Search Results

Search found 18346 results on 734 pages for 'form'.

Page 629/734 | < Previous Page | 625 626 627 628 629 630 631 632 633 634 635 636  | Next Page >

  • cookies handling on webrequest and response

    - by manish patel
    I have created a application that has a function mainpost. It is created to post data on a https sites. Here I want to handle cookies in this function. How can I do this task? public string Mainpost(string website, string content) { // this is what we are sending string post_data = content; // this is where we will send it string uri = website; // create a request HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create(uri); request.KeepAlive = false; request.ProtocolVersion = HttpVersion.Version10; request.Method = "POST"; // turn our request string into a byte stream byte[] postBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(post_data); // this is important - make sure you specify type this way request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.ContentLength = postBytes.Length; Stream requestStream = request.GetRequestStream(); // now send it requestStream.Write(postBytes, 0, postBytes.Length); requestStream.Close(); // grab te response and print it out to the console along with the status // code HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); string str = (new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()).ReadToEnd()); Console.WriteLine(response.StatusCode); return str; }

    Read the article

  • Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

    - by vladimir
    I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

    Read the article

  • Multiple calls to data service from SL3?

    - by Chris
    I have an SL3 that makes asynchronous calls to a data service. Basically, there is a treeview that is bound to a collection of objects. The idea is that as a user selects a specific treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service, with a parameter specific to the selected treeviewitem being passed to the corresponding web method in the data service. The data service returns data back to the SL3 client, and the client presents the data to the user. This works well. The problem is that when users start to navigate through the treeview using the arrow keys on their keyboard, they could press the down arrow key, for example, 10 times, and 10 calls will be made to the data service, and then each of the 10 items will be displayed to the user momentarily, until finishing with the data for the most recently selected treeview item. So - onto the question. How can I put in some form of delay, to allow someone to navigate quickly through a treeview, then, once then stop at a certain treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service? Thanks for any suggestions. Chris

    Read the article

  • MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

    Read the article

  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

    Read the article

  • Adding a Taxonomy Filter to a Custom Post Type

    - by ken
    There is an amazing conversation from about two years ago on the Wordpress Answer site where a number of people came up with good solutions for adding a taxonomy filter to the admin screen for your custom post types (see URL for screen I'm referring to): http://[yoursite.com]/wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=[post-type] Anyway, I loved Michael's awesome contribution but in the end used Somatic's implementation with the hierarchy option from Manny. I wrapped it in a class - cuz that's how I like to do things -- and it ALMOST works. The dropdown appears but the values in the dropdown are all looking in the $_GET property for the taxonomies slug-name that you are filtering by. For some reason I don't get anything. I looked at the HTML of the dropdown and it appears ok to me. Here's a quick screen shot for some context: You can tell from this that my post-type is called "exercise" and that the Taxonomy I'm trying to use as a filter is "actions". Here then is the HTML surrounding the dropdown list: <select name="actions" id="actions" class="postform"> <option value="">Show all Actions</option> <option value="ate-dinner">Ate dinner(1)</option> <option value="went-running">Went running(1)</option> </select> I have also confirmed that all of the form elements are within the part of the DOM. And yet if I choose "Went running" and click on the filter button the URL query string comes back without ANY reference to what i've picked. More explicitly, the page first loads with the following URL: /wp-admin/edit.php?post_type=exercise and after pressing the filter button while having picked "Went Running" as an option from the actions filter: /wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=exercise&action=-1&m=0&actions&paged=1&mode=list&action2=-1 actually you can see a reference to an "actions" variable but it's set to nothing and as I now look in detail it appears that the moment I hit "filter" on the page it resets the filter dropdown to the default "Show All Actions". Can anyone help me with this?

    Read the article

  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

    Read the article

  • JQuery Validate: only takes the first addMethod?

    - by Neuquino
    Hi, I need to add multiple custom validations to one form. I have 2 definitions of addMethod. But it only takes the first one... here is the code. $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("badSelectionB",function(){ var comboValues = []; for(var i=0;i<6;i++){ var id="comision_B_"+(i+1); var comboValue=document.getElementById(id).value; if($.inArray(comboValue,comboValues) != 0){ comboValues.push(comboValue); }else{ return false; } } return true; },"Seleccione una única prioridad por comisión."); $.validator.addMethod("badSelectionA",function(){ var comboValues = []; for(var i=0;i<6;i++){ var id="comision_A_"+(i+1); var comboValue=document.getElementById(id).value; if($.inArray(comboValue,comboValues) != 0){ comboValues.push(comboValue); }else{ return false; } } return true; },"Seleccione una única prioridad por comisión."); $("#inscripcionForm").validate( { rules : { nombre : "required", apellido : "required", dni : { required: true, digits: true, }, mail : { required : true, email : true, }, comision_A_6: { badSelectionA:true, }, comision_B_6: { badSelectionB: true, } }, messages : { nombre : "Ingrese su nombre.", apellido : "Ingrese su apellido.", dni : { required: "Ingrese su dni.", digits: "Ingrese solo números.", }, mail : { required : "Ingrese su correo electrónico.", email: "El correo electrónico ingresado no es válido." } }, }); }); Do you have any clue of what is happening? Thanks in advance,

    Read the article

  • Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

    Read the article

  • How can I get a static URL to a map image using the Google Static Maps API?

    - by Argote
    === BACKGROUND === Hello, so I've published a Web-App (still in "Beta") which uses the Flickr API to get information for the photos of a particular Flickr user and generates IPB code to post any of his/her images. While Flickr now gives you the IPB code to show the image and link back to the photo site directly on its site, my App also has the option of embeding the title, description, select EXIF data, location information, etc. into the post for the IPB forum. === PROBLEM === I've most recently added the option to integrate a Google Maps image of the photo's geolocation data into the post by using the Google Static Maps API. The problem is that the image URL I have is in the following form (including IPB [IMG] tags): [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?zoom=16&size=600x600&maptype=hybrid&markers=19.387687,-99.251732&sensor=false[/IMG] Which shows this example image (In practice the image size is user selectable): However, some IPB forums seem to not support dyamic image URLs which gives me a broken image, I'd like to replace the [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?zoom=16&size=600x600&maptype=hybrid&markers=19.387687,-99.251732&sensor=false[/IMG] with something like [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap/map0000001.png[/IMG] which should be supported by all IPB forums. Thanks in advance for your help. In case you're interested, the most recent "released" version of my Web-App can be found here: http://flickr.argote.mx/ (The changes I mention here are still on local development server).

    Read the article

  • Oracle command hangs when using view for "WHILE x IN..." subquery

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a web service that fetches data from an oracle data source in chunks and passes it back to an indexing/search tool in XML format. I'm the C#/.NET guy, and am kind of fuzzy on parts of Oracle. Our Oracle team gave us the following script to run, and it works well: SELECT ROWID, [columns] FROM [table] WHERE ROWID IN ( SELECT ROWID FROM ( SELECT ROWID FROM [table] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_rowid]' ORDER BY ROWID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY ROWID 10,000 rows is an arbitrary but reasonable chunk size and ROWID is sufficiently unique for our purposes to use as a UID since each indexing run hits only one table at a time. Bracketed values are filled in programmatically by the web service. Now we're going to start adding views to the indexing, each of which will union a few separate tables. Since ROWID would no longer function as a unique identifier, they added a column to the views (VIEW_UNIQUE_ID) that concatenates the ROWIDs from the component tables to construct a UID for each union. But this script does not work, even though it follows the same form as the previous one: SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID, [columns] FROM [view] WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM [view] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_view_unique_id]' ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID It hangs indefinitely with no response from the Oracle server. I've waited 20+ minutes and the SQLTools dialog box indicating a running query remains the same, with no progress or updates. I've tested each subquery independently and each works fine and takes a very short amount of time (<= 1 second), so the view itself is sound. But as soon as the inner two SELECT queries are added with "WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN...", it hangs. Why doesn't this query work for views? In what important way are they not interchangeable here?

    Read the article

  • Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

    - by Marcel Korpel
    As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

    Read the article

  • Rails nested models and data separation by scope

    - by jobrahms
    I have Teacher, Student, and Parent models that all belong to User. This is so that a Teacher can create Students and Parents that can or cannot log into the app depending on the teacher's preference. Student and Parent both accept nested attributes for User so a Student and User object can be created in the same form. All four models also belong to Studio so I can do data separation by scope. The current studio is set in application_controller.rb by looking up the current subdomain. In my students controller (all of my controllers, actually) I'm using @studio.students.new instead of Student.new, etc, to scope the new student to the correct studio, and therefore the correct subdomain. However, the nested User does not pick up the studio from its parent - it gets set to nil. I was thinking that I could do something like params[:student][:user_attributes][:studio_id] = @student.studio.id in the controller, but that would require doing attr_accessible :studio_id in User, which would be bad. How can I make sure that the nested User picks up the same scope that the Student model gets when it's created? student.rb class Student < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :studio belongs_to :user, :dependent => :destroy attr_accessible :user_attributes accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :reject_if => :all_blank end students_controller.rb def create @student = @studio.students.new @student.attributes = params[:student] if @student.save redirect_to @student, :notice => "Successfully created student." else render :action => 'new' end end user.rb class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :studio accepts_nested_attributes_for :studio attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me, :studio_attributes devise :invitable, :database_authenticatable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable end

    Read the article

  • 3 tier application pattern suggestion

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

    Read the article

  • Read text file into listbox collections

    - by Arcadian
    Hi, i'm new to C#. I need my program to show different parts of the data contained in a txt file into different listboxs (which are on different tabs of a form) so that the user can see the particular block of data they are interested in. the data contained in the txt file looks like this: G30:39:03:31 JG06 G32:56:36:10 JG04 G31:54:69:52 JG04 G36:32:53:11 JG05 G33:50:05:11 JG06 G39:28:81:21 JG01 G39:22:74:11 JG06 G39:51:44:21 JG03 G39:51:52:22 JG01 G39:51:73:21 JG01 G35:76:24:20 JG06 G35:76:55:11 JG01 G36:31:96:11 JG02 G36:31:96:23 JG02 G36:31:96:41 JG03 though much more of it :) The separate listboxes will contain only the lines who's first integer pair matches that listbox's name. For example, all the lines that start "G32" will be added to the G32 listbox. I think the code would start something like: private void ReadToBox() { FileInfo file = new FileInfo("Jumpgate List.JG"); StreamReader objRead = file.OpenText(); while (!objRead.EndOfStream) but i'm not sure where to start in terms of getting it sorted yet. Any help? There's some rep in it for you :D

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

    Read the article

  • Prevent Rails link_to_remote multiple submits w Javascript

    - by Chris
    In a Rails project I need to keep a link_to_remote from getting double-clicked. It looks like :before and :after are my only choices - they get prepended/appended to the onclick Ajax call, respectively. But if I try something like: :before => "self.stopObserving()" t,he Ajax is never run. If I try it for :after the Ajax is run but the link never stops observing. The solutions I've seen rely on creating a variable and blocking the whole form, but there are multiple link_to_remote rows on this page and it is valid to click more than one of them at a time - just not the same one twice. One variable per row declared outside of link_to_remote seems very kludgey... Instead of using Prototype I originally tried plain Javascript first for this proof of concept - but it fails too: <a href="#" onclick="self.onclick = function(){alert('foo');};"click</a just puts up an alert when clicked - the lambda here does nothing? This next one is more like the desired goal and should only alert the first time. But instead it alerts every time: <a href="#" onclick="alert('bar'); self.onclick = function(){return false;};"click</a All ideas appreciated!

    Read the article

  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

    Read the article

  • How to access method variables from within an anonymous function in JavaScript?

    - by Hussain
    I'm writing a small ajax class for personal use. In the class, I have a "post" method for sending post requests. The post method has a callback parameter. In the onreadystatechange propperty, I need to call the callback method. Something like this: this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(this.responseText); } However, I can't access the callback variable from within the anonomous function. How can I bring the callback variable into the scope of the onreadystatechange anonomous function? edit: Here's the full code so far: function request() { this.initialize = function(errorHandeler) { try { try { this.requestObject = new XDomainRequest(); } catch(e) { try { this.requestObject = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e) { try { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); //newer versions of IE5+ } catch (e) { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); //older versions of IE5+ } } } } catch(e) { errorHandeler(); } } this.post = function(url,data) { var response;var escapedData = ""; if (typeof data == 'object') { for (i in data) { escapedData += escape(i)+'='+escape(data[i])+'&'; } escapedData = escapedData.substr(0,escapedData.length-1); } else { escapedData = escape(data); } this.requestObject.open('post',url,true); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-length", data.length); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { if (this.readyState == 4) { // call callback function } } this.requestObject.send(data); }

    Read the article

  • Issue in setting alarm time in AlarmManager Class

    - by Anshuman
    I have used the following code in setting alarm time in AlarmManager class. Now Suppose my device current date 9-july-2012 11:31:00, Now suppose i set set a alarm at 9-july-2012 11:45:00, then it works fine and pop-up an alarm at that time. But if i set an alarm at 10-aug-2012 11:40:00, then as soon as exit the app the alarm pop-up, which is wrong because i set an alarm at month of august, So why this happen, is anything wrong in my code. if anyone knows help me to solve this out. Code For Setting Alarm time in AlarmManager class Intent myIntent = new Intent(context, AlarmService.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getService(context, i, myIntent, i); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager)context.getSystemService(AlarmService.ALARM_SERVICE); Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); calendar.setTimeInMillis(System.currentTimeMillis()); calendar.add(Calendar.MILLISECOND, (int) dateDifferenceFromSystemTime(NoteManager.getSingletonObject().getAlarmTime(i))); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), pendingIntent); public static long dateDifferenceFromSystemTime(Date date) { long difference = 0; try { Calendar c = Calendar.getInstance(); difference = date.getTime() - c.getTimeInMillis(); if (difference < 0) { // if difference is -1 - means alarm time is of previous time then current // then firstly change it to +positive and subtract form 86400000 to get exact new time to play alarm // 86400000-Total no of milliseconds of 24hr Day difference = difference * -1; difference = 86400000 - difference; } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return difference; } Service class which pop-up alarm when matches time public class AlarmService extends IntentService { public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); } public AlarmService() { super("MyAlarmService"); } @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { super.onStartCommand(intent, startId, startId); return START_STICKY; } @Override protected void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { startActivity(new Intent(this,AlarmDialogActivity.class).setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK)); } }

    Read the article

  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

    Read the article

  • Theory: "Lexical Encoding"

    - by _ande_turner_
    I am using the term "Lexical Encoding" for my lack of a better one. A Word is arguably the fundamental unit of communication as opposed to a Letter. Unicode tries to assign a numeric value to each Letter of all known Alphabets. What is a Letter to one language, is a Glyph to another. Unicode 5.1 assigns more than 100,000 values to these Glyphs currently. Out of the approximately 180,000 Words being used in Modern English, it is said that with a vocabulary of about 2,000 Words, you should be able to converse in general terms. A "Lexical Encoding" would encode each Word not each Letter, and encapsulate them within a Sentence. // An simplified example of a "Lexical Encoding" String sentence = "How are you today?"; int[] sentence = { 93, 22, 14, 330, QUERY }; In this example each Token in the String was encoded as an Integer. The Encoding Scheme here simply assigned an int value based on generalised statistical ranking of word usage, and assigned a constant to the question mark. Ultimately, a Word has both a Spelling & Meaning though. Any "Lexical Encoding" would preserve the meaning and intent of the Sentence as a whole, and not be language specific. An English sentence would be encoded into "...language-neutral atomic elements of meaning ..." which could then be reconstituted into any language with a structured Syntactic Form and Grammatical Structure. What are other examples of "Lexical Encoding" techniques? If you were interested in where the word-usage statistics come from : http://www.wordcount.org

    Read the article

  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

    Read the article

  • Ajax function partially fails when alert removed

    - by YsoL8
    Hello. I have a problem in the following code: //quesry the db for image information function queryDB (parameters) { var parameters = "p="+parameters; alert ("hello"); if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { // use the info alert (xmlhttp.responseText); } } xmlhttp.open("POST", "js/imagelist.php", true); //Send the proper header information along with the request xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.send(parameters); } When I remove the alert statement 4 lines down I hit problems. This function is being called by a loop, and without the alert, I only get results for the last value sent to the statement. With it, I get everything I was expecting and really I'm at a loss to know why. I've heard that this may be a timing issue as I'm sending new requests before the old one is finished. I also heard polling being mentioned, but I can't find any information detailed enough. I'm new to synchronous services and I'm not really aware of the issues.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 625 626 627 628 629 630 631 632 633 634 635 636  | Next Page >