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• How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

  - by Wayne

  How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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• RDP through TCP Proxy

  - by johng100

  Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

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• JMS MessageCreator.createMessage() in Grails

  - by Hans Wurst

  Hi there, I am trying to implement jms to my grails application. I have several JMS consumer in a spring based enviroment listining on an ActiveMQ broker. I wrote a simple test commandline client which creates messages and receives them in an request response manner. Here is the snippet that sends a MapMessage in Spring JMS way. This works for me as long I am in my spring world. final String corrID = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); asyncJmsTemplate.send("test.RequestQ", new MessageCreator() { public Message createMessage(Session session) throws JMSException { try { MapMessage msg = session.createMapMessage(); msg.setStringProperty("json", mapper.writeValueAsString(List<of some objects>)); msg.setJMSCorrelationID(corrID); msg.setJMSReplyTo(session.createQueue("test.ReplyQ")); return msg; } catch (JsonGenerationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JsonMappingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } }); BUT when I tried to implement this methods to my grails test app I receive some METHOD_DEF exceptions. Sending simple TextMessages via the jmsTemplate.convertAndSende(Queue, Message) provided by the JMS Plugin works. Can any one help me? Is this a common problem? Cheers Hans

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• dlopen / dlsym with as little linking as possible

  - by johannes

  I have an application which can make use of plugins which are loaded at runtime using dlopen. Each of the plugins defines a function toretrieve the plugin information which is defined using a common structure. Something like that: struct plugin { char *name; char *app_version; int app_verion_id; char *plugin_version; int plugin_version_id; /* ... */ }; struct plugin p = { "sample plugin",APP_VERION,APP_VERSION_ID,"1.2.3",10203 }; struct plugin *get_plugin() { return &p; } This works well and plugins can be loaded. Now i want to build a small tool to read these properties without linking the whole application. For doing that I have some code like this: void *handle; struct plugin *plugin; struct plugin *(get_plugin*)(); handle = dlopen(filename, RTLD_LAZY); if (!handle) { /*...return; ...*/ } get_plugin = dlym(handle, "get_plugin"); if (!get_plugin) { /*...return; ...*/ } plugin = get_plugin(); printf("Plugin: %s\n", plugin->name); This works nice for simple plugins. The issue is that many plugins reference further symbols from the application, which are resolved even though RTLD_LAZY was set. (like global variables from the application which are used to initialize plugin-global things) So the dlopen() call fails with an error like fatal: relocation error: file sample_plugin.so: symbol application_some_symbol: referenced symbol not found. As I just want to have access to the single simple structure I was wondering how I can prevent the linker from doing that much of his work.

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• Ruby: add custom properties to built-in classes

  - by dreftymac

  Question: Using Ruby it is simple to add custom methods to existing classes, but how do you add custom properties? Here is an example of what I am trying to do: myarray = Array.new(); myarray.concat([1,2,3]); myarray._meta_ = Hash.new(); # obviously, this wont work myarray._meta_['createdby'] = 'dreftymac'; myarray._meta_['lastupdate'] = '1993-12-12'; ## desired result puts myarray._meta_['createdby']; #=> 'dreftymac' puts myarray.inspect() #=> [1,2,3] The goal is to construct the class definition in such a way that the stuff that does not work in the example above will work as expected. Update: (clarify question) One aspect that was left out of the original question: it is also a goal to add "default values" that would ordinarily be set-up in the initialize method of the class. Update: (why do this) Normally, it is very simple to just create a custom class that inherits from Array (or whatever built-in class you want to emulate). This question derives from some "testing-only" code and is not an attempt to ignore this generally acceptable approach.

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• Ruby: add custom properties to built-in classes

  - by dreftymac

  Question: Using Ruby it is simple to add custom methods to existing classes, but how do you add custom properties? Here is an example of what I am trying to do: myarray = Array.new(); myarray.concat([1,2,3]); myarray._meta_ = Hash.new(); # obviously, this wont work myarray._meta_['createdby'] = 'dreftymac'; myarray._meta_['lastupdate'] = '1993-12-12'; ## desired result puts myarray._meta_['createdby']; #=> 'dreftymac' puts myarray.inspect() #=> [1,2,3] The goal is to construct the class definition in such a way that the stuff that does not work in the example above will work as expected. Update: (clarify question) One aspect that was left out of the original question: it is also a goal to add "default values" that would ordinarily be set-up in the initialize method of the class. Update: (why do this) Normally, it is very simple to just create a custom class that inherits from Array (or whatever built-in class you want to emulate). This question derives from some "testing-only" code and is not an attempt to ignore this generally acceptable approach.

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• Application design in Spring MVC

  - by Ravi

  Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

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• Deployed a Zend App on EC2 and its not working

  - by Gublooo

  Hey Guys, I'm confused about the problem and not sure if I can provide enough details. I have a php app built on Zend framework which I've successfully deployed on other hosting companies. I am now trying to move to Amazon EC2 I moved all my code and set my domain to point to the IP address. So far so good. Now when I access my home page say www.example.com - everything looks good - The home page opens up which means the IndexController is being called and the index method is properly executed which pulls data from the database and displays it in the index.phtml page. So this lets me to believe that everything is working fine. But every link I click on the home page whether its a simple contact us link - or any other action that I directly try to call even through the URL results in 404 Not Found The requested URL /user/add was not found on this server. Apache/2.2.9 (Fedora) Server at www.example.com Port 80 The interesting thing is the home page opens up fine when I call www.example.com but when I give the entire path which is www.example.com/index/index - I get the same above error. I have checked the logs and there are no errors. Has anyone encountered something similar or have any idea if I'm missing a simple step or something like rewrite rule maybe. Its running on LAMP Any ideas Thanks

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• Trace PRISM / CAL events (best practice?)

  - by Christian

  Ok, this question is for people with either a deep knowledge of PRISM or some magic skills I just lack (yet). The Background is simple: Prism allows the declaration of events to which the user can subscribe or publish. In code this looks like this: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Subscribe(UpdateUi, true); _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Publish("Some argument"); Now this is nice, especially because these events are strongly typed, and the declaration is a piece of cake: public class LayoutChangedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<string> { } But now comes the hard part: I want to trace events in some way. I had the idea to subscribe using a lambda expression calling a simple log message. Worked perfectly in WPF, but in Silverlight there is some method access error (took me some time to figure out the reason).. If you want to see for yourself, try this in Silverlight: eA.GetEvent<VideoStartedEvent>().Subscribe(obj => TraceEvent(obj, "vSe", log)); If this would be possible, I would be happy, because I could easily trace all events using a single line to subscribe. But it does not... The alternative approach is writing a different functions for each event, and assign this function to the events. Why different functions? Well, I need to know WHICH event was published. If I use the same function for two different events I only get the payload as argument. I have now way to figure out which event caused the tracing message. I tried: using Reflection to get the causing event (not working) using a constructor in the event to enable each event to trace itself (not allowed) Any other ideas? Chris PS: Writing this text took me most likely longer than writing 20 functions for my 20 events, but I refuse to give up :-) I just had the idea to use postsharp, that would most likely work (although I am not sure, perhaps I end up having only information about the base class).. Tricky and so unimportant topic...

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• What's the fastest way to get CRUD over CGI on a database handle in Perl?

  - by mithaldu

  TL;DR: Want to write CGI::CRUD::Simple (a minimalist interface module for CGI::CRUD), but I want to check first if i overlooked a module that already does that. I usually work with applications that don't have the niceties of having frameworks and such already in place. However, a while ago i found myself in a situation where i was asking myself: "Self, i have a DBI database handle and a CGI query object, isn't there a module somewhere that can use this to give me some CRUD so i can move on and work on other things instead of spending hours writing an interface?" A quick survey on CPAN gave me: CGI::Crud Catalyst::Plugin::CRUD Gantry::Plugins::CRUD Jifty::View::Declare::CRUD CatalystX::CRUD Catalyst::Controller::CRUD CatalystX::CRUD::REST Catalyst::Enzyme Now, I didn't go particularly in-depth when looking at these modules, but, safe the first one, they all seem to require the presence of some sort of framework. Please tell me if i was wrong and i can just plug any of those into a barebones CGI script. CGI::CRUD seemed to do exactly what i wanted, although it did insist on being used through a rather old and C-like script that must be acquired on a different site and then prodded in various ways and manners to produce something useful. I went with that and found that it works pretty neat and that it should be rather easy to write a simple and easy-to-use module that provides a very basic [dbh, cgi IN]-[html OUT] interface to it. However, as my previous survey was rather short and i may have been hasty in dismissing modules or missed others, i find myself wondering whether that would only be duplication of work already done. As such i ponder the question in the title. PS: I tend to be too short in some of my explanations and make too many assumptions that others think about things similarly as me, resulting in leaving out critical details. If you find yourself wondering just what exactly I am thinking about when i say CRUD, please poke me in comments and I'll amend the question.

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• WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

  - by Andy T

  Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

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• Windows console

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hello. Well, I have a simple question, at least I hope its simple. I was interested in win32 console for a while. Our teacher told us, that windows console is just for DOS and real mode emulation purposes. Well, I know it is not true, becouse DOS applications are runned by emulator which only uses console to display output. Another thing I learned is that console is built into Windows since NT. Well. But what I could not find is, how actually are console programs written to use console. I use Visual C++ for programming (well, for learning). So, the only thing I need to do for using console is select console project. I first thought that windows decides wheather it run app in console or tries to run app in window mode. So I created win32 program and tried printf(). Well, I could not compile it. I know that by definition printf() prints text or variables to stdout. I also found that stdout is the console interface for output. But, I could not find what actually stdout is. So, basicly what I want to ask is, where is the difference between console app and win32 app. I thought that windows starts console when it gets command from "console-family" functions. But obvisously it does not, so there must be some code that actually commands windows to create console interface. And the second question is, when the console is created, how does windows recognize which console terminal is used for what app? I mean, what actually is stdout? Is it a area in memory , or some windows routine that is called? Thanks.

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• ClassNotFoundException when connecting to Mysql with JDBC

  - by Jacob Lyles

  I'm getting the following error when I try to run a simple Java JDBC program at the command line: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: LoadDriver/java Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: LoadDriver.java at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:315) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:330) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:250) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:398) Here's the simple Java program, copied right out of the JDBC docs: import java.sql.Connection; import java.sql.DriverManager; import java.sql.SQLException; // Notice, do not import com.mysql.jdbc.* // or you will have problems! public class LoadDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { try { // The newInstance() call is a work around for some // broken Java implementations Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; // handle the error } } } Problem is, I'm bloody sure my bash shell $ClASSPATH variable is pointed at the correct .jar file. To be sure, I copied the JDBC .jar to the same directory as my program and ran it as follows: java -classpath ./mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar LoadDriver.java I still get the same error. I'm running under Mac OSX, if it matters.

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• Oracle - Getting Select Count(*) from ... as an output parameter in System.Data.OracleClient

  - by cbeuker

  Greetings all, I have a question. I am trying to build a parametrized query to get me the number of rows from a table in Oracle. Rather simple. However I am an Oracle newbie.. I know in SQL Server you can do something like: Select @outputVariable = count(*) from sometable where name = @SomeOtherVariable and then you can set up an Output parameter in the System.Data.SqlClient to get the @outputVariable. Thinking that one should be able to do this in Oracle as well, I have the following query Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue I set up my oracle parameters (using System.Data.OracleClient - yes I know it will be deprecated in .Net 4 - but that's what I am working with for now) as follows IDbCommand command = new OracleCommand(); command.CommandText = "Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue"); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OracleParameter parameterTheCount = new OracleParameter(":theCount ", OracleType.Number); parameterTheCount .Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; command.Parameters.Add(parameterTheCount ); OracleParameter parameterSomeValue = new OracleParameter(":SomeValue", OracleType.VarChar, 40); parameterSomeValue .Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; parameterSomeValue .Value = "TheValueToLookFor"; command.Parameters.Add(parameterSomeValue ); command.Connection = myconnectionObject; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); int theCount = (int)parameterTheCount.Value; At which point I was hoping the count would be in the parameter parameterTheCount that I could readily access. I keep getting the error ora-01036 which http://ora-01036.ora-code.com tells me to check my binding in the sql statement. Am I messing something up in the SQL statement? Am I missing something simple elsewhere? I could just use command.ExecuteScaler() as I am only getting one item, and am probably going to end up using that, but at this point, curiosity has got the better of me. What if I had two parameters I wanted back from my query (ie: select max(ColA), min(ColB) into :max, :min.....) Thanks..

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• TextRenderer.DrawText renders Arial differently on XP vs Vista

  - by Michael

  I have a c# application that does text rendering, something on par with a simple wysiwyg text editor. I'm using TextRenderer.DrawText to render the text to the screen and GetTextExtentPoint32 to measure text so I can position different font styles/sizes on the same line. In Vista this all works fine. In XP however, Arial renders differently, certain characters like 'o' and 'b' take up more width than in Vista. GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the string as it would in Vista though, with the smaller widths. The end result is that every now and then a run of text will overlap the text preceding it because the preceding text gets measured as smaller than it actually is on the screen. Also, my text rendering code mimics ie's text rendering exactly (for simple formatting and english language only) and ie text rendering seems to be consistent between vista and xp - that's how I noticed the change in size of the different characters. Anyone have any ideas about what's going on? In short, TextRenderer.DrawText and GetTextExtentPoint32 don't match up in xp for Arial. DrawText seems to draw certain characters larger and/or smaller than it does in Vista but GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the text as it would in Vista (which seems to match the text rendering in ie on both xp and vista). Hope that makes sense. Note: unfortunately TextRenderer.MeasureString isn't fast or accurate enough to meet my requirements. I tried using it and had to rip it out.

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• Android - Widget to Play Video (onclick trouble)

  - by Josh

  I am trying to make a simple widget that will play a movie from the sdcard when clicked on. This seems simple enough, and by following tutorials I've come up with the following code, but it seems the onclick is never setup. Manifest: <receiver android:name="WidgetProvider" android:label="DVD Cover"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.appwidget.action.APPWIDGET_UPDATE"/> </intent-filter> <meta-data android:name="android.appwidget.provider" android:resource="@xml/appwidget_info_2x4"/> </receiver> Layout (widget.xml): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/holder" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#ff777777" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/cover" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:textColor="#000000" /> </LinearLayout> appwidget.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <appwidget-provider xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:minWidth="200dip" android:minHeight="300dip" android:updatePeriodMillis="180000" android:initialLayout="@layout/widget" > </appwidget-provider> WidgetProvider.java: public class WidgetProvider extends AppWidgetProvider { public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager, int[] appWidgetIds) { String movieurl = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().getPath() + "/Movie.mp4"; Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); notificationIntent.setDataAndType(Uri.parse(movieurl), "video/*"); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, notificationIntent,0); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener // to the button RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.holder, contentIntent); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current app widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, views); } } Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Josh

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• How do I use Linq-to-sql to iterate db records?

  - by Seth Spearman

  I asked on SO a few days ago what was the simplest quickest way to build a wrapper around a recently completed database. I took the advice and used sqlmetal to build linq classes around my database design. Now I am having two problems. One, I don't know LINQ. And, two, I have been shocked to realize how hard it is to learn. I have a book on LINQ (Linq In Action by Manning) and it has helped some but at the end of the day it is going to take me a couple of weeks to get traction and I need to make some progress on my project today. So, I am looking for some help getting started. Click HERE To see my simple database schema. Click HERE to see the vb class that was generated for the schema. My needs are simple. I have a console app. The main table is the SupplyModel table. Most of the other tables are child tables of the SupplyModel table. I want to iterate through each of Supply Model records. I want to grab the data for a supply model and then DoStuff with the data. And I also need to iterate through the child records, for each supply model, for example the NumberedInventories and DoStuff with that as well. I need help doing this in VB rather than C# if possible. I am not looking for the whole solution...if you can supply a couple of code-snippets to get me on my way that would be great. Thanks for your help. Seth

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• What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

  - by Alex R

  I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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• Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts (relations)

  - by The Disintegrator

  I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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• Send post request from client to node.js

  - by Husar

  In order to learn node.js I have built a very simple guestbook app. There is basically just a comment form and a list of previous comments. Currently the app is client side only and the items are stored within local storage. What I want to do is send the items to node where I will save them using Mongo DB. The problem is I have not yet found a way to establish a connection to send data back and forth the client and node.js using POST requests. What I do now is add listeners to the request and wait for data I send: request.addListener('data', function(chunk) { console.log("Received POST data chunk '"+ chunk + "'."); }); On the client side I send the data using a simple AJAX request: $.ajax({ url: '/', type: 'post', dataType: 'json', data: 'test' }) This does not work at all in them moment. It could be that I don't know what url to place in the AJAX request 'url' parameter. Or the whole thing might just be the build using the wrong approach. I have also tried implementing the method described here, but also with no success. It would really help if anyone can share some tips on how to make this work (sending POST request from the client side to node and back) or share any good tutorials. thanks.

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• JS encodeURIComponent result different from the one created by FORM

  - by Marco Demaio

  I thought values entered in forms are properly encoded by browsers. But this simple test shows it's not true: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=windows-1252"> <title></title> </head><body> <form id="test" action="test_get_vs_encodeuri.html" method="GET" onsubmit="alert(encodeURIComponent(this.one.value));"> <input name="one" type="text" value="Euro-€"> <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT"> </form> </body></html> When hitting submit button: encodeURICompenent encodes input value into "Euro-%E2%82%AC" while browser into the GET query writes only a simple "Euro-%80" Could somone explain? Or is encodeURIComponent doing unnecessary conversions?

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• Should this even be a has_many :through association?

  - by GoodGets

  A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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• Make seems to think a prerequisite is an intermediate file, removes it

  - by James

  For starters, this exercise in GNU make was admittedly just that: an exercise rather than a practicality, since a simple bash script would have sufficed. However, it brought up interesting behavior I don't quite understand. I've written a seemingly simple Makefile to handle generation of SSL key/cert pairs as necessary for MySQL. My goal was for make <name> to result in <name>-key.pem, <name>-cert.pem, and any other necessary files (specifically, the CA pair if any of it is missing or needs updating, which leads into another interesting follow-up exercise of handling reverse deps to reissue any certs that had been signed by a missing/updated CA cert). After executing all rules as expected, make seems to be too aggressive at identifying intermediate files for removal; it removes a file I thought would be "safe" since it should have been generated as a prereq to the main rule I'm invoking. (Humbly translated, I likely have misinterpreted make's documented behavior to suit my expectation, but don't understand how. ;-) Edited (thanks, Chris!) Adding %-cert.pem to .PRECIOUS does, of course, prevent the deletion. (I had been using the wrong syntax.) Makefile: OPENSSL = /usr/bin/openssl # Corrected, thanks Chris! .PHONY: clean default: ca clean: rm -I *.pem %: %-key.pem %-cert.pem @# Placeholder (to make this implicit create a rule and not cancel one) Makefile: @# Prevent the catch-all from matching Makefile ca-cert.pem: ca-key.pem $(OPENSSL) req -new -x509 -nodes -days 1000 -key ca-key.pem $@ %-key.pem: $(OPENSSL) genrsa 2048 $@ %-cert.pem: %-csr.pem ca-cert.pem ca-key.pem $(OPENSSL) x509 -req -in $ $@ Output: $ make host1 /usr/bin/openssl genrsa 2048 ca-key.pem /usr/bin/openssl req -new -x509 -nodes -days 1000 -key ca-key.pem ca-cert.pem /usr/bin/openssl genrsa 2048 host1-key.pem /usr/bin/openssl req -new -days 1000 -nodes -key host1-key.pem host1-csr.pem /usr/bin/openssl x509 -req -in host1-csr.pem -days 1000 -CA ca-cert.pem -CAkey ca-key.pem -set_serial 01 host1-cert.pem rm host1-csr.pem host1-cert.pem This is driving me crazy, and I'll happily try any suggestions and post results. If I'm just totally noobing out on this one, feel free to jibe away. You can't possibly hurt my feelings. :)

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

  - by Kevin Won

  This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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