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  • Send post request from client to node.js

    - by Husar
    In order to learn node.js I have built a very simple guestbook app. There is basically just a comment form and a list of previous comments. Currently the app is client side only and the items are stored within local storage. What I want to do is send the items to node where I will save them using Mongo DB. The problem is I have not yet found a way to establish a connection to send data back and forth the client and node.js using POST requests. What I do now is add listeners to the request and wait for data I send: request.addListener('data', function(chunk) { console.log("Received POST data chunk '"+ chunk + "'."); }); On the client side I send the data using a simple AJAX request: $.ajax({ url: '/', type: 'post', dataType: 'json', data: 'test' }) This does not work at all in them moment. It could be that I don't know what url to place in the AJAX request 'url' parameter. Or the whole thing might just be the build using the wrong approach. I have also tried implementing the method described here, but also with no success. It would really help if anyone can share some tips on how to make this work (sending POST request from the client side to node and back) or share any good tutorials. thanks.

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  • Windows console

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. Well, I have a simple question, at least I hope its simple. I was interested in win32 console for a while. Our teacher told us, that windows console is just for DOS and real mode emulation purposes. Well, I know it is not true, becouse DOS applications are runned by emulator which only uses console to display output. Another thing I learned is that console is built into Windows since NT. Well. But what I could not find is, how actually are console programs written to use console. I use Visual C++ for programming (well, for learning). So, the only thing I need to do for using console is select console project. I first thought that windows decides wheather it run app in console or tries to run app in window mode. So I created win32 program and tried printf(). Well, I could not compile it. I know that by definition printf() prints text or variables to stdout. I also found that stdout is the console interface for output. But, I could not find what actually stdout is. So, basicly what I want to ask is, where is the difference between console app and win32 app. I thought that windows starts console when it gets command from "console-family" functions. But obvisously it does not, so there must be some code that actually commands windows to create console interface. And the second question is, when the console is created, how does windows recognize which console terminal is used for what app? I mean, what actually is stdout? Is it a area in memory , or some windows routine that is called? Thanks.

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  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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  • Trace PRISM / CAL events (best practice?)

    - by Christian
    Ok, this question is for people with either a deep knowledge of PRISM or some magic skills I just lack (yet). The Background is simple: Prism allows the declaration of events to which the user can subscribe or publish. In code this looks like this: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Subscribe(UpdateUi, true); _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Publish("Some argument"); Now this is nice, especially because these events are strongly typed, and the declaration is a piece of cake: public class LayoutChangedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<string> { } But now comes the hard part: I want to trace events in some way. I had the idea to subscribe using a lambda expression calling a simple log message. Worked perfectly in WPF, but in Silverlight there is some method access error (took me some time to figure out the reason).. If you want to see for yourself, try this in Silverlight: eA.GetEvent<VideoStartedEvent>().Subscribe(obj => TraceEvent(obj, "vSe", log)); If this would be possible, I would be happy, because I could easily trace all events using a single line to subscribe. But it does not... The alternative approach is writing a different functions for each event, and assign this function to the events. Why different functions? Well, I need to know WHICH event was published. If I use the same function for two different events I only get the payload as argument. I have now way to figure out which event caused the tracing message. I tried: using Reflection to get the causing event (not working) using a constructor in the event to enable each event to trace itself (not allowed) Any other ideas? Chris PS: Writing this text took me most likely longer than writing 20 functions for my 20 events, but I refuse to give up :-) I just had the idea to use postsharp, that would most likely work (although I am not sure, perhaps I end up having only information about the base class).. Tricky and so unimportant topic...

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  • How do I use Linq-to-sql to iterate db records?

    - by Seth Spearman
    I asked on SO a few days ago what was the simplest quickest way to build a wrapper around a recently completed database. I took the advice and used sqlmetal to build linq classes around my database design. Now I am having two problems. One, I don't know LINQ. And, two, I have been shocked to realize how hard it is to learn. I have a book on LINQ (Linq In Action by Manning) and it has helped some but at the end of the day it is going to take me a couple of weeks to get traction and I need to make some progress on my project today. So, I am looking for some help getting started. Click HERE To see my simple database schema. Click HERE to see the vb class that was generated for the schema. My needs are simple. I have a console app. The main table is the SupplyModel table. Most of the other tables are child tables of the SupplyModel table. I want to iterate through each of Supply Model records. I want to grab the data for a supply model and then DoStuff with the data. And I also need to iterate through the child records, for each supply model, for example the NumberedInventories and DoStuff with that as well. I need help doing this in VB rather than C# if possible. I am not looking for the whole solution...if you can supply a couple of code-snippets to get me on my way that would be great. Thanks for your help. Seth

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  • WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

    - by Andy T
    Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

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  • ClassNotFoundException when connecting to Mysql with JDBC

    - by Jacob Lyles
    I'm getting the following error when I try to run a simple Java JDBC program at the command line: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: LoadDriver/java Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: LoadDriver.java at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:315) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:330) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:250) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:398) Here's the simple Java program, copied right out of the JDBC docs: import java.sql.Connection; import java.sql.DriverManager; import java.sql.SQLException; // Notice, do not import com.mysql.jdbc.* // or you will have problems! public class LoadDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { try { // The newInstance() call is a work around for some // broken Java implementations Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; // handle the error } } } Problem is, I'm bloody sure my bash shell $ClASSPATH variable is pointed at the correct .jar file. To be sure, I copied the JDBC .jar to the same directory as my program and ran it as follows: java -classpath ./mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar LoadDriver.java I still get the same error. I'm running under Mac OSX, if it matters.

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • TextRenderer.DrawText renders Arial differently on XP vs Vista

    - by Michael
    I have a c# application that does text rendering, something on par with a simple wysiwyg text editor. I'm using TextRenderer.DrawText to render the text to the screen and GetTextExtentPoint32 to measure text so I can position different font styles/sizes on the same line. In Vista this all works fine. In XP however, Arial renders differently, certain characters like 'o' and 'b' take up more width than in Vista. GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the string as it would in Vista though, with the smaller widths. The end result is that every now and then a run of text will overlap the text preceding it because the preceding text gets measured as smaller than it actually is on the screen. Also, my text rendering code mimics ie's text rendering exactly (for simple formatting and english language only) and ie text rendering seems to be consistent between vista and xp - that's how I noticed the change in size of the different characters. Anyone have any ideas about what's going on? In short, TextRenderer.DrawText and GetTextExtentPoint32 don't match up in xp for Arial. DrawText seems to draw certain characters larger and/or smaller than it does in Vista but GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the text as it would in Vista (which seems to match the text rendering in ie on both xp and vista). Hope that makes sense. Note: unfortunately TextRenderer.MeasureString isn't fast or accurate enough to meet my requirements. I tried using it and had to rip it out.

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  • C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

    - by Kevin Won
    This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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  • What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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  • Modify Executing Jar file

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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  • Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts (relations)

    - by The Disintegrator
    I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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  • Photoshop CS5 not recognising activeDocument

    - by Max Kielland
    I wrote a quite big script for Photoshop CS5.1 on my 64bit Vista machine. Now when I run the very same script on my new 64bit Windows 7 machine, Adobe ExtendScript Tool complains about activeDocument (no such element) in this simple script: #target photoshop var pDoc = app.activeDocument; alert("Done!"); I have tried both and without #target and choosing the target in the ExtendedScript Tool. Is there something I have missed, or do I need to install something more. I only installed the 64bit version of Photoshop. Is it so that the 32bit Photoshop has the script extensions? I don't see why I need to install both 32bit and 64bit versions if I'm only going to use the 64bit version. EDIT I installed the 32bit version as well. Tried the same script against 32 and 64 bit, still no difference. SOLVED The mystery is solved. It is embarrassing simple if you interpret the error message more careful. Of course I can't get an activeDocument if there are no documents in Photoshop, duh!?! I interpreted it as the statement activeDocument wasn't recognised, but of course if I have no document there is no such element (as a photoshop document) to give me. I'm used to C++ and would expect the reuslt to be a NULL value or similar if there is a problem to get the document... excuses, excuses ;) Well, if someone else should get into the same problem, here is the answer on my expense :D

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  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

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  • Speed vs security vs compatibility over methods to do string concatenation in Python

    - by Cawas
    Similar questions have been brought (good speed comparison there) on this same subject. Hopefully this question is different and updated to Python 2.6 and 3.0. So far I believe the faster and most compatible method (among different Python versions) is the plain simple + sign: text = "whatever" + " you " + SAY But I keep hearing and reading it's not secure and / or advisable. I'm not even sure how many methods are there to manipulate strings! I could count only about 4: There's interpolation and all its sub-options such as % and format and then there's the simple ones, join and +. Finally, the new approach to string formatting, which is with format, is certainly not good for backwards compatibility at same time making % not good for forward compatibility. But should it be used for every string manipulation, including every concatenation, whenever we restrict ourselves to 3.x only? Well, maybe this is more of a wiki than a question, but I do wish to have an answer on which is the proper usage of each string manipulation method. And which one could be generally used with each focus in mind (best all around for compatibility, for speed and for security). Thanks.

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  • Generate a Version.java file in Maven

    - by Ralph
    I have a Java project that I build using an Ant script. I am trying to convert the project to Maven. One of the tasks generates a Java source file called Version.java that contains a static String representation of the compilation timestamp, as follows: package com.foo.bar; public final class Version { public static String VERSION="100301.1046"; } The Ant task is very simple: <target name="version" depends="init" description="Create Version.java"> <echo file="src/${package.dir}/Version.java" message="package ${package.name};${line.separator}" /> <echo file="src/${package.dir}/Version.java" append="true" message="public final class Version {${line.separator}" /> <echo file="src/${package.dir}/Version.java" append="true" message=" public static String VERSION=&quot;${buildtime}&quot;;${line.separator}" /> <echo file="src/${package.dir}/Version.java" append="true" message="}${line.separator}" /> <echo message="BUILD ${buildtime}" /> </target> Is it possible to do something similar in Maven, using generate-sources, or some other simple method?

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  • Make seems to think a prerequisite is an intermediate file, removes it

    - by James
    For starters, this exercise in GNU make was admittedly just that: an exercise rather than a practicality, since a simple bash script would have sufficed. However, it brought up interesting behavior I don't quite understand. I've written a seemingly simple Makefile to handle generation of SSL key/cert pairs as necessary for MySQL. My goal was for make <name> to result in <name>-key.pem, <name>-cert.pem, and any other necessary files (specifically, the CA pair if any of it is missing or needs updating, which leads into another interesting follow-up exercise of handling reverse deps to reissue any certs that had been signed by a missing/updated CA cert). After executing all rules as expected, make seems to be too aggressive at identifying intermediate files for removal; it removes a file I thought would be "safe" since it should have been generated as a prereq to the main rule I'm invoking. (Humbly translated, I likely have misinterpreted make's documented behavior to suit my expectation, but don't understand how. ;-) Edited (thanks, Chris!) Adding %-cert.pem to .PRECIOUS does, of course, prevent the deletion. (I had been using the wrong syntax.) Makefile: OPENSSL = /usr/bin/openssl # Corrected, thanks Chris! .PHONY: clean default: ca clean: rm -I *.pem %: %-key.pem %-cert.pem @# Placeholder (to make this implicit create a rule and not cancel one) Makefile: @# Prevent the catch-all from matching Makefile ca-cert.pem: ca-key.pem $(OPENSSL) req -new -x509 -nodes -days 1000 -key ca-key.pem $@ %-key.pem: $(OPENSSL) genrsa 2048 $@ %-cert.pem: %-csr.pem ca-cert.pem ca-key.pem $(OPENSSL) x509 -req -in $ $@ Output: $ make host1 /usr/bin/openssl genrsa 2048 ca-key.pem /usr/bin/openssl req -new -x509 -nodes -days 1000 -key ca-key.pem ca-cert.pem /usr/bin/openssl genrsa 2048 host1-key.pem /usr/bin/openssl req -new -days 1000 -nodes -key host1-key.pem host1-csr.pem /usr/bin/openssl x509 -req -in host1-csr.pem -days 1000 -CA ca-cert.pem -CAkey ca-key.pem -set_serial 01 host1-cert.pem rm host1-csr.pem host1-cert.pem This is driving me crazy, and I'll happily try any suggestions and post results. If I'm just totally noobing out on this one, feel free to jibe away. You can't possibly hurt my feelings. :)

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • JS encodeURIComponent result different from the one created by FORM

    - by Marco Demaio
    I thought values entered in forms are properly encoded by browsers. But this simple test shows it's not true: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=windows-1252"> <title></title> </head><body> <form id="test" action="test_get_vs_encodeuri.html" method="GET" onsubmit="alert(encodeURIComponent(this.one.value));"> <input name="one" type="text" value="Euro-€"> <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT"> </form> </body></html> When hitting submit button: encodeURICompenent encodes input value into "Euro-%E2%82%AC" while browser into the GET query writes only a simple "Euro-%80" Could somone explain? Or is encodeURIComponent doing unnecessary conversions?

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  • Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

    - by revive
    Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • cakephp Activation Email Sending slow

    - by Michael
    Hi all, I have a simple email sender for user account activation. Depending on which email address I use, I get significantly different response times: University email - 1 minute, Gmail - 3-4 hours, Yahoo - 1 or 2 days -- which seems bizarre. Has anyone else seen this phenomenon? EDIT: There weren't many responses (even for a bounty), but I'll try to explain my problem more clearly. This probably isn't greylsting -- If I so a simple: php mail ($to, $subject, $body) // this delivers instantly. My cakephp code: function __sendActivationEmail($id) { $User = $this->User->read ( null, $id ); $this->set ( 'suffix_url', $User ['User'] ['id'] . '/' . $this->User->getActivationHash () ); $this->set ( 'username', $User ['User'] ['username'] ); $this->Email->to = $User ['User'] ['email']; $this->Email->subject = 'Test.com - ' . __ ( 'please confirm your email address', true ); $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'user_confirm'; $this->Email->sendAs = 'text'; $this->Email->delivery = 'mail'; $this->Email->send (); } Causes delays from 13 minutes (ok; we'll deal with it) to 5-6 hours (less okay, since this is an activation email). For some of my users, it works instantly, but for other users (of the same service provider, i.e., gmail, it sees these delays). Any clues?

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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