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  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

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  • CoreData : App crashes when deleting last instance created

    - by Leo
    Hello, I have a 2 tabs application. In the first one, I'm creating objects of the "Sample" and "SampleList" entities. Each sampleList contains an ID and a set of samples. Each sample contains a date and temperature property. In the second tab, I'm displaying my data in a tableView. I implemented the - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath method in order to delete SampleLists. In my xcdatamodel the delete rule for my relationship between SampleList and Sample is Cascade. My problem is that when I try to delete SampleList I just created, the app crashes and I receive a EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. If I restart it, then I'm able to delete "old" sampleList without any problems. Earlier, I had the following problem : I couldn't display the the sampleLists I created since I launched the app, because it crashed too. I received also the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. Actually, it seemed that the date of the last sample created of the set was nil. If I am not releasing the NSDate I'm using to set the sample's date, I don't have this problem anymore... If anyone could help me to find out what could cause my troubles it would be great !! Here is the method I'm using to create new instances : SampleList *newSampleList = (SampleList *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"SampleList" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSampleList setPatchID:patchID]; NSMutableSet *newSampleSet = [[NSMutableSet alloc] init]; NSCalendar *gregorian = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; for (int i = 0; i < [byteArray count]; i=i+4, sampleCount++) { NSDateComponents *comps = [[NSDateComponents alloc] init]; [comps setYear:year]; [comps setMonth:month]; [comps setDay:day]; [comps setHour:hours]; [comps setMinute:minutes]; NSDate *sampleDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents:comps]; Sample *newSample = (Sample *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Sample" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSample setSampleDate:sampleDate]; [newSample setSampleTemperature:[NSNumber numberWithInt:temperature]]; [newSampleSet addObject:newSample]; [comps release]; //[sampleDate release]; } [newSampleList setSampleSet:newSampleSet]; // [newSampleSet release]; NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Could not Save the context !!"); } [gregorian release];

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • Asp.net MVC jquery-ajax dont render html

    - by Troublesum
    Hi, Im trying to use jqeury ajax with MVC i can get it to post back to the action i want and it returns the ViewData objects with updated Data but never renders the HTML. I have i View which contains some MVC User Controls and i want them to update on a timer. Here is my View Markup <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/PageWithSummaryViewAndTabs.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="FullCaseTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="FullCaseContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> window.setInterval(test, 5000); function test() { jQuery.get("/PatientCase/RefreshEPRF", function(response) { }); } </script> <div id="loadingDiv" style="display:none">Updating</div> <input id="refreshPatientCaseIndexButton" type="submit" visible="true" title="refresh" value="Refresh" /> <h2>Full Case</h2> <div id="EPRFContent"> <%Html.RenderPartial(@"~/Views/PatientCase/SectionEPRF.ascx"); %> <%Html.RenderPartial(@"~/Views/PatientCase/SectionDrugs.ascx"); %> </div> <div id="ImageContent"> <%Html.RenderPartial(@"~/Views/PatientCase/SectionImagery.ascx"); % On postback i call a Action Called RefreshEPRF which loads just the required user controls again <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <%Html.RenderPartial(@"~/Views/PatientCase/SectionEPRF.ascx"); %> <%Html.RenderPartial(@"~/Views/PatientCase/SectionDrugs.ascx"); %> And finaly the marpup in the control <table id="detailstable"> <tr><td id="detailslablecolumn">Patient Name : </td><td> <% foreach (var item in (List<STS_Lite.Models.PatinetCase.EPRFItem>)ViewData["EPRF"]) { if (item.datumItemId == 46) { if (item.Stroke) { %> <img src="/PatientCaseIndex/InkImageData/GetInkImage/<%=ViewData["PatientCaseId"]%>/<%=ViewData["TemplateInstanceId"]%>/<%=item.TemplateItemId %>" /> <% } else {%> <%=item.Value.ToString()%> <%} break; } } %></td></tr><table> When i step through this code the ViewData in the user control has the new updated values but the page comes back with no new values. I have tried the jquery.get and ajax but with no luck. Any help would be great thanks

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  • In Google Glass, Menu Items are not shown after XE 17.2 Update, any Solutions?

    - by Amalan Dhananjayan
    This worked when the Glass in on XE12, I have opened the solution after about 2 Months and now with XE17 the menu items are not shown when tapped on the Live card, instead the live card is disappearing. I have updated the GDK, I have changed the code to support the latest GDK sneak peek version 2 changes according to this (https://developers.google.com/glass/release-notes#xe12) This is the code public class MenuActivity extends Activity { private static final String TAG = MenuActivity.class.getSimpleName(); private VisionService.VisionBinder mVisionService; private ServiceConnection mConnection = new ServiceConnection() { @Override public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { if (service instanceof VisionService.VisionBinder) { mVisionService = (VisionService.VisionBinder) service; openOptionsMenu(); } // No need to keep the service bound. unbindService(this); } @Override public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { } }; private boolean mResumed; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); bindService(new Intent(this, VisionService.class), mConnection, 0); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); mResumed = true; openOptionsMenu(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); mResumed = false; } @Override public void openOptionsMenu() { if (mResumed && mConnection != null) { super.openOptionsMenu(); } } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { getMenuInflater().inflate(R.menu.menu, menu); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { int id = item.getItemId(); if (id == R.id.action_send) { mVisionService.requestWorkOrderCard(); finish(); return true; } else if (id == R.id.action_refresh) { mVisionService.requestTopWorkOrders(); finish(); return true; } else if (id == R.id.action_finish) { stopService(new Intent(this, VisionService.class)); finish(); return true; } else { return super.onOptionsItemSelected(item); } } @Override public void onOptionsMenuClosed(Menu menu) { super.onOptionsMenuClosed(menu); } } It would be great if any body could help on this. Thank You

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  • jQuery toggle caching / cookies

    - by user1706680
    I’m using the jQuery toggle function for my navigation. By default the Authors toggle is visible, the Archives toggle is closed. http://jsfiddle.net/TeDFs/4/ My problem is that when the users switches to another page the toggles reset themselves. For example, when the user closes the Authors toggle and opens the Archive toggle and then navigates to another page the default settings are loaded. I read that it’s possible to store the settings via cookies but I’m absolutely new to jQuery and it would be great if somebody could help me out! HTML <div id="authors" class="widget"> <h2 class="widget-title-visible">Authors</h2> <div class="toggle"> <div class="submenu"> <ul> <li>Name 1</li> <li>Name 2</li> <li>Name 3</li> <li>Name 3</li> </ul> </div> </div> <div id="archives" class="widget"> <h2 class="widget-title">Archiv</h2> <div class="toggle hidden"> <div class="submenu"> <ul> <li>November 2012</li> <li>Oktober 2012</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div>? jQuery function toggleWidgets() { jQuery('.widget-title').addClass('plus'); jQuery('.widget-title-visible').addClass('minus'); jQuery('.widget-title').click(function() { $(this).toggleClass('plus').toggleClass('minus').next().toggle(180); }); jQuery('.widget-title-visible').click(function() { $(this).toggleClass('minus').toggleClass('plus').next().toggle(180); }); } jQuery(document).ready(function() { toggleWidgets(); } )? CSS .hidden{ display:none; } .plus { background: url(http://moargh.de/daten/sidebar_arrows.png) 0 5px no-repeat; padding: 0 0 0 12px; } .minus { background: url(http://moargh.de/daten/sidebar_arrows.png) 0 -10px no-repeat; padding: 0 0 0 12px; }

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  • How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • using a connection string in web.config for crystal report

    - by zombiegx
    I`m having problems between two servers, wich use differente odbc dsn. My apps work great but crystal reports uses the original odbc connection, how can I fix this? I'm thinking of using the same connection string in the web.config, but I don't know how. found this but is too confusing for me this is an example of my code, its a aspx file that loads as a pdf protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { var par = Request.QueryString; int pidmun = 0; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Request["id"])) { pidmun = int.Parse(Request["id"]); } string pFechaIni = Request["fi"]; string pFechaFin = Request["ff"]; string pTipo = Request["t"]; string pNombreMunicipio = Request["nm"]; var pos = Request.Form; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaIni)) { pFechaIni = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaFin)) { pFechaFin = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pTipo)) { pTipo = "FOLIO"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pNombreMunicipio)) { pNombreMunicipio = "NombreMunicipio"; } ReporteIngresos report = new ReporteIngresos(); TextObject nom; TextObject periodo; nom = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtNombreMunicipio"]; periodo = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtPeriodo"]; nom.Text = "Ingresos Municipio de " + pNombreMunicipio; periodo.Text = "Periodo del " + pFechaIni + " al " + pFechaFin; report.SetParameterValue("pidMun", pidmun); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaIni", pFechaIni); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaFin", pFechaFin); report.SetParameterValue("pTipo", pTipo); MemoryStream oStream; oStream = (MemoryStream)report.ExportToStream(CrystalDecisions.Shared.ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat); Response.Clear(); Response.Buffer = true; Response.AddHeader("CustomHeader", "ReporteIngresos"); Response.CacheControl = "No-cache"; Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.BinaryWrite(oStream.ToArray()); Response.End(); } catch (Exception ex) { ExBi.log(ex); throw ex; } } thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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  • Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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  • Javascript and VERY LONG string

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am having problems with the below code: function showTableData() { var tableArray; var x = 0; var theHTML; for (i = 0; i < 7032; i++) { if (x = 0) { theHTML = '<tr>' + '<th scope="row" class="spec">' + partNum[i] + '</th>' + '<td>' + Msrp[i] + '</td>' + '<td>' + blah[i] + '</td>' + '<td>' + blahs[i] + '</td>' + '</tr>' + theHTML; x++; }else{ theHTML = '<tr>' + '<th scope="row" class="specalt">' + partNum[i] + '</th>' + '<td class="alt">' + Msrp[i] + '</td>' + '<td class="alt">' + blah[i] + '</td>' + '<td class="alt">' + blahs[i] + '</td>' + '</tr>' + theHTML; x--; } } theHTML = '<table id="mytable" cellspacing="0">' + '<tr>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Configurations" class="nobg">Part Number</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 1.8">Msrp Price</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 2">blahs Price</th>' + '<th scope="col" abbr="Dual 2.5">Low Price</th>' + '</tr>' + theHTML + '</table>'; $('#example').append(theHTML); } </script> <div id="example"> </div> The problem being that the $('#example').append(theHTML); never executes (or shows on the page). I think its because the string is soooooo long! It has over 7,000 items in the array so im not sure if thats the reason or if its something else? Any help would be great! Thanks! David

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  • Server Error Message: No File Access

    - by iMayne
    Hello. Im having an issues but dont know where to solve it. My template works great in xampp but not on the host server. I get this message: Warning: file_get_contents() [function.file-get-contents]: URL file-access is disables in the server configuration in homepage/......./twitter.php. The error is on line 64. <?php /* For use in the "Parse Twitter Feeds" code below */ define("SECOND", 1); define("MINUTE", 60 * SECOND); define("HOUR", 60 * MINUTE); define("DAY", 24 * HOUR); define("MONTH", 30 * DAY); function relativeTime($time) { $delta = time() - $time; if ($delta < 2 * MINUTE) { return "1 min ago"; } if ($delta < 45 * MINUTE) { return floor($delta / MINUTE) . " min ago"; } if ($delta < 90 * MINUTE) { return "1 hour ago"; } if ($delta < 24 * HOUR) { return floor($delta / HOUR) . " hours ago"; } if ($delta < 48 * HOUR) { return "yesterday"; } if ($delta < 30 * DAY) { return floor($delta / DAY) . " days ago"; } if ($delta < 12 * MONTH) { $months = floor($delta / DAY / 30); return $months <= 1 ? "1 month ago" : $months . " months ago"; } else { $years = floor($delta / DAY / 365); return $years <= 1 ? "1 year ago" : $years . " years ago"; } } /* Parse Twitter Feeds */ function parse_cache_feed($usernames, $limit, $type) { $username_for_feed = str_replace(" ", "+OR+from%3A", $usernames); $feed = "http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline.atom?screen_name=" . $username_for_feed . "&count=" . $limit; $usernames_for_file = str_replace(" ", "-", $usernames); $cache_file = dirname(__FILE__).'/cache/' . $usernames_for_file . '-twitter-cache-' . $type; if (file_exists($cache_file)) { $last = filemtime($cache_file); } $now = time(); $interval = 600; // ten minutes // check the cache file if ( !$last || (( $now - $last ) > $interval) ) { // cache file doesn't exist, or is old, so refresh it $cache_rss = file_get_contents($feed); (this is line 64) Any help on how to give this access on my host server?

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  • How to list all duplicated rows which may include NULL columns?

    - by Yousui
    Hi guys, I have a problem of listing duplicated rows that include NULL columns. Lemme show my problem first. USE [tempdb]; GO IF OBJECT_ID(N'dbo.t') IS NOT NULL BEGIN DROP TABLE dbo.t END GO CREATE TABLE dbo.t ( a NVARCHAR(8), b NVARCHAR(8) ); GO INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('e', NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); GO Now I want to show all rows that have other rows duplicated with them, I use the following query. SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 which will give us the result: a b -------- -------- NULL NULL a b c d Now if I want to list all rows that make contribution to duplication, I use this query: WITH duplicate (a, b) AS ( SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 ) SELECT dbo.t.a, dbo.t.b FROM dbo.t INNER JOIN duplicate ON (dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) Which will give me the result: a b -------- -------- a b a b a b c d c d c d c d As you can see, all rows include NULLs are filtered. The reason I thought is that I use equal sign to test the condition(dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b), and NULLs cannot be compared use equal sign. So, in order to include rows that include NULLs in it in the last result, I have change the aforementioned query to WITH duplicate (a, b) AS ( SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 ) SELECT dbo.t.a, dbo.t.b FROM dbo.t INNER JOIN duplicate ON (dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) OR (dbo.t.a IS NULL AND duplicate.a IS NULL AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) OR (dbo.t.b IS NULL AND duplicate.b IS NULL AND dbo.t.a = duplicate.a) OR (dbo.t.a IS NULL AND duplicate.a IS NULL AND dbo.t.b IS NULL AND duplicate.b IS NULL) And this query will give me the answer as I wanted: a b -------- -------- NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL a b a b a b c d c d c d c d Now my question is, as you can see, this query just include two columns, in order to include NULLs in the last result, you have to use many condition testing statements in the query. As the column number increasing, the condition testing statements you need in your query is increasing astonishingly. How can I solve this problem? Great thanks.

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  • RAD Visual Web Application Creator/ Builder/ Designer for PHP

    - by inhoue
    Hi all, I want to see if any of you know a (free and open source will be ideal) tool/ app that can help build a php web application very quickly without investing too much time on writing codes, preferring drag and drop/ point and click work-flow designer for logic design (see Agile from Outsystems below). Plus, visual designer for the business logic is great since it can help a developer visualize the logic better. There are a lot of GUI builders, form builders out there, but I am looking for one app for the entire web application development process. My goal is to find an application that a team of developers can use together and use the build-in code of the app as much as possible. E.g. the app will provide a modular just for handle user login or a shopping cart; a developer just need to drag and drop the modular to the logic designer and the code will be generated. This way the functionality will be in a module and code will always be standard across developers. So if a new developer get on-board, he will just need to use the system and get up and running quickly. To explain this better: there is a lot php frameworks, e.g. cakephp, CodeIgniter, etc which I can use to help coding, but still I need to create (code) the GUI, writing quite a bit of codes. I am looking for a tool/ app that is a little more high level than those frameworks. Here is 2 examples apps I found during my google search which they have visual logic designer and gui builder in one single app. Also a single click deployment (but I need it to be php apps or at least I can deploy the (php) code to a LAMP/ WAMP server): Wavemaker: for JAVA Agile from Outsystems: for JAVA or .net (This one is really good, with work-flow drag and drop logic designer!) Talend: it is just an ETL tool, but the concept is what I want to bring up. Drag and drop, point and click logic design. Custom code can be added if it is needed, but the drag and drop process already finished the structure and most of the coding of the web app one needs to build. I want to list Adobe Flex, but it is more like a GUI designer + IDE, not exactly what I want to describe here. The drag and drop/ work-flow logic designer is a key for the app. I could go for the CMS route by learning how to extend them, but it is not that flexible for me and is a long learning curve. Anybody came across this type of app before? Or any idea of how can I find those apps? I googled them for long time, I don't see any of them for php and just few (just 2) for Java. Thanks in advance!

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  • Opening Macro definitions: tdfx_span.c: lvalue required as left operand of assignment

    - by anttir
    Hi, I'm trying to compile X11R6-7.0 under Ubuntu maverick and got some weird compilation errors I'm unable to resolve myself. I needed X11R6-7.0 as ati catalyst drivers don't support newer xorg and oss drivers don't support 3d acceleration of my hardware. Anyone know what this error message means? I know some C but I got a bit confused. Does it mean GET_FB_DATA macro returned NULL or some method/property not set? Any further insight how to "debug" preprocessor definitions at this point would be great. I don't think I can print anything useful with #error. The error I get: tdfx_span.c: In function ‘tdfxDDWriteDepthPixels’: tdfx_span.c:976: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c:1008: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c: In function ‘write_stencil_pixels’: tdfx_span.c:1242: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment the Code: 958- switch (depth_size) { 959- case 16: 960- GetBackBufferInfo(fxMesa, &backBufferInfo); 961- /* 962- * Note that the _LOCK macro adds a curly brace, 963- * and the UNLOCK macro removes it. 964- */ 965- WRITE_FB_SPAN_LOCK(fxMesa, info, 966- GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER, GR_LFBWRITEMODE_ANY); 967- { 968- LFBParameters ReadParams; 969- GetFbParams(fxMesa, &info, &backBufferInfo, 970- &ReadParams, sizeof(GLushort)); 971- for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { 972- if (mask[i] && visible_pixel(fxMesa, x[i], y[i])) { 973- xpos = x[i] + fxMesa->x_offset; 974- ypos = bottom - y[i]; 975- d16 = depth[i]; 976: PUT_FB_DATA(&ReadParams, GLushort, xpos, ypos, d16); 977- } 978- } 979- } 980- WRITE_FB_SPAN_UNLOCK(fxMesa, GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER); 981- break; 982- case 24: And relative macros: #define GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((x) < (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX) \ ? (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) \ : (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)])) #define GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) #define GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)]) #define PUT_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) The LFBParameters Struct 483-typedef struct 484-{ 485- void *lfbPtr; 486- void *lfbWrapPtr; 487- FxU32 LFBStrideInElts; 488- GLint firstWrappedX; 489-} 490:LFBParameters; Thanks for looking.

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  • How to Load Dependent Files on Demand + Check if They're Loaded or Not?

    - by br4inwash3r
    I'm trying to implement an assets/dependency loader that i've found from an old article at 24Ways.org. most of you might be familiar with it. it's from this article by Christian Heilmann: http://24ways.org/2007/keeping-javascript-dependencies-at-bay i've modified the script to load CSS files as well. and it's now quite close to what i want. but i still need to do some checking to see wether an asset have been completely loaded or not. just wondering if you guys have any ideas :) here's what my script currently looked like: var assetLoader = { assets: { products: { js: 'products.js', css: 'products.css', loaded: false }, articles: { js: 'articles.js', css: 'articles.css', loaded: false }, [...] cycle: { js: 'jquery.cycle.min.js', loaded: false }, swfobject: { js: 'jquery.swfobject.min.js', loaded: false } }, add: function(asset) { var comp = assetLoader.assets[asset]; var path = '/path/to/assets/'; if (comp && comp.loaded == false) { if (comp.js) { // load js var js = document.createElement('script'); js.src = path + 'js/' + comp.js; js.type = 'text/javascript'; js.charset = 'utf-8'; // append to document document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(js); } if (comp.css) { // load css var css = document.createElement('link'); css.rel = 'stylesheet'; css.href = path + 'css/' + comp.css; css.type = 'text/css'; css.media = 'screen, projection'; css.charset = 'utf-8'; // append to document document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(css); } } }, check: function(asset) { assetLoader.assets[asset].loaded = true; } } Christian explains this method in his article in great detail. I don't want to confuse you guys anymore with my bad english :P and here's an example of how i run the script: ... // load jquery cycle plugin if (page=='tvc' || page=='products') { if (!assetLoader.assets.cycle.loaded) { assetLoader.add('cycle'); } } // load products page assets if (!assetLoader.assets.products.loaded) { assetLoader.add('products'); } ... this kind of approach is very problematic though. coz assets loads asynchronously, which means some of the code inside products.js that depends on jquery.cycle.js might continue running before jquery.cycle.js is even loaded resulting in errors. while i'm quite aware that scripts can be attached with an onload event, i'm just not really sure how to implement it to my script. anyone care to help me? please... :P

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  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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  • Output on namespaced xpath

    - by user347928
    Hi there, I have the following code and have had some trouble with a specific field and it's output. The namespace is connected but doesn't seem to be outputting on the required field. Any info on this would be great. import org.w3c.dom.Document; import org.xml.sax.SAXException; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.ParserConfigurationException; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathFactory; import javax.xml.xpath.XPath; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathExpressionException; import java.io.ByteArrayInputStream; import java.io.IOException; public class test { public static void main(String args[]) { String xmlStr = "<aws:UrlInfoResponse xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:Response xmlns:aws=\"http://awis.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-07-11\">\n" + " <aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:RequestId>blah</aws:RequestId>\n" + " </aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:Alexa>\n" + " <aws:TrafficData>\n" + " <aws:DataUrl type=\"canonical\">harvard.edu/</aws:DataUrl>\n" + " <aws:Rank>1635</aws:Rank>\n" + " </aws:TrafficData>\n" + " </aws:Alexa>\n" + " </aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:ResponseStatus xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:StatusCode>Success</aws:StatusCode>\n" + " </aws:ResponseStatus>\n" + " </aws:Response>\n" + "</aws:UrlInfoResponse>"; DocumentBuilderFactory xmlFact = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); xmlFact.setNamespaceAware(true); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { builder = xmlFact.newDocumentBuilder(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Document doc = null; try { doc = builder.parse( new ByteArrayInputStream( xmlStr.getBytes())); } catch (SAXException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(doc.getDocumentElement().getNamespaceURI()); System.out.println(xmlFact.isNamespaceAware()); String xpathStr = "//aws:OperationRequest"; XPathFactory xpathFact = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = xpathFact.newXPath(); String result = null; try { result = xpath.evaluate(xpathStr, doc); } catch (XPathExpressionException e) { e.printStackTrace(); //To change body of catch statement use File | Settings | File Templates. } System.out.println("XPath result is \"" + result + "\""); } } Thanks Tony

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  • Postgresql count+sort performance

    - by invictus
    I have built a small inventory system using postgresql and psycopg2. Everything works great, except, when I want to create aggregated summaries/reports of the content, I get really bad performance due to count()'ing and sorting. The DB schema is as follows: CREATE TABLE hosts ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255) ); CREATE TABLE items ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, description TEXT ); CREATE TABLE host_item ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, host INTEGER REFERENCES hosts(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, item INTEGER REFERENCES items(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ); There are some other fields as well, but those are not relevant. I want to extract 2 different reports: - List of all hosts with the number of items per, ordered from highest to lowest count - List of all items with the number of hosts per, ordered from highest to lowest count I have used 2 queries for the purpose: Items with host count: SELECT i.id, i.description, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM items AS i LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (i.id=hi.item) GROUP BY i.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Hosts with item count: SELECT h.id, h.name, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM hosts AS h LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (h.id=hi.host) GROUP BY h.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Problem is: the queries runs for 5-6 seconds before returning any data. As this is a web based application, 6 seconds are just not acceptable. The database is heavily populated with approximately 50k hosts, 1000 items and 400 000 host/items relations, and will likely increase significantly when (or perhaps if) the application will be used. After playing around, I found that by removing the "ORDER BY count DESC" part, both queries would execute instantly without any delay whatsoever (less than 20ms to finish the queries). Is there any way I can optimize these queries so that I can get the result sorted without the delay? I was trying different indexes, but seeing as the count is computed it is possible to utilize an index for this. I have read that count()'ing in postgresql is slow, but its the sorting that are causing me problems... My current workaround is to run the queries above as an hourly job, putting the result into a new table with an index on the count column for quick lookup. I use Postgresql 9.2.

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  • Where are the function literals in c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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  • Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

    - by rhtx
    I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Linking two models in a multi-model form

    - by Elliot
    Hey Guys, I have a nested multimodel form right now, using Users and Profiles. Users has_one profile, and Profile belongs_to Users. When the form is submitted, a new user is created, and a new profile is created, but they are not linked (this is the first obvious issue). The user's model has a profile_id row, and the profile's model has a user_id row. Here is the code for the form: <%= form_for(@user, :url => teams_path) do |f| %> <p><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %></p> <p><%= f.label :password %><br /> <%= f.password_field :password %></p> <p><%= f.label :password_confirmation %><br /> <%= f.password_field :password_confirmation %></p> <%= f.hidden_field :role_id, :value => @role.id %></p> <%= f.hidden_field :company_id, :value => current_user.company_id %></p> <%= fields_for @user.profile do |profile_fields| %> <div class="field"> <%= profile_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= profile_fields.text_field :first_name %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= profile_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= profile_fields.text_field :last_name %> </div> <% end %> <p><%= f.submit "Sign up" %></p> <% end %> A second issue, is even though the username, and password are successfully created through the form for the user model, the hidden fields (role_id & company_id - which are also links to other models) are not created (even though they are part of the model) - the values are successfully shown in the HTML for those fields however. Any help would be great!

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