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  • Snapshotting single disk of running Hyper-V VM

    - by modelnine
    I'm currently somewhat at a loss of how to create a snapshot of a single virtual hard-disk of a running Hyper-V VM. Generally, creating a differential disk while a server is shut down is no problem (i.e., call the new-vhd cmdlet and pass a ParentPath, then update the VHD-binding of the respective VM-device), but while the host is running, all I can find is checkpointing the VM as a whole (which creates snapshots of all attached disks), and leaves the VM-state in a form which isn't easily processable by external tools (i.e., it requires reading additional meta-data from the VM). Generally, what'd I'd like to happen for a single-disk snapshot (in my understanding) is: Pause the VM Rename current disk to some other name which specifies it as a base-snapshot Create a new VHD which has the renamed VHD as parent path and is marked as "current" Swap the VHD for the VM for the snapshotted hard-disk to the newly created differential VHD Resume the VM Is there any means to do this programatically? Update: I've seen that this is actually possible with SCSI-disks, i.e. pause the VM, remove the SCSI disk, make the snapshot, reattach the SCSI disk at the same position, resume the VM. And, the VM resumes properly. But: is something similar also possible with G1 machines for the boot disk which is always IDE?

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  • Users are getting a temporary profile

    - by Serhiy
    A bit about current setup: It is windows 2008 R2 AD servers (all of them are 2008R2) and couple locations which set as Sites. Each location has DFS on AD server. Roaming profiles are not used nor configured. Users have their home folder configured as mapped S: drive to DFS shared folder. For example: in profile tab user has: Home Folder - connect - S: to \\domain.com\dc\users\%username% We also have redirected Desktop, Documents and Downloads folders to \\domain.com\dc\users. Everything was fine. Suddenly (today), users in most locations lost their local profile (both XP and W7 desktops) and got temporary profiles. Also, it looks like local profile was created today (from folder properties). I checked events at couple machines and there is not errors related to profiles or logon process. I do not see issues in event logs at servers as well. Basically, I run out of ideas what is wrong and why machines lost their local profiles. PS: Laptop users do not have their folders redirected, but lost profiles as well.

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  • SAFE MODE Restriction in effect. The script not allowed to access directory owned by uid

    - by user57221
    I am running a dedicated server with multiple websites. I have created a global directory for common scripts for all websites, rather than repeating them in every website directory. How can I make this global directory accessible for all website. I am getting following error. Warning: require_once() [function.require-once]: SAFE MODE Restriction in effect. The script whose uid is XXXX is not allowed to access /vhosts/globallibrary/Zend/Application.php owned by uid XXXX I have change the ownership of global directory for X website. so it works fine for X website. latter I added another website Y Now I am getting the same error again. If I change the CHOWN for Y website then X website will have the same error. I don't want to disable the safemode restriction. Is there a work around, so that this global dir will be accessible by all website. I am getting following error in my browser when I try to access global directory. Global directory is on same level as all other websites. Is this a good practice to enable safemode for websites?

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  • How to send reminder notifications to subscribers for renewal from SQL Server 2005?

    - by codemonkie
    I have a table in SQL DB, namely dbo.subscribers, it contains following columns: -SubscriberID -JoinDateTime The business logic says a subscription last for 2 weeks and a reminder should be sent after 7 days from the JoinDateTime. The way that the system was designed to send reminders are via a URL call, e.g. http://xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx/renew_userid=SubscriberID/ and that can only be called from our webserver which is the only whitelisted IP machines given. Currently there is a windows service written to query the DB once a day at midnight to grab all expiring subscribers and send them reminders, however this batch approach only sends reminders to the nearest date, well, I could have set the interval down from 1 day to 1 hour such that the service can send notifications out closer to the exact JoinDateTime + 7 days requirements. I have heard a stored procedure can be written and perform task like this to a nearly real-time manner, if yes, please give me some hints on how to do it. Another question is - is SSRS bit of an overkill to perform things like this? Please advice. TIA

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  • High availability virtual machines

    - by Jeremy
    I've been reading a lot about high availability virtualization, either via Hyper-V or VMWare. In that context, essentially high availabliity means that the VM is hosted by a closter of physical servers (nodes), so if one of the physical servers goes down, the VM can still be served by other physical servers. So far so good, the physical cluster and the VM itself are highly available. However if the service being provided, let's say SQL server, MSDTC, or any other service, are actually being provided by the VM image and the virtualized operating system. So I imagine that there is still a point of failure at the virtual layer that isn't accounted for. Something could happen within the virtual machine itself that the physican cluster can not account for, correct? In that instance the physican failover cluster (Hyper-V) or VMWare host, can not fail over, because the issue is not with one of the servers in the physical cluster - failing over a physical node would not do any good. Does this necessitate building a virtual failover cluster on top of the physical one, or is this not necessary? Alternatively, I suppose you could skip the phsyical clustering, and just cluster at the virtual layer (Child based failover clustering), because that should still survive a physical failure. See image below showing parent based (left), child based (right) and a combination (center). Is parent based as far as you need to go, or is child based more appropriate?

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  • IIS6 site using integrated authentication (NTLM) fails when accessed with Win7 / IE8

    - by Ciove
    Hi, I'm having pretty similar problems as described in case 139099, but the fix there doesn't seem to work for me. Here's the details: Server: Win2003Srv R2 SP2 (stadalone, not a member of a domain). IIS6, TCP/443 (https). Anonymous access disabled. Integrated Windows authentication enabled. Local useraccouts Each useraccount has own virtual folder with change access and read access to site root. The 'adsutil NTAuthenticationProviders "NTLM"' -thing set to site root and useraccount's virtual folder. Client: Win7 Enterprise Member of a AD-Domain IE8 Allows three login attepts then fails. Using [webservername][username] in the logon window (Windows security) Logon using other browsers (Chrome and Firefox) works OK. The Web services log shows one 401.2 and two 401.1 events. The Security Event log shows two events, first is Fauilure Audit (680), The second event is Fauilure Audit (529) with these details: Logon Failure: Reason: Unknown user name or bad password User Name: [username] Domain: [webservername] Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: [MyWorkstation] Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: [999.999.999.999] Source Port: 20089 Any ideas appreciated.

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  • Users getting 'flooded' with not read notifications (NRNs) for old emails and meeting requests

    - by Exile
    I'm being placed under quite a lot of pressure from senior management over a relatively trivial issue. Basically the vast majority of users are complaining that they receive not read notifications (NRNs) for old emails and meeting requests in large numbers multiple times a day. I know something strange is happening because some are delivered at silly times in the morning (i.e 3AM or 4AM). The problem I have is that these some of these NRNs are from meeting requests and messages that are 120 days old, so some users have deleted the original message so I don’t actually know if the NRN is from an email or meeting request. This is typical of what users receive as a NRN: From: Sender Sent: 23 March 2012 04:16 To: Recepient Subject: Not read: Accepted: Status update Your message To: Sender Subject: Accepted: Status update Sent: Wednesday, November 23, 2011 8:59:00 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London was deleted without being read on Friday, March 23, 2012 4:15:32 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London. ... From: Sender Sent: 18 March 2012 01:13 To: Recepient Subject: Not read: Gold delivery - Sourcing module Your message To: Sender Subject: Gold delivery - Sourcing module Sent: Friday, November 18, 2011 9:37:58 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London was deleted without being read on Sunday, March 18, 2012 1:12:37 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London. I have done a search and found the following: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2544246 http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2471964 But we already installed 'Update Rollup 6 for Exchange Server 2010 Service Pack 1' back in December, so I am not sure what we can do to fix this?

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  • Can I add a delay to sql server transactional replication ?

    - by Brann
    I've got transactional replication configured from a database called DBProd to another database called DBWarehouse ; everything works fine, and transaction are usually replicated instantaneously to the warehouse .... which is my problem. I'd like to add a slight delay to the replication (something like 10 minutes), so that the replicated database can be used to access a previous version of the database (in case a bug occurs for example) Is there a simple way to achieve this ?

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  • How do I set a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services Template to a Default Font?

    - by David Stein
    I'm creating a new template to create reports from at a later date. I know how to create one, and I know where to save it. However, the problem is this. Everything that is created on the report uses the default font of Arial with a size of 10pt. I need to set mine to default to Tahoma 11pt. I can create a mock title, mock tables, etc and save those to Tahoma 11pt, but any new controls that are used on any version of this report will default back to Arial 10pt. How do I fix this?

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  • Host couldn't be reached by domain name, only by IP: Apache's fault?

    - by MaxArt
    I have this Windows Server 2003 R2 32 bit machine running Apache 2.4.2 with OpenSSL 1.0.1c and PHP 5.4.5 via mod_fcgid 2.3.7. This config worked just fine for some hours, but then the site couldn't be reached with its domain name, say www.example.com, but it could be still reached by its IP address. In particular, while https://www.example.com/ yielded a connection error, http://123.1.2.3/ worked just fine. Yes, first https then http. Error and access logs were clean, i.e. they showed no signs of problems. Just the usual messages, that were interrupted while the site couldn't be reached. After some investigation, a simple restart of Apache solved the problem. Unfortunately, I didn't have the chance to test if https://123.1.2.3/ worked as well, or if http://www.example.com/ was still redirected to https as usual. So, has anyone have any idea of what happened? Before I get tired of Apache and ditch it in favor of Nginx? Edit: Some log informations. The last line of sslerror.log is from 90 minutes before the problem occurred, so I guess it's not important. ssl_request.log shows nothing interesting, too: these are the last two lines before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] x.x.x.x TLSv1.1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 1183 [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] y.y.y.y TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 73 The previous lines are all the same and don't seem interesting, except 4 lines like these 30-40 seconds before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] z.z.z.z TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "-" - These are the corrisponding lines from sslaccess.log: z.z.z.z - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] "-" 408 - ... x.x.x.x - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 200 1183 y.y.y.y - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 200 73

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  • How to find the source of a cryptic event viewer log

    - by mlsteeves
    I'm looking at the eventviewer logs, and I see a bunch Error entries in the Application log. (Windows Server 2008 R1). There is an error written to the logs about every 4 seconds. I need to find out which application is causing these events, is there anyway to find this out? Here is what each look like: Error 12/2/2010 12:00:09 PM Application 0 None The details for each error: Log Name: Application Source: Application Date: 12/2/2010 12:00:09 PM Event ID: 0 Task Category: None Level: Error Keywords: Classic User: N/A Computer: computer.domain Description: The description for Event ID 0 from source Application cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Event Xml: <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="Application" /> <EventID Qualifiers="0">0</EventID> <Level>2</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Keywords>0x80000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2010-12-02T20:00:09.000Z" /> <EventRecordID>237167</EventRecordID> <Channel>Application</Channel> <Computer>computer.domain</Computer> <Security /> </System> <EventData> <Binary>534F434B...</Binary> </EventData> </Event>

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  • Attempted hack on VPS, how to protect in future, what were they trying to do?

    - by Moin Zaman
    UPDATE: They're still here. Help me stop or trap them! Hi SF'ers, I've just had someone hack one of my clients sites. They managed to get to change a file so that the checkout page on the site writes payment information to a text file. Fortunately or unfortunately they stuffed up, the had a typo in the code, which broke the site so I came to know about it straight away. I have some inkling as to how they managed to do this: My website CMS has a File upload area where you can upload images and files to be used within the website. The uploads are limited to 2 folders. I found two suspicious files in these folders and on examining the contents it looks like these files allow the hacker to view the server's filesystem and upload their own files, modify files and even change registry keys?! I've deleted some files, and changed passwords and am in the process of trying to secure the CMS and limit file uploads by extensions. Anything else you guys can suggest I do to try and find out more details about how they got in and what else I can do to prevent this in future?

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  • DNS resolve .com domain on local domain

    - by Joost Verdaasdonk
    I'm building a local 2008 R2 domain as a test case to be able to write a roadmap for the real new domain that needs to be created soon. What I would like to know if I'm able to make a record in DNS that will point the domain name: www.example.com and example.com to one of the servers in my network. I tried creating an a-record for it but that doesn't work. To be honest I'm not even sure if this is possible? So can I do this? That way I would be able to fully test all our services (and webb app) offline before I build the real domain and switch the DNS records at the provider. Some advice if possible and where to start is appreciated. The solution (Thanks Brent): Create new Forward lookup zone pointing to example.com Create empty A record pointing to IP of the webserver you are targeting If www is needed create A record with Name: www and IP of your webserver sub domains repeat the process but then with names for example: sub or www.sub (and ip your webserver) Be aware of the DNS Cache while you are in this process. Things can take time or do the following: Right click the server and choose clear cache in CMD: ipconfig /flushdns (to flush the client cache)

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  • LAMP v/s WAMP in PHP

    - by Ajith
    I have a small server problem when working with LAMPP and WAMP server in PHP.I am using LAMPP server for local development and I need to host in WAMP server.When try to read an image from a dynamic created pdf file in LAMPP, it is working perfectly but, the same one not compact able with WAMP server.What will be the problem?Any additional feature need to configure in WAMP.Please help me to go forward.Please........

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  • Sql Server 2000 Stored Procedure Prevent Parallelism or something?

    - by user187305
    I have a huge disgusting stored procedure that wasn't slow a couple months ago, but now is. I barely know what this thing does and I am in no way interested in rewriting it. I do know that if I take the body of the stored procedure and then declare/set the values of the parameters and run it in query analyzer that it runs more than 20x faster. From the internet, I've read that this is probably due to a bad cached query plan. So, I've tried running the sp with "WITH RECOMPILE" after the EXEC and I've also tried putting the "WITH RECOMPLE" inside the sp, but neither of those helped even a little bit. When I look at the execution plan of the sp vs the query, the biggest difference is that the sp has "Parallelism" operations all over the place and the query doesn't have any. Can this be the cause of the difference in speeds? Thank you, any ideas would be great... I'm stuck.

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  • SQL Server / T-SQL : How to update equal percentages of a resultset?

    - by Kent Comeaux
    I need a way to take a resultset of KeyIDs and divide it up as equally as possible and update records differently for each division based on the KeyIDs. In other words, there is SELECT KeyID FROM TableA WHERE (some criteria exists) I want to update TableA 3 different ways by 3 equal portions of KeyIDs. UPDATE TableA SET FieldA = Value1 WHERE KeyID IN (the first 1/3 of the SELECT resultset above) UPDATE TableA SET FieldA = Value2 WHERE KeyID IN (the second 1/3 of the SELECT resultset above) UPDATE TableA SET FieldA = Value3 WHERE KeyID IN (the third 1/3 of the SELECT resultset above) or something to that effect. Thanks for any and all of your responses.

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  • Copy Database Wizard fails on creation of view into another not-yet-copied database

    - by user22037
    Update - I found that doing a manual detach/reattach using MSDN article "How to: Move a Database Using Detach and Attach (Transact-SQL)" got around this issue. I'll just be creating a script to dettach and reattach but do the file copies manually. Any info on how to overcome the problems with the wizard would be helpful in the future. I am in the process of moving around 20 databases from our current server to a new one. When performing the copies however I have found that some databases can not copy if they have views into other databases that have not yet been copied to the target system. The log file generated says "failed with the following error: "Invalid object name" in reference to the database in the view. If I first copy just the database referenced in the view and then in a separate step copy the database over containing the view it is successful. However some other database have views into each other so can't just adjust the order in which the copy occurs. Is there any way to ignore this error and just allow everything to copy?

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  • How does DATEDIFF calculate week differences in SQL Server 2005?

    - by eksortso
    I would like to calculate the difference in weeks between two dates, where two dates are considered part of the same week if their preceding Sunday is the same. Ideally, I'd like to do this using DATEDIFF, instead of learning an elaborate idiom to calculate the value. But I can't tell how it works when weeks are involved. The following query returns 1 and 2. This might make sense if your calendar week begins with a Sunday, i.e. if you run SET DATEFIRST 7 beforehand or if @@DATEFIRST is 7 by default. SET DATEFIRST 7; -- SET DATEFIRST 1; DECLARE @d1 DATETIME, @d2a DATETIME, @d2b DATETIME ; SELECT @d1 = '2010-04-05', -- Monday @d2a = '2010-04-16', -- Following Friday @d2b = '2010-04-18' -- the Sunday following ; SELECT DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2a) AS weekdiff_a -- returns 1 ,DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2b) AS weekdiff_b -- returns 2 ; So I expected different results if SET DATEFIRST 1 is executed instead of SET DATEFIRST 7. But the return values are the same, regardless! What is going on here? What should I do to get the correct week differences?

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  • Is there any performance issue using Row_Number to implement table paging in Sql Server 2008?

    - by majkinetor
    I want to implement table paging using this method: SET @PageNum = 2; SET @PageSize = 10; WITH OrdersRN AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY OrderDate, OrderID) AS RowNum ,* FROM dbo.Orders ) SELECT * FROM OrdersRN WHERE RowNum BETWEEN (@PageNum - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND @PageNum * @PageSize ORDER BY OrderDate ,OrderID; Is there anything I should be aware of ? Table has millions of records. Thx. EDIT: After using suggested MAXROWS method for some time (which works really really fast) I had to switch back to ROW_NUMBER method because of its greater flexibility. I am also very happy about its speed so far (I am working with View having more then 1M records with 10 columns). To use any kind of query I use following modification: PROCEDURE [dbo].[PageSelect] ( @Sql nvarchar(512), @OrderBy nvarchar(128) = 'Id', @PageNum int = 1, @PageSize int = 0 ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON Declare @tsql as nvarchar(1024) Declare @i int, @j int if (@PageSize <= 0) OR (@PageSize > 10000) SET @PageSize = 10000 -- never return more then 10K records SET @i = (@PageNum - 1) * @PageSize + 1 SET @j = @PageNum * @PageSize SET @tsql = 'WITH MyTableOrViewRN AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY ' + @OrderBy + ') AS RowNum ,* FROM MyTableOrView WHERE ' + @Sql + ' ) SELECT * FROM MyTableOrViewRN WHERE RowNum BETWEEN ' + CAST(@i as varchar) + ' AND ' + cast(@j as varchar) exec(@tsql) END If you use this procedure make sure u prevented sql injection.

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  • How do I rescue a small portion of data from a SQL Server database backup?

    - by Greg
    I have a live database that had some data deleted from it and I need that data back. I have a very recent copy of that database that has already been restored on another machine. Unrelated changes have been made to the live database since the backup, so I do not want to wipe out the live database with a full restore. The data I need is small - just a dozen rows - but those dozen rows each have a couple rows from other tables with foreign keys to it, and those couple rows have god knows how many rows with foreign keys pointing to them, so it would be complicated to restore by hand. Ideally I'd be able to tell the backup copy of the database to select the dozen rows I need, and the transitive closure of everything that they depend on, and everything that depends on them, and export just that data, which I can then import into the live database without touching anything else. What's the best approach to take here? Thanks. Everyone has mentioned sp_generate_inserts. When using this, how do you prevent Identity columns from messing everything up? Do you just turn IDENTITY INSERT on?

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  • Can I use a stream to INSERT or UPDATE a row in SQL Server (C#)?

    - by Cheeso
    Suppose I have a VarBinary[MAX] column, can I insert or update into that column using a type derived from System.IO.Stream? How? I think that I can obtain a read-only stream from such a column using a SqlDataReader, calling GetSqlBytes() on the reader, getting the SqlBytes instance, and then referencing the Stream property on that. What I want is the converse - I want a stream for update or insert. Possible? (from c#... Without writing T-SQL ?)

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  • Can I make an identity field span multiple tables in SQL Server?

    - by johnnycakes
    Can I have an "identity" (unique, non-repeating) column span multiple tables? For example, let's say I have two tables: Books and Authors. Authors AuthorID AuthorName Books BookID BookTitle The BookID column and the AuthorID column are identity columns. I want the identity part to span both columns. So, if there is an AuthorID with a value of 123, then there cannot be a BookID with a value of 123. And vice versa. I hope that makes sense. Is this possible? Thanks. Why do I want to do this? I am writing an APS.NET MVC app. I am creating a comment section. Authors can have comments. Books can have comments. I want to be able to pass an entity ID (a book ID or an author ID) to an action and have the action pull up all the corresponding comments. The action won't care if it's a book or an author or whatever. Sound reasonable?

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