subclass of NSFormatter (or NSNumberFormatter) applied to my NSTextField in the column. I have sorting set up by using the Table Column Attributes in IB, I just have the sort key set to "time" and the selector set to "compare:" which works fine without the formatter. Currently this gives me something like this when I sort (descending) 1:37, 1:31, 0:10, 0:10, 0:09, 1:30, 1:30, 1:26, 0:09 and similar nonsense, it looks like something is going on but it's definitely not sorted. How do I get the sort to look at the underlying data instead of the formatted value? Alternately, how do I specify a custom sort method and where do I put the code for said method? I have searched around quite a bit and have not found anything to help me out with this problem, any help with this is most appreciated.

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  • Efficient way to handle multiple HTMLPurifier configs.

    - by anomareh
    I'm using HTMLPurifier in a current project and I'm not sure about the most efficient way to go about handling multiple configs. For the most part the only major thing changing is the allowed tags. Currently I have a private method, in each class using HTMLPurifier, that gets called when a config is needed and it creates one from the default. I'm not really happy with this as if 2 classes are using the same config, that's duplicating code, and what if a class needs 2 configs? It just feels messy. The one upside to it, is it's lazy in the sense that it's not creating anything until it's needed. The various classes could be used and never have to purify anything. So I don't want to be creating a bunch of config objects that might not even be used. I just recently found out that you can create a new instance of HTMLPurifier and directly set config options like so: $purifier = new HTMLPurifier(); $purifier->config->set('HTML.Allowed', ''); I'm not sure if that's bad form at all or not, and if it isn't I'm not really sure of a good way to put it to use. My latest idea was to create a config handler class that would just return an HTMLPurifier config for use in subsequent purify calls. At some point it could probably be expanded to allow the setting of configs, but just from the start I figured they'd just be hardcoded and run a method parameter through a switch to grab the requested config. Perhaps I could just send the stored purifier instance as an argument and have the method directly set the config on it like shown above? This to me seems the best of the few ways I thought of, though I'm not sure if such a task warrants me creating a class to handle it, and if so, if I'm handling it in the best way. I'm not too familiar with the inner workings of HTMLPurifier so I'm not sure if there are any better mechanisms in place for handling multiple configs. Thanks for any insight anyone can offer.

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