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  • How to read/write high-resolution (24-bit, 8 channel) .wav files in Java?

    - by dB'
    I'm trying to write a Java application that manipulates high resolution .wav files. I'm having trouble importing the audio data, i.e. converting the .wav file into an array of doubles. When I use a standard approach an exception is thrown. AudioFileFormat as = AudioSystem.getAudioFileFormat(new File("orig.wav")); --> javax.sound.sampled.UnsupportedAudioFileException: file is not a supported file type Here's the file format info according to soxi: dB$ soxi orig.wav soxi WARN wav: wave header missing FmtExt chunk Input File : 'orig.wav' Channels : 8 Sample Rate : 96000 Precision : 24-bit Duration : 00:00:03.16 = 303526 samples ~ 237.13 CDDA sectors File Size : 9.71M Bit Rate : 24.6M Sample Encoding: 32-bit Floating Point PCM Can anyone suggest the simplest method for getting this audio into Java? I've tried using a few techniques. As stated above, I've experimented with the Java AudioSystem (on both Mac and Windows). I've also tried using Andrew Greensted's WavFile class, but this also fails (WavFileException: Compression Code 3 not supported). One workaround is to convert the audio to 16 bits using sox (with the -b 16 flag), but this is suboptimal since it increases the noise floor. Incidentally, I've noticed that the file CAN be read by libsndfile. Is my best bet to write a jni wrapper around libsndfile, or can you suggest something quicker? Note that I don't need to play the audio, I just need to analyze it, manipulate it, and then write it out to a new .wav file. * UPDATE * I solved this problem by modifying Andrew Greensted's WavFile class. His original version only read files encoded as integer values ("format code 1"); my files were encoded as floats ("format code 3"), and that's what was causing the problem. I'll post the modified version of Greensted's code when I get a chance. In the meantime, if anyone wants it, send me a message.

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  • android python full integration

    - by Grzegorz Oledzki
    Is there a way to fully integrate Python with Java code on Android platform? Yes, I saw the question about running Python on Android and Android Scripting Environment (ASE). But that doesn't seem to be enough (correct me if I am wrong). I wanted to be able not only to invoke a Python script from within Java code, but have a full integration. The feature I need the most is the ability to have a state of execution of python code saved and be able to run several parts of code on demand against the same execution state. On JavaSE I would rely on Jython. I believe its simplest example shows it all (and some other features too, like something I would call variable state introspection): http://www.jython.org/archive/21/docs/embedding.html PythonInterpreter interp = new PythonInterpreter(); System.out.println("Hello, brave new world"); interp.exec("import sys"); interp.exec("print sys"); interp.set("a", new PyInteger(42)); interp.exec("print a"); interp.exec("x = 2+2"); PyObject x = interp.get("x"); System.out.println("x: "+x); System.out.println("Goodbye, cruel world"); Is it possible on Android? Is ASE a way to go?

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  • Proper Usage of SqlConnection in .NET

    - by Jojo
    Hi guys, I just want an opinion on the proper usage or a proper design with regards to using SqlConnection object. Which of the 2 below is the best use: A data provider class whose methods (each of them) contain SqlConnection object (and disposed when done). Like: IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } or SqlConnection connection; // initialized in constructor IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Or is there a better approach than this? I have a focused web crawler type of application and this application will crawl 50 or more websites simultaneously (multithreaded) with each website contained in a crawler object and each crawler object has an instance of a data provider class (above). Please advise. Thanks.

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  • Getting Started with Ruby & Ruby on Rails

    - by JakeTheSnake
    Some background: I'm a jack-of-all traits, one of which is programming. I learned VB6 through Excel and PHP for creating websites and so far it's worked out just fine for me. I'm not CS major or even mathematically inclined - logic is what interests me. Current status: I'm willing to learn new and more powerful languages; my first foray into such a route is learning Ruby. I went to the main Ruby website and did the interactive intro. (by the way, I'm currently getting redirected to google.com when I try the link...it's happening to other websites as well...is my computer infected?) I liked what I learned and wanted to get started using Ruby to create websites. I downloaded InstantRails and installed it; everything so far has been fine - the program starts up just fine, and I can test some Ruby code in the console. However my troubles begin when I try and view a web page with Ruby code present. Lastly, my problem: As in PHP, I can browse to the .php file directly and through using PHP tags and some simple 'echo' statements I can be on my way in making dynamic web pages. However with the InstantRails app working, accessing a .rb or .rhtml page doesn't produce similar results. I made a simple text file named 'test.rb' and put basic HTML tags in there (html, head, body) and the Ruby tags <%= and % with some ruby code inside. The web page actually shows the tags and the code - as if it's all just plain HTML. I take it Ruby isn't parsing the page before it is displayed to the user, but this is where my lack of understanding of the Ruby environment stops me short. Where do I go from here?

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  • SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

    - by Stefan
    Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

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  • how to set SqlMapClient outside of spring xmls

    - by Omnipresent
    I have the following in my xml configurations. I would like to convert these to my code because I am doing some unit/integration testing outside of the container. xmls: <bean id="MyMapClient" class="org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientFactoryBean"> <property name="configLocation" value="classpath:sql-map-config-oracle.xml"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="IbatisDataSourceOracle"/> </bean> <bean id="IbatisDataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/my/mydb"/> </bean> code I used to fetch stuff from above xmls: this.setSqlMapClient((SqlMapClient)ApplicationInitializer.getApplicationContext().getBean("MyMapClient")); my code (for unit testing purposes): SqlMapClientFactoryBean bean = new SqlMapClientFactoryBean(); UrlResource urlrc = new UrlResource("file:/data/config.xml"); bean.setConfigLocation(urlrc); DriverManagerDataSource dataSource = new DriverManagerDataSource(); dataSource.setDriverClassName("oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver"); dataSource.setUrl("jdbc:oracle:thin:@123.210.85.56:1522:ORCL"); dataSource.setUsername("dbo_mine"); dataSource.setPassword("dbo_mypwd"); bean.setDataSource(dataSource); SqlMapClient sql = (SqlMapClient) bean; //code fails here when the xml's are used then SqlMapClient is the class that sets up then how come I cant convert SqlMapClientFactoryBean to SqlMapClient

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  • How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

    - by anonim.developer
    Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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  • Object suddenly missing from HttpServletRequest

    - by Jeune
    I print a list directly in the servlet using the print writer and the list prints. When I try to put in the jsp however the list doesn't print whether I use JSTL or scriptlets. I tried to test in JSTL and scriptlet if the object is null and turns out that it is! Why does this happen and how can I fix this? Servlet code that works for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } Servlet code that puts object in the request public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("com/helloworld/beans/helloworld-context.xml"); ArtistDao artistDao = (ArtistDao) ctx.getBean("artistDao"); List<Artist> artists = null; try { artists = artistDao.getAll(); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } req.setAttribute("artists", artists); try { req.getRequestDispatcher("index.jsp").forward(req, resp); } catch (ServletException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } scriptlet code that suddenly finds the object null <% List<Artist> artists = (List<Artist>) request.getAttribute("artists"); if (artists == null) { out.println("artists null"); } else { for (Artist artist: artists){ out.println(artist.getName()); } } %> Even the jstl code seems to agree <c:if test="${artists eq null}"> Artists are null </c:if> <c:forEach var="artist" items="${artists}"> ${artist.name} </c:forEach> For my app I am using weblogic, spring 2.5.6 and ibatis.

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  • Uploading XML with NSInputStream Iphone....

    - by Aks
    Hi, I have to upload XML string to server & the Web service expect it in body stream part of the http request. So i am allocating the NSInputstream instance with xml data & then setting it the part of the http string but it uploading the stream body NULL & in my code if check the Stream status, it gives error & size null, Could you let me know how to get it done , also pasting the code. Code: NSInputStream* stream = [[[NSInputStream alloc]initWithData:streamData]retain]; request=[NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:nss_url]]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [message length]]; [request addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request addValue: @"http://www.XYZ.COM/ACL" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [request addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPBodyStream:[NSInputStream inputStreamWithData:streamData]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSLog(@"The input stream is %@ & error is %@",[stream streamStatus],[stream streamError]); Its gives: The input stream is (null) & error is Error Domain=NSUnknownErrorDomain Code=0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSUnknownErrorDomain error 0.)" Any inputs what I am missing ..........

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • TransactionScope Prematurely Completed

    - by Chris
    I have a block of code that runs within a TransactionScope and within this block of code I make several calls to the DB. Selects, Updates, Creates, and Deletes, the whole gamut. When I execute my delete I execute it using an extension method of the SqlCommand that will automatically resubmit the query if it deadlocks as this query could potentially hit a deadlock. I believe the problem occurs when a deadlock is hit and the function tries to resubmit the query. This is the error I receive: The transaction associated with the current connection has completed but has not been disposed. The transaction must be disposed before the connection can be used to execute SQL statements. This is the simple code that executes the query (all of the code below executes within the using of the TransactionScope): using (sqlCommand.Connection = new SqlConnection(ConnectionStrings.App)) { sqlCommand.Connection.Open(); sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQueryWithDeadlockHandling(); } Here is the extension method that resubmits the deadlocked query: public static class SqlCommandExtender { private const int DEADLOCK_ERROR = 1205; private const int MAXIMUM_DEADLOCK_RETRIES = 5; private const int SLEEP_INCREMENT = 100; public static void ExecuteNonQueryWithDeadlockHandling(this SqlCommand sqlCommand) { int count = 0; SqlException deadlockException = null; do { if (count > 0) Thread.Sleep(count * SLEEP_INCREMENT); deadlockException = ExecuteNonQuery(sqlCommand); count++; } while (deadlockException != null && count < MAXIMUM_DEADLOCK_RETRIES); if (deadlockException != null) throw deadlockException; } private static SqlException ExecuteNonQuery(SqlCommand sqlCommand) { try { sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (SqlException exception) { if (exception.Number == DEADLOCK_ERROR) return exception; throw; } return null; } } The error occurs on the line that executes the nonquery: sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery();

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

    - by Boydski
    I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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  • How to use Struts 2 with JFreeChart?

    - by Pere
    Firstly, I went here ( http://code.google.com/p/struts2-examples/downloads/list and I downloaded Hello_World_Struts2_Mvn.zip) and I run that example. After that, I went here (http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/jfreechart-plugin.html), I add the dependencies for commons-lang-2.5.jar, jcommon-1.0.16.jar and jfreechart-1.0.13.jar and I modify the example downloaded from code.google.com to see how JFreeChart is working, but I receive this error: Unable to load configuration. - action - file:/C:/.../untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: Error building results for action createChart in namespace - action - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: There is no result type defined for type 'chart' mapped with name 'success'. Did you mean 'chart'? - result - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:36:49 At the line 36 in struts.xml is the this code (the code from struts2 website): <action name="viewModerationChart" class="myapp.actions.ViewModerationChartAction"> <result name="success" type="chart"> <param name="width">400</param> <param name="height">300</param> </result> </action> What I'm doing wrong?

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  • segfault during __cxa_allocate_exception in SWIG wrapped library

    - by lefticus
    While developing a SWIG wrapped C++ library for Ruby, we came across an unexplained crash during exception handling inside the C++ code. I'm not sure of the specific circumstances to recreate the issue, but it happened first during a call to std::uncaught_exception, then after a some code changes, moved to __cxa_allocate_exception during exception construction. Neither GDB nor valgrind provided any insight into the cause of the crash. I've found several references to similar problems, including: http://wiki.fifengine.de/Segfault_in_cxa_allocate_exception http://forums.fifengine.de/index.php?topic=30.0 http://code.google.com/p/osgswig/issues/detail?id=17 https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/libavg/+bug/241808 The overriding theme seems to be a combination of circumstances: A C application is linked to more than one C++ library More than one version of libstdc++ was used during compilation Generally the second version of C++ used comes from a binary-only implementation of libGL The problem does not occur when linking your library with a C++ application, only with a C application The "solution" is to explicitly link your library with libstdc++ and possibly also with libGL, forcing the order of linking. After trying many combinations with my code, the only solution that I found that works is the LD_PRELOAD="libGL.so libstdc++.so.6" ruby scriptname option. That is, none of the compile-time linking solutions made any difference. My understanding of the issue is that the C++ runtime is not being properly initialized. By forcing the order of linking you bootstrap the initialization process and it works. The problem occurs only with C applications calling C++ libraries because the C application is not itself linking to libstdc++ and is not initializing the C++ runtime. Because using SWIG (or boost::python) is a common way of calling a C++ library from a C application, that is why SWIG often comes up when researching the problem. Is anyone out there able to give more insight into this problem? Is there an actual solution or do only workarounds exist? Thanks.

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  • BN_hex2bn magically segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

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  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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  • How should a programmer go about getting started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript?

    - by Graphics Noob
    What is the shortest path between zero (ie no flash related development software on my computer or information about where to obtain it or get started) to running a "hello world" ActionScript? I'm hoping for an answer that gives step by step instructions about exactly what software is needed to get started, an example of some "hello world" code, and instructions for compiling and running the code. I've spent more time than I think should be necessary researching this question and not found much information. Hopefully this question will be found by programmers like me who want to get started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript (After my morning of researching I still don't even know what terminology to use so I'll just throw it all out there). ActionScript tutorials I've found are focused on programming concepts, ie logic, branching, OOP, etc, and some even have code examples to download, but not a single one I've found explains how to compile and run the code. They all seem to assume you have an IDE standing by but no knowledge of programming, exactly the opposite of the position I'm in. Here are the most related SO questions I've found: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/59083/what-is-adobe-flex-is-it-just-flash-ii http://stackoverflow.com/questions/554899/getting-started-with-flex-3-ui-actionscript-programming http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2123105/how-to-learn-flex

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  • Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

    - by user310291
    It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

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  • Dynamic memory inside a struct

    - by Maximilien
    Hello, I'm editing a piece of code, that is part of a big project, that uses "const's" to initialize a bunch of arrays. Because I want to parametrize these const's I have to adapt the code to use "malloc" in order to allocate the memory. Unfortunately there is a problem with structs: I'm not able to allocate dynamic memory in the struct itself. Doing it outside would cause to much modification of the original code. Here's a small example: int globalx,globaly; struct bigStruct{ struct subStruct{ double info1; double info2; bool valid; }; double data; //subStruct bar[globalx][globaly]; subStruct ** bar=(subStruct**)malloc(globalx*sizeof(subStruct*)); for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) bar[i]=(*subStruct)malloc(globaly*sizeof(subStruct)); }; int main(){ globalx=2; globaly=3; bigStruct foo; for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) for(int j=0;j<globaly;j++){ foo.bar[i][j].info1=i+j; foo.bar[i][j].info2=i*j; foo.bar[i][j].valid=(i==j); } return 0; } Note: in the program code I'm editing globalx and globaly were const's in a specified namespace. Now I removed the "const" so they can act as parameters that are set exactly once. Summarized: How can I properly allocate memory for the substruct inside the struct? Thank you very much! Max

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  • How to I pass parameters to Ruby/Python scripts from inside PHP?

    - by Roger
    Hi, everybody. I need to turn HTML into equivalent Markdown-structured text. From what I could discover, I have only two good choices: Python: Aaron Swartz's html2text.py Ruby: Singpolyma's html2markdown.rb As I am programming in PHP, I need to pass the HTML code, call the Ruby/Python Script and receive the output back. I started creating a simple test just to know if my server was configured to run both languages. PHP code: echo exec('./hi.rb'); Ruby code: #!/usr/bin/ruby puts "Hello World!" It worked fine and I am ready to go to the next step. Unfortunately, all I know is that the function is Ruby works like this: HTML2Markdown.new('<h1>HTMLcode</h1>').to_s I don't know how to make PHP pass the string (with the HTML code) to Ruby nor how to make the ruby script receive the variable and pass it back to PHP (after have parsed it into Markdown). Believe it or not: I know less of Python. A folk made a similar question here ("how to call ruby script from php?") but with no practical information to my case. Any help would be a joy - thanks. Rogério Madureira. atipico.com.br

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  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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  • Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

    - by Deukalion
    I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

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  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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