Search Results

Search found 31954 results on 1279 pages for 'dependency object'.

Page 624/1279 | < Previous Page | 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630 631  | Next Page >

  • Making Ninject Interceptors work with async methods

    - by captncraig
    I am starting to work with ninject interceptors to wrap some of my async code with various behaviors and am having some trouble getting everything working. Here is an interceptor I am working with: public class MyInterceptor : IInterceptor { public async void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { try { invocation.Proceed(); //check that method indeed returns Task await (Task) invocation.ReturnValue; RecordSuccess(); } catch (Exception) { RecordError(); invocation.ReturnValue = _defaultValue; throw; } } This appears to run properly in most normal cases. I am not sure if this will do what I expect. Although it appears to return control flow to the caller asynchronously, I am still a bit worried about the possibility that the proxy is unintentionally blocking a thread or something. That aside, I cannot get the exception handling working. For this test case: [Test] public void ExceptionThrown() { try { var interceptor = new MyInterceptor(DefaultValue); var invocation = new Mock<IInvocation>(); invocation.Setup(x => x.Proceed()).Throws<InvalidOperationException>(); interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object); } catch (Exception e) { } } I can see in the interceptor that the catch block is hit, but the catch block in my test is never hit from the rethrow. I am more confused because there is no proxy or anything here, just pretty simple mocks and objects. I also tried something like Task.Run(() => interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object)).Wait(); in my test, and still no change. The test passes happily, but the nUnit output does have the exception message. I imagine I am messing something up, and I don't quite understand what is going on as much as I think I do. Is there a better way to intercept an async method? What am I doing wrong with regards to exception handling?

    Read the article

  • VB6 ImageList Frm Code Generation

    - by DAC
    Note: This is probably a shot in the dark, and its purely out of curiosity that I'm asking. When using the ImageList control from the Microsoft Common Control lib (mscomctl.ocx) I have found that VB6 generates FRM code that doesn't resolve to real property/method names and I am curious as to how the resolution is made. An example of the generated FRM code is given below with an ImageList containing 3 images: Begin MSComctlLib.ImageList ImageList1 BackColor = -2147483643 ImageWidth = 100 ImageHeight = 45 MaskColor = 12632256 BeginProperty Images {2C247F25-8591-11D1-B16A-00C0F0283628} NumListImages = 3 BeginProperty ListImage1 {2C247F27-8591-11D1-B16A-00C0F0283628} Picture = "Form1.frx":0054 Key = "" EndProperty BeginProperty ListImage2 {2C247F27-8591-11D1-B16A-00C0F0283628} Picture = "Form1.frx":3562 Key = "" EndProperty BeginProperty ListImage3 {2C247F27-8591-11D1-B16A-00C0F0283628} Picture = "Form1.frx":6A70 Key = "" EndProperty EndProperty End From my experience, a BeginProperty tag typically means a compound property (an object) is being assigned to, such as the Font object of most controls, for example: Begin VB.Form Form1 Caption = "Form1" ClientHeight = 10950 ClientLeft = 60 ClientTop = 450 ClientWidth = 7215 BeginProperty Font Name = "MS Serif" Size = 8.25 Charset = 0 Weight = 400 Underline = 0 'False Italic = -1 'True Strikethrough = 0 'False EndProperty End Which can be easily seen to resolve to VB.Form.Font.<Property Name>. With ImageList, there is no property called Images. The GUID associated with property Images indicates type ListImages which implements interface IImages. This type makes sense, as the ImageList control has a property called ListImages which is of type IImages. Secondly, properties ListImage1, ListImage2 and ListImage3 don't exist on type IImages, but the GUID associated with these properties indicates type ListImage which implements interface IImage. This type also makes sense, as IImages is in fact a collection of IImage. What doesn't make sense to me is how VB6 makes these associations. How does VB6 know to make the association between the name Images - ListImages purely because of an associated type (provided by the GUID) - perhaps because it's the only property of that type? Secondly, how does it resolve ListImage1, ListImage2 and ListImage3 into additions to the collection IImages, and does it use the Add method? Or perhaps the ControlDefault property? Perhaps VB6 has specific knowledge of this control and no logical resolution exists?

    Read the article

  • Get Alfresco extension properties with OpenCMIS

    - by AJPerez
    I'm writing an OpenCMIS based application, which extracts some data from Alfresco 3.3. It works fine with standard CMIS properties such as cmis:name or cmis:contentStreamMimeType; however, I can't access Alfresco especific properties, which are present on the CMIS AtomPub feed as "Alfresco extensions": <cmisra:object> <cmis:properties> <cmis:propertyString propertyDefinitionId="cmis:name" displayName="Name" queryName="cmis:name"> <cmis:value>test document</cmis:value> </cmis:propertyString> <cmis:propertyString propertyDefinitionId="cmis:contentStreamMimeType" displayName="Content Stream MIME Type" queryName="cmis:contentStreamMimeType"> <cmis:value>text/html</cmis:value> </cmis:propertyString> ... <alf:aspects> ... <alf:properties> <cmis:propertyString propertyDefinitionId="cm:description" displayName="Description" queryName="cm:description"> <cmis:value>This is just a test document</cmis:value> </cmis:propertyString> </alf:properties> </alf:aspects> </cmis:properties> </cmisra:object> Is there any way in which I can get the value of cm:descripcion, with OpenCMIS? My guess is that I need to use the DocumentType interface instead of Document, and then call its getExtensions() method. But I don't know how to get an instance of DocumentType. Any help would be really appreciated. Regards Edit: altough Florian's answer already worked out for me, I've just realized that I can get these properties' values with CMIS SQL, too: select d.*, t.*, a.* from cmis:document d join cm:titled t on d.cmis:objectid = t.cmis:objectid join cm:author a on d.cmis:objectid = a.cmis:objectid where t.cm:description like ...

    Read the article

  • WCF/MSMQ Transport Security with Certificates

    - by user104295
    Hi there, my goal is to secure the communication between MSMQ Queue Managers – I don’t want unknown clients sending messages to my MSMQ server. I have spent many hours now trying to get Transport security working for the net.msmq binding in WCF, where MSMQ is in Workgroup mode and the client and server do not have Active Directory… so I’m using certificates. I have created a new X.509 certificate, called Kristan and put it into the “Trusted people” store on the server and into the My store of Current User of the client. The error I’m getting is: An error occurred while sending to the queue: Unrecognized error -1072824272 (0xc00e0030).Ensure that MSMQ is installed and running. If you are sending to a local queue, ensure the queue exists with the required access mode and authorization. Using smartsniff, I see that there’s no attempted connection with the remote MSMQ, however, it’s an error probably coming from the local queue manager. The stack trace is: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.MsmqOutputChannel.OnSend(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.OutputChannel.Send(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OutputChannelBinder.Send(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) The code:- EndpointAddress endpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(new Uri(endPointAddress)); NetMsmqBinding clientBinding = new NetMsmqBinding(); clientBinding.Security.Mode = NetMsmqSecurityMode.Transport; clientBinding.Security.Transport.MsmqAuthenticationMode = MsmqAuthenticationMode.Certificate; clientBinding.Security.Transport.MsmqProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.Sign; clientBinding.ExactlyOnce = false; clientBinding.UseActiveDirectory = false; // start new var channelFactory = new ChannelFactory<IAsyncImportApi>(clientBinding, endpointAddress); channelFactory.Credentials.ClientCertificate.SetCertificate("CN=Kristan", StoreLocation.CurrentUser, StoreName.My); The queue is flagged as ‘Authenticated’ on the server. I have checked the effect of this and if I turn off all security in the client send, then I get ‘Signature is invalid’ – which is understandable and shows that it’s definitely looking for a sig. Are there are special ports that I need to check are open for cert-based msmq auth? thanks Kris

    Read the article

  • How to mass insert/update in linq to sql?

    - by chobo2
    Hi How can I do these 2 scenarios. Currently I am doing something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record // save record ( dbcontext.submitChanges() } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) // dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } So now I am trying to load an XML file what has tons of records. First I validate the records one at a time. I then want to insert them into the database but instead of doing submitChanges() after each record I want to do a mass submit at the end. So I have something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) } public void SaveToDb() { dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } Then in my service layer I would do like for(int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { validate(); if(valid == true) { update(); insert() } } SaveToDb(); So pretend my for loop is has a count for all the record found in the xml file. I first validate it. If valid then I have to update a table before I insert the record. I then insert the record. After that I want to save everything in one go. I am not sure if I can do a mass save when updating of if that has to be after every time or what. But I thought it would work for sure for the insert one. Nothing seems to crash and I am not sure how to check if the records are being added to the dbcontext.

    Read the article

  • Binding a TreeView with ContextMenu in Xaml

    - by Michael Stoll
    I'm pretty new to Xaml and need some advise. A TreeView should be bound to a hierarchical object structure. The TreeView should have a context menu, which is specific for each object type. I've tried the following: <TreeView> <TreeView.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="RoomTemplate"> <TreeViewItem Header="{Binding Name}"> <TreeViewItem.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Open" /> <MenuItem Header="Remove" /> </ContextMenu> </TreeViewItem.ContextMenu> </TreeViewItem> </DataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> <TreeViewItem Header="{Binding Name}" Name="tviRoot" IsExpanded="True" > <TreeViewItem Header="Rooms" ItemsSource="{Binding Rooms}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource RoomTemplate}"> <TreeViewItem.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Add room"></MenuItem> </ContextMenu> </TreeViewItem.ContextMenu> </TreeViewItem> </TreeViewItem> But with this markup the behavior is as intended, but the child items (the rooms) are indented too much. Anyway all the bining samples I could find use TextBlock instead of TreeViewItem in the DataTemplate, but wonder how to integrate the ContextMenu there.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically loaded control - how can I access a value in Page_Init

    - by Sam
    I am loading a LinkButton dynamically when a user clicks on another LinkButton. I am attaching an event handler to it. When the user clicks on the dynamically loaded LinkButton, the event does not fire. From what I've been reading, I understand this is because when the page posts back the dynamically loaded control no longer exists. It looks like I'm supposed to make sure this control is recreated in Page_Init. The dynamically created LinkButton is dependedent on a value (Product ID). I need someway to access this value so I can properly create the control. ViewState is not accessible and I'm concerned if I use Session it could time out and then that wouldn't help. Any ideas? Also, I hardcoded a Product ID value just for testing, and that still did not cause the event to fire. Is there something else I need to do? protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { SetTabText(1, 1); } SetTabText calls SetActionLinks which creates the LinkButton: protected Panel SetActionLinks(int prodID, int tabID) { ... LinkButton lnkBtn = new LinkButton(); lnkBtn.ID = "lnkBtn" + rand.Next().ToString(); lnkBtn.CommandName = "action"; lnkBtn.Command += new CommandEventHandler(this.lnkAction_Command); panel.Controls.Add(lnkBtn); ... } void lnkAction_Command(object sender, CommandEventArgs e) { LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)sender; switch (btn.CommandArgument) { AddCart(); } }

    Read the article

  • Maven deploy:deploy-file not found due to version/timestamp appended to jar

    - by JamesC
    I'm having a problem using deploy:deploy-file with snapshots I'd like some advice on please. I have 2 projects; 1) Ant based and 2) the other Maven based that consumes the jars of the other project via Archiva. I've added a target to the Ant project to deploy snapshots on every successful build during our iteration. The problem is the Maven project cannot find them because the name of the dependency has a timestamp appended like so: someJar-1.0-20100407.171211-1.jar Here is the Ant target: <exec executable="${maven.bin}" dir="../lib"> <arg value="deploy:deploy-file" /> <arg value="-DgroupId=com.my.package" /><arg value="-DartifactId=${ant.project.name}" /> <arg value="-Dversion=${manifest.implementation.version}-SNAPSHOT" /> <arg value="-Dpackaging=jar" /> <arg value="-Dfile=../lib/${ant.project.name}-${manifest.implementation.version}-SNAPSHOT.jar" /> <arg value="-Durl=http://archiva.xxx.com/archiva/repository/snapshots" /> <arg value="-DrepositoryId=snapshots" /> </exec> I have a similar Ant target for releases and this works fine. Other pure Maven projects which deploy snapshosts via mvn deploy work fine. Does anyone know where I am going wrong? Thank You Update Figured out the answer, see below.

    Read the article

  • How to call a .NET Webservice from Android using KSOAP2?

    - by Rajapandian
    Hai to All,I have a problem while calling the webservice,i have a .NET web service in the server and i am using KSOAP2(ksoap2-j2se-full-2.1.2) in android.While running the program i got an runtime Exception like "org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapPrimitive". I dont know what to do.Here is my code. package projects.ksoap2sample; import org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapObject; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE; import android.app.*; import android.os.*; import android.widget.TextView; public class ksoap2sample extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://tempuri.org/HelloWorld"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "HelloWorld"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://tempuri.org/"; private static final String URL = "http://192.168.1.19/TestWeb/WebService.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.text1); try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); //request.addProperty("prop1", "myprop"); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); String[] results = (String[]) result; tv.setText( ""+results[0]); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } } } May be my code is wrong.please help me. Regards Rajapandian

    Read the article

  • How to best transfer large payloads of data using wsHttp with WCF with message security

    - by jpierson
    I have a case where I need to transfer large amounts of serialized object graphs (via NetDataContractSerializer) using WCF using wsHttp. I'm using message security and would like to continue to do so. Using this setup I would like to transfer serialized object graph which can sometimes approach around 300MB or so but when I try to do so I've started seeing a exception of type System.InsufficientMemoryException appear. After a little research it appears that by default in WCF that a result to a service call is contained within a single message by default which contains the serialized data and this data is buffered by default on the server until the whole message is completely written. Thus the memory exception is being caused by the fact that the server is running out of memory resources that it is allowed to allocate because that buffer is full. The two main recommendations that I've come across are to use streaming or chunking to solve this problem however it is not clear to me what that involves and whether either solution is possible with my current setup (wsHttp/NetDataContractSerializer/Message Security). So far I understand that to use streaming message security would not work because message encryption and decryption need to work on the whole set of data and not a partial message. Chunking however sounds like it might be possible however it is not clear to me how it would be done with the other constraints that I've listed. If anybody could offer some guidance on what solutions are available and how to go about implementing it I would greatly appreciate it. Related resources: Chunking Channel How to: Enable Streaming Large attachments over WCF Custom Message Encoder Another spotting of InsufficientMemoryException I'm also interested in any type of compression that could be done on this data but it looks like I would probably be best off doing this at the transport level once I can transition into .NET 4.0 so that the client will automatically support the gzip headers if I understand this properly.

    Read the article

  • How can i handle a form submit using REAL OOP in PHP

    - by Lorence
    Im used to java and creating UML.. and i was wondering how can PHP be OOP, the objects live only until you make a request.. then they destroy, so if im using a database is useless to create a class and add the members (variables) to the class, they will be useless.. i cant pass the main system object from one page to another, or similar so how can PHP be compare to jave? you never do OOP .. i mean REAL OOP.. not creating classes , in fact your index will be a procedural file with some object instance and then ? how about if i make a html form and i want to submit the data.. i have to call a file which is not a class is a php procedural file were i grab the submited data with POST, from that file you will instance a class and do some logic there.. but for me thats not pure OOP.. can somebody point me to the right way of OOP using a form submit example ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Pause code execution until UIAlertView button is pressed?

    - by JuBu1324
    One of my methods sends a message to an object (what do you know about that), and expects a BOOL for an answer. However, BOOL answer it is expecting is based on the answer to a UIAlertView created in the receiving object's method. However, the code doesn't pause while waiting for the user to answer the UIAlertView. My problem is: how do I use -alertView:clickedButtonAtIndex in the method's return value? Here's the code the message runs (in this construction, I was expecting navigateAwayFromTab to change based on the user input in the UIAlertView, but it never gets a chance): - (BOOL)readyToNavigateAwayFromTab { NSLog( @"message received by Medical View"); navigateAwayFromTab = NO; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Navigate Away From Tab?" message:@"Navigating away from this tab will save your work." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" otherButtonTitles:@"OK", nil ]; [alert show]; [alert release]; return navigateAwayFromTab; } #define CANCEL 0 #define OK 1 - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if( buttonIndex == OK ) navigateAwayFromTab = YES; } I've been reading up on the modal UIAlertView debate, and I agree with apple's implementation - at lest as the rule. However, in this case I don't see any way of solving the problem by putting code in -alertView:clickedButtonAtIndex because I don't need to run code based on the UIAlertView, I just need to read the response. Any suggestions on how I can reach my gaol? I've tried a while loop after [alert show] already, but then the alert doesn't even show then, and for a number of reasons I can't use -viewWillDisapear.

    Read the article

  • should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

    - by user110182
    I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

    Read the article

  • should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

    - by user110182
    I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

    Read the article

  • Swig typecast to derived class?

    - by Zack
    I notice that Swig provides a whole host of functions to allow for typecasting objects to their parent classes. However, in C++ one can produce a function like the following: A * getAnObject() { if(someBoolean) return (A *) new B; else return (A *) new C; } Where "A" is the parent of classes "B" and "C". One can then typecast the pointer returned into being a "B" type or "C" type at one's convenience like: B * some_var = (B *) getAnObject(); Is there some way I can typecast an object I've received from a generic-pointer-producing function at run-time in the scripting language using the wrappers? (In my case, Lua?) I have a function that could produce one of about a hundred possible classes, and I'd like to avoid writing an enormous switch structure that I'd have to maintain in C++. At the point where I receive the generic pointer, I also have a string representation of the data type I'd like to cast it to. Any thoughts? Thanks! -- EDIT -- I notice that SWIG offers to generate copy constructors for all of my classes. If I had it generate those, could I do something like the following?: var = myModule.getAnObject(); -- Function that returns an object type-cast down to a pointer of the parent class, as in the function getAnObject() above. var = myModule.ClassThatExtendsBaseClass(var); -- A copy constructor that SWIG theoretically creates for me and have var then be an instance of the inheriting class that knows it's an instance of the inheriting class?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate DuplicateMappingException when mapping abstract class and subclass

    - by stiank81
    I have an abstract class, and subclasses of this, and I want to map this to my database using NHibernate. I'm using Fluent, and read on the wiki how to do the mapping. But when I add the mapping of the subclass an NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException is thrown when it is mapping. Why? Here are my (simplified) classes: public abstract class FieldValue { public int Id { get; set; } public abstract object Value { get; set; } } public class StringFieldValue : FieldValue { public string ValueAsString { get; set; } public override object Value { get { return ValueAsString; } set { ValueAsString = (string)value; } } } And the mappings: public class FieldValueMapping : ClassMap<FieldValue> { public FieldValueMapping() { Id(m => m.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1"); // DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("type"); } } public class StringValueMapping : SubclassMap<StringFieldValue> { public StringValueMapping() { Map(m => m.ValueAsString).Length(100); } } And the exception: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping NamespacePath.StringFieldValue Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Creating a drop-down row in displaytag

    - by bphilipnyc
    I am currently using displaytag for tabular data, but would like to create a "kayak.com-like" interface where when a user clicks a row, the user is shown more details about the particular row without a page refresh. I tried using a decorator to return javascript that would do this. The javascript is executed, but it is only reflected in the column where it was rendered. I am looking to create a new row with the data. e.g.: public class CustomDecorator extends TableDecorator { public String getDetailsRow() { MyObject object = (MyObject)this.getCurrentRowObject(); return "<a onClick=\"myjsfunction(object.getId()); return true\">Details</a>"; } } ...and in the JSP I would have a detailsRow property nested between the display:table tags: <display:column property="detailsRow" sortable="false" /> Any tips on how to create a new row? The solution may be in the way that the javascript is written - I'm not an expert with Javascript, so any tips would be appreciated. Is there a better way to do this with displaytag? I don't know of any explicit integration that displaytag has with javascript (like an "onclick" parameter) either. This is my first question on stackoverflow, btw - so please let me know whether you need more detail.

    Read the article

  • How do I achieve a 'select or insert' task using LINQ to EF?

    - by ProfK
    I have an import process with regions, locations, and shifts, where a Shift object has a Location property, and a Location object has a Region property. If a region name does not exist, I create the region, and like wise a location. I thought I could neatly encapsulate the 'Select if exists, or create' logic into helper classes for Region and Location, but if I use local data contexts in these classes I run into attach and detach overheads that become unpleasent. If I include a data context dependency in these classes, my encapsulation feels broken. What is the ideal method for achieving this, or where is the ideal place to place this functionality? In my example I have leaned heavily on the foreign key crutch provided with .NET 4.0, and simply avoided using entities in favour of direct foreign key values, but this is starting to smell. Example: public partial class ActivationLocation { public static int GetOrCreate(int regionId, string name) { using (var ents = new PvmmsEntities()) { var loc = ents.ActivationLocations.FirstOrDefault(x => x.RegionId == regionId && x.Name == name); if (loc == null) { loc = new ActivationLocation {RegionId = regionId, Name = name}; ents.AddToActivationLocations(loc); ents.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.AcceptAllChangesAfterSave); } return loc.LocationId; } } }

    Read the article

  • Database Change Management - Setup for Initial Create Scripts, Subsequent Migration Scripts

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    I've got a database change management workflow in place. It's based on SQL scripts (so, it's not a managed code-based solution). The basic setup looks like this: Initial/ Generate Initial Schema.sql Generate Initial Required Data.sql Generate Initial Test Data.sql Migration 0001_MigrationScriptForChangeOne.sql 0002_MigrationScriptForChangeTwo.sql ... The process to spin up a database is to then run all the Initlal scripts, and then run the sequential Migration scripts. A tool takes case of the versioning requirements, etc. My question is, in this kind of setup, is it useful to also maintain this: Current/ Stored Procedures/ dbo.MyStoredProcedureCreateScript.sql ... Tables/ dbo.MyTableCreateScript.sql ... ... By "this" I mean a directory of scripts (separated by object type) that represents the create scripts for spinning up the current/latest version of the database. For some reason, I really like the idea, but I can't concretely justify it's need. Am I missing something? The advantages would be: For dev and source control, we would have the same object-per-file setup that we're used to For deployment, we can spin up a new DB instance to the latest version either by running the Initial+Migrate, or by running the scripts from Current/ For dev, we do not need a DB instance running in order to do development. We can do "offline" development on the Current/ folder. The disadvantages would be: For each change, we need to update the scripts in the Current/ folder, as well as create a Migration script (in the Migration/ folder) Thanks in advance for any input!

    Read the article

  • MVVM Madness: Commands

    - by JP
    I like MVVM. I don't love it, but like it. Most of it makes sense. But, I keep reading articles that encourage you to write a lot of code so that you can write XAML and don't have to write any code in the code-behind. Let me give you an example. Recently I wanted to hookup a command in my ViewModel to a ListView MouseDoubleClickEvent. I wasn't quite sure how to do this. Fortunately, Google has answers for everything. I found the following articles: http://blog.functionalfun.net/2008/09/hooking-up-commands-to-events-in-wpf.html http://joyfulwpf.blogspot.com/2009/05/mvvm-invoking-command-on-attached-event.html http://sachabarber.net/?p=514 http://geekswithblogs.net/HouseOfBilz/archive/2009/08/27/adventures-in-mvvm-ndash-binding-commands-to-any-event.aspx http://marlongrech.wordpress.com/2008/12/13/attachedcommandbehavior-v2-aka-acb/ While the solutions were helpful in my understanding of commands, there were problems. Some of the aforementioned solutions rendered the WPF designer unusable because of a common hack of appending "Internal" after a dependency property; the WPF designer can't find it, but the CLR can. Some of the solutions didn't allow multiple commands to the same control. Some of the solutions didn't allow parameters. After experimenting for a few hours I just decided to do this: private void ListView_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ListView lv = sender as ListView; MyViewModel vm = this.DataContext as MyViewModel; vm.DoSomethingCommand.Execute(lv.SelectedItem); } So, MVVM purists, please tell me what's wrong with this? I can still Unit test my command. This seems very practical, but seems to violate the guideline of "ZOMG... you have code in your code-behind!!!!" Please share your thoughts. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do you handle 'SelectedItemChanged' events in a MVVM ViewModel?

    - by Travis
    I have some logic that depends upon two properties being set, as it executes when both properties have a value. For example: private void DoCalc() { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property2)) return; Property3 = Property1 + " " + Property2; } That code would need to be executed every time Property1 or Property2 changed, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it in a stylistically acceptable manner. Here are the choices as I see them: 1) Call method from ViewModel I don't have a problem with this conceptually, as the logic is still in the ViewModel - I'm not a 'No code-behind' nazi. However, the 'trigger' logic (when either property changes) is still in the UI layer, which I don't love. The codebehind would look like this: void ComboBox_Property1_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.DoCalc(); } 2) Call method from Property Setter This approach seems the most 'pure', but it also seems ugly, as if the logic is hidden. It would look like this: public string Property1 { get {return property1;} set { if (property1 != value) { property1 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("Property1"); DoCalc(); } } } 3) Hook into the PropertyChanged event I'm now thinking this might be the right approach, but it feels weird to hook into the property changed event in the implementing viewmodel. It would look something like this: public ViewModel() { this.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(ViewModel_PropertyChanged); } void ViewModel_PropertyChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.PropertyName == "Property1" || e.PropertyName == "Property2") { DoCalc(); } } So, my question is, if you were browsing through some source code with that requirement, which approach would you prefer to see implemented (and why?). Thanks for any input.

    Read the article

  • Trouble using ‘this.files’ in GruntJS Tasks

    - by whomba
    Background: So I’m new to writing grunt tasks, so hopefully this isn’t a stupid question. Purpose of my grunt task: Given a file (html / jsp / php / etc) search all the link / script tags, compare the href / src to a key, and replace with the contents of the file. Proposed task configuration: myTask:{ index:{ files:{src:"test/testcode/index.html", dest:"test/testcode/index.html"}, css:[ { file: "/css/some/css/file.css", fileToReplace:"/target/css/file.css" }, { file: "/css/some/css/file2.css", fileToReplace:"/target/css/file2.css" } ], js:[ { file: "/css/some/css/file.css", fileToReplace:”/target/css/file.css" }, { file: "/css/some/css/file2.css", fileToReplace:"/target/css/file2.css" } ] } } Problem: Now, per my understanding, when dealing with files, you should reference the ‘this.files’ object because it handles a bunch of nice things for you, correct? Using intelliJ and the debugger, I see the following when i watch the ‘this.files’ object: http://i.imgur.com/Gj6iANo.png What I would expect to see is src and dest to be the same, not dest ===‘src’ and src === undefined. So, What is it that I am missing? Is there some documentation on ‘this.files’ I can read about? I’ve tried setting the files attribute in the target to a number of other formats per grunts spec, none seem to work (for this script, ideally the src / dest would be the same, so the user would just have to enter it once, but i’m not even getting in to that right now.) Thanks for the help

    Read the article

  • Problem converting a byte array into datatable.

    - by kranthi
    Hi, In my aspx page I have a HTML inputfile type which allows user to browse for a spreadsheet.Once the user choses the file to upload I want to read the content of the spreadsheet and store the content into mysql database table. I am using the following code to read the content of the uploaded file and convert it into a datatable in order into insert it into database table. if (filMyFile.PostedFile != null) { // Get a reference to PostedFile object HttpPostedFile myFile = filMyFile.PostedFile; // Get size of uploaded file int nFileLen = myFile.ContentLength; // make sure the size of the file is > 0 if (nFileLen > 0) { // Allocate a buffer for reading of the file byte[] myData = new byte[nFileLen]; // Read uploaded file from the Stream myFile.InputStream.Read(myData, 0, nFileLen); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); MemoryStream st = new MemoryStream(myData); st.Position = 0; System.Runtime.Serialization.IFormatter formatter = new System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter(); dt=(DataTable)formatter.Deserialize(st); } } But I am getting the following error when I am trying to deserialise the byte array into datatable. Binary stream '0' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or object version change between serialization and deserialization. Could someone please tell me what am I doing wrong? I've also tried converting the bytearray into string ,then converting the string back to byte array and convert into datatable.That is also throwing the same error. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I get PowerShell Added-Types to use Added Types

    - by Scott Weinstein
    I'm working on a PoSh project that generates CSharp code, and then Add-Types it into memory. The new types use existing types in an on disk DLL, which is loaded via Add-Type. All is well and good untill I actualy try to invoke methods on the new types. Here's an example of what I'm doing: $PWD = "." rm -Force $PWD\TestClassOne* $code = " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassOne { public int DoNothing() { return 1; } } }" $code | Out-File tcone.cs Add-Type -OutputAssembly $PWD\TestClassOne.dll -OutputType Library -Path $PWD\tcone.cs Add-Type -Path $PWD\TestClassOne.dll $a = New-Object TEST.TestClassOne "Using TestClassOne" $a.DoNothing() "Compiling TestClassTwo" Add-Type -Language CSharpVersion3 -TypeDefinition " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassTwo { public int CallTestClassOne() { var a = new TEST.TestClassOne(); return a.DoNothing(); } } }" -ReferencedAssemblies $PWD\TestClassOne.dll "OK" $b = New-Object TEST.TestClassTwo "Using TestClassTwo" $b.CallTestClassOne() Running the above script gives the following error on the last line: Exception calling "CallTestClassOne" with "0" argument(s): "Could not load file or assembly 'TestClassOne,...' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified." At AddTypeTest.ps1:39 char:20 + $b.CallTestClassOne <<<< () + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], MethodInvocationException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : DotNetMethodException What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Using a custom MvcHttpHandler v2.0 Breaking change from 1.0 to 2.0 ?

    - by Myster
    Hi I have a site where part is webforms (Umbraco CMS) and part is MVC This is the HttpHandler to deal with the MVC functionality: public class Mvc : MvcHttpHandler { protected override void ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) { httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "Begin ProcessRequest"); string originalPath = httpContext.Request.Path; string newPath = httpContext.Request.QueryString["mvcRoute"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(newPath)) newPath = "/"; httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "newPath = "+newPath ); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(newPath, false); base.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } } Full details of how this is implemented here This method works well in an MVC 1.0 website. However when I upgrade this site to MVC 2.0 following the steps in Microsoft's upgrade documentation; everything compiles, except at runtime I get this exception: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /mvc.ashx Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 This resource and it's dependencies are found fine in MVC 1.0 but not in MVC 2.0, is there an extra dependency I'd need to add? Is there something I'm missing? Is there a change in the way MVC 2.0 works?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630 631  | Next Page >