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  • ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

    - by ebb
    Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

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  • Python Error-Checking Standard Practice

    - by chaindriver
    Hi, I have a question regarding error checking in Python. Let's say I have a function that takes a file path as an input: def myFunction(filepath): infile = open(filepath) #etc etc... One possible precondition would be that the file should exist. There are a few possible ways to check for this precondition, and I'm just wondering what's the best way to do it. i) Check with an if-statement: if not os.path.exists(filepath): raise IOException('File does not exist: %s' % filepath) This is the way that I would usually do it, though the same IOException would be raised by Python if the file does not exist, even if I don't raise it. ii) Use assert to check for the precondition: assert os.path.exists(filepath), 'File does not exist: %s' % filepath Using asserts seems to be the "standard" way of checking for pre/postconditions, so I am tempted to use these. However, it is possible that these asserts are turned off when the -o flag is used during execution, which means that this check might potentially be turned off and that seems risky. iii) Don't handle the precondition at all This is because if filepath does not exist, there will be an exception generated anyway and the exception message is detailed enough for user to know that the file does not exist I'm just wondering which of the above is the standard practice that I should use for my codes.

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  • Who to select value from DropDown list in PHP???Problem

    - by sandy
    Hello .. I want to know the error in this code The following code retrieves the names of the members of the database query in the dropdownlist But how do I know who you selected.... I want to send messages only to the members that selected form dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $name = $_POST['sector_list']; echo $name ; ?> <form method="POST" action="" > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('select * from members ') or die (mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option size ="40" value=" '. $row['MemberID'] . '" name="' . $row['MemberName']. '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> I hope somebody can help me

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  • Using fields from an association (has_many) model with formtastic in rails

    - by pduersteler
    I searched and tried a lot, but I can't accomplish it as I want.. so here's my problem. class Moving < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :movingresources, :dependent => :destroy has_many :resources, :through => :movingresources end class Movingresource < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :moving belongs_to :resource end class Resource < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :movingresources has_many :movings, :through => :movingresources end Movingresources contains additional fields, like "quantity". We're working on the views for 'bill'. Thanks to formtastic to simplify the whole relationship thing by just writing <%= form.input :workers, :as => :check_boxes %> and i get a real nice checkbox list. But what I haven't found out so far is: How can i use the additional fields from 'movingresource', next or under each checkbox my desired fields from that model? I saw different approaches, mainly with manually looping through an array of objects and creating the appropriate forms, using :for in a form.inputs part, or not. But none of those solutions were clean (e.g. worked for the edit view but not for new because the required objects were not built or generated and generating them caused a mess). I want to know your solutions for this! :-)

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • 32/64 bit problems with Eclipse CDT on Ubuntu

    - by waffleShirt
    I have just recently started running Linux on my PC and I am trying to start learning OpenGL. I am using the latest version of Eclipse CDT as my IDE, and my system is Ubuntu 10.10, 64 bit version. The problem I am having is that whenever I try to run a build from within the IDE I get the error message "Launch Failed. Binary Not Found." Ive done a lot of looking around on the internet but I still cant solve the problem. I know for a fact that the binary is built, it can be run from a terminal window. According to posts I have seen the problem is that Eclipse tries to run a 32 bit binary, but GCC 4.4.5 defaults to 64 bit binaries on a 64 bit system. Ive seen a lot of information about using the -m32 flag in makefiles, but then I still get the following output in Eclipse: make all g++ -o HelloWorld2 main.o /usr/bin/ld: i386 architecture of input file `main.o' is incompatible with i386:x86-64 output /usr/bin/ld: final link failed: Invalid operation collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [HelloWorld2] Error 1 What I would like to know is how to either get Eclipse to launch the 64 bit binaries, or have Eclipse correctly compile 32 bit binaries.

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  • Problem using Lazy<T> from within a generic abstract class

    - by James Black
    I have a generic class that all my DAO classes derive from, which is defined below. I also have a base class for all my entities, but that is not generic. The method GetIdOrSave is going to be a different type than how I defined SabaAbstractDAO, as I am trying to get the primary key to fulfill the foreign key relationships, so this function goes out to either get the primary key or save the entity and then get the primary key. The last code snippet has a solution on how it will work if I get rid of the generic part, so I think this can be solved by using variance, but I can't figure out how to write an interface that will compile. public abstract class SabaAbstractDAO<T> { ... public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaAbstractDAO<BaseModel>> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { if (item != null && item.Id.IsNull()) { var itemdao = lazyitemdao.Value; item.Id = itemdao.retrieveID(item); if (item.Id.IsNull()) { return itemdao.SaveData(item); } } return item; } } I am getting this error, when I try to compile: Argument 2: cannot convert from 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaCourseDAO>' to 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaAbstractDAO<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Models.BaseModel>>' I am trying to call it this way: GetIdOrSave(input.OfferingTemplate, new Lazy<SabaCourseDAO>( () => { return new SabaCourseDAO() { Dao = Dao }; }) ); If I change the definition to this, it works. public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaCourseDAO> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { So, how can I get this to compile using variance (if needed) and generics, so I can have a very general method that will only work with BaseModel and AbstractDAO<BaseModel>? I expect I should only need to make the change in the method and perhaps abstract class definition, the usage should be fine.

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  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

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  • Raising events and object persistence in Django

    - by Mridang Agarwalla
    Hi, I have a tricky Django problem which didn't occur to me when I was developing it. My Django application allows a user to sign up and store his login credentials for a sites. The Django application basically allows the user to search this other site (by scraping content off it) and returns the result to the user. For each query, it does a couple of queries of the other site. This seemed to work fine but sometimes, the other site slaps me with a CAPTCHA. I've written the code to get the CAPTCHA image and I need to return this to the user so he can type it in but I don't know how. My search request (the query, the username and the password) in my Django application gets passed to a view which in turn calls the backend that does the scraping/search. When a CAPTCHA is detected, I'd like to raise a client side event or something on those lines and display the CAPTCHA to the user and wait for the user's input so that I can resume my search. I would somehow need to persist my backend object between calls. I've tried pickling it but it doesn't work because I get the Can't pickle 'lock' object error. I don't know to implement this though. Any help/ideas? Thanks a ton.

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  • [Wordpress] How do you remove a Category-style (hierarchical) taxonomy metabox

    - by Manny Fleurmond
    I was wondering if someone can help me with this. I'm currently following Shibashake's tutorial about creating custom meta-boxes that include taxonomy selection here: http://shibashake.com/wordpress-theme/wordpress-custom-taxonomy-input-panels . They show how to remove the standard metabox Wordpress automatically creates for taxonomies using the remove_meta_box function. Only problem is that the function for some reason doesn't seem to work on taxonomies that work as categories ie ones where the hierarchical option is set to true. I know I have the function working because the ones set up as tags disappear easily enough. I can't if it just isn't possible or if there is something special I need to add in one of the parameters to make it work. Example: $args = array( 'hierarchical' => false, 'label' =>'People', 'query_var' => true, 'rewrite' => true ); register_taxonomy('people', 'post',$args); remove_meta_box('tagsdiv-people','post','side'); That works fine. If I set hierarchical to 'true, however, the meta box stays put. Can anyone shed some light?

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  • How to Open Multiple PopUp windows with JQuery on form submission (popUps should be relative to form

    - by Ole Jak
    I have A HTML form like this: <form> <fieldset class="ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <select id="Streams" class="multiselect ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" multiple="multiple" name="Streams[]"> <option value="35"> Example Name (35)</option> <option value="44"> Example Name (44)</option> <option value="5698"> Example Name (5698)</option> <option value="777"> Example Name (777)</option> <option value="12"> Example Name (12)</option> </select> <input type="submit" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all" name="submitForm" id="submitForm" value="Play Stream from selected URL's!"/> </fieldset> </form> in my JS + HTML page I use JQuery. As you can see I allow user to select multiple Items. I want to open on Submit button click as many popup windows as many Items he selected in a list. Each popUp window should open some url like www.example.com/test.php?id=OPTION_SELECTED . And here I mean by PopUp Window a real browser window. So for each of the selected options I ll get a pop up window whith diferent url. Please Help.

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  • capturing CMD batch file parameter list; write to file for later processing

    - by BobB
    I have written a batch file that is launched as a post processing utility by a program. The batch file reads ~24 parameters supplied by the calling program, stores them into variables, and then writes them to various text files. Since the max input variable in CMD is %9, it's necessary to use the 'shift' command to repeatedly read and store these individually to named variables. Because the program outputs several similar batch files, the result is opening several CMD windows sequentially, assigning variables and writing data files. This ties up the calling program for too long. It occurs to me that I could free up the calling program much faster if maybe there's a way to write a very simple batch file that can write all the command parameters to a text file, where I can process them later. Basically, just grab the parameter list, write it and done. Q: Is there some way to treat an entire series of parameter data as one big text string and write it to one big variable... and then echo the whole big thing to one text file? Then later read the string into %n variables when there's no program waiting to resume? Parameter list is something like 25 - 30 words, less than 200 characters. Sample parameter list: "First Name" "Lastname" "123 Steet Name Way" "Cityname" ST 12345 1004968 06/01/2010 "Firstname+Lastname" 101738 "On Account" 20.67 xy-1z 1 8.95 3.00 1.39 0 0 239 8.95 Items in quotes are processed as string variables. List is space delimited. Any suggestions?

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  • Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

    - by willoller
    This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

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  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

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  • nullable bool is being passed to the controller null all the time regardless of the value

    - by user1807954
    I'm trying to pass a nullable bool to my controller. But when I pass the bool value from my view to the controller, it's being passed null all the time regardless of the value it has in my view. Here is my view: @model Cars.Models.Car @using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Home", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "CategoryFormID"})) { <label>Convertible:</label> <input type="checkbox" id="ConvertibleID" name="convertible"/> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="search" id="SubmitID">Search</button> } And my controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(bool? convertible){ var cars = from d in db.Car select d; if (convertible.HasValue) { cars = cars.Where(x => x.Convertible == convertible); } return View("SearchResult", cars); } I also have other fields such as drop down lists and text fields, but they're being passed flawless. Any help would be really appreciated. Update: Thank you for your fast responds. However, I did try giving it a value="True" as you guys suggested. There is only 2 options now: null and true. But my intention is to use nullable bool to have three options: null (when user doesn't touch the checkbox), true(checked) and false(unchecked). I know it sounds not smart and silly, but I'm just trying to figure out how nullable bool is working, and what is the intention of having such a thing in C# (I'm new with C#). I was wondering if it is possible to do so with just checkbox and without the use of dropdownlist or radio buttons.

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  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

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  • ASP.Net IE6 disable button

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

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  • Comparing dicts and update a list of result

    - by lmnt
    Hello, I have a list of dicts and I want to compare each dict in that list with a dict in a resulting list, add it to the result list if it's not there, and if it's there, update a counter associated with that dict. At first I wanted to use the solution described at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1692388/python-list-of-dict-if-exists-increment-a-dict-value-if-not-append-a-new-dict but I got an error where one dict can not be used as a key to another dict. So the data structure I opted for is a list where each entry is a dict and an int: r = [[{'src': '', 'dst': '', 'cmd': ''}, 0]] The original dataset (that should be compared to the resulting dataset) is a list of dicts: d1 = {'src': '192.168.0.1', 'dst': '192.168.0.2', 'cmd': 'cmd1'} d2 = {'src': '192.168.0.1', 'dst': '192.168.0.2', 'cmd': 'cmd2'} d3 = {'src': '192.168.0.2', 'dst': '192.168.0.1', 'cmd': 'cmd1'} d4 = {'src': '192.168.0.1', 'dst': '192.168.0.2', 'cmd': 'cmd1'} o = [d1, d2, d3, d4] The result should be: r = [[{'src': '192.168.0.1', 'dst': '192.168.0.2', 'cmd': 'cmd1'}, 2], [{'src': '192.168.0.1', 'dst': '192.168.0.2', 'cmd': 'cmd2'}, 1], [{'src': '192.168.0.2', 'dst': '192.168.0.1', 'cmd': 'cmd1'}, 1]] What is the best way to accomplish this? I have a few code examples but none is really good and most is not working correctly. Thanks for any input on this! UPDATE The final code after Tamås comments is: from collections import namedtuple, defaultdict DataClass = namedtuple("DataClass", "src dst cmd") d1 = DataClass(src='192.168.0.1', dst='192.168.0.2', cmd='cmd1') d2 = DataClass(src='192.168.0.1', dst='192.168.0.2', cmd='cmd2') d3 = DataClass(src='192.168.0.2', dst='192.168.0.1', cmd='cmd1') d4 = DataClass(src='192.168.0.1', dst='192.168.0.2', cmd='cmd1') ds = d1, d2, d3, d4 r = defaultdict(int) for d in ds: r[d] += 1 print "list to compare" for d in ds: print d print "result after merge" for k, v in r.iteritems(): print("%s: %s" % (k, v))

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  • Angular ng-style not changing with property

    - by ganaraj
    For the life of me I cant seem to figure out why the style property is not getting updated. In my larger application it seems to work fine. http://jsfiddle.net/ganarajpr/C2hRa/4/ Here is a fiddle which shows the issue I am currently facing. You will notice that the width and height are getting updated in the div when you change the input. But the style itself doesnt seem to be updating. Anyone can tell me what I am doing wrong here? I have tried all the following scenarios using $scope.$apply.. - Throws an error stating $apply already in progress.. $rootScope.$apply - same as above. Setting another variable in a service which is $watched in the other controller. - no change seen. It would be really cool if someone can get me an answer to this. Also would be really happy if you can tell me why exactly it is not getting updated.

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  • OPTICS Clustering algorithm. How to get the best epsilon

    - by Marco Galassi
    I am implementing a project which needs to cluster geographical points. OPTICS algorithm seems to be a very nice solution. It needs just 2 parameters as input(MinPts and Epsilon), which are, respectively, the minimum number of points needed to consider them as a cluster, and the distance value used to compare if two points are in can be placed in same cluster. My problem is that, due to the extreme variety of the points, I can't set a fixed epsilon. Just look at the image below. The same points structure but in a different scale would result very different. Suppose to set MinPts=2 and epsilon = 1Km. On the left, the algorithm would create 2 clusters(red and blue), but on the right it would create one single cluster containing all of the points(red), but I would like to obtain 2 clusters even on the right. So my question is: is there any kind of way to calculate dynamically the epsilon value to get this result? Thank you very much and excuse my for my poor english. Marco

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  • WPF/MVVM - keep ViewModels in application component or separate?

    - by Anders Juul
    Hi all, I have a WPF application where I'm using the MVVM pattern. I get the VM activated for actions that require user input and thus need to activate views from the VM. I've started out separating the VMs into a separate component/assembly, partly because I see them as the unit testable part, partly because views should rely on VM, not the other way round. But when I then need to bring up a window, the window is not known by the VM. All introductions I find place the VM in the WPF/App component, thus eliminating the problem. This article recommends keeping them in separate layers : http://waf.codeplex.com/wikipage?title=Architecture%20-%20Get%20The%20Big%20Picture&referringTitle=Home As I see it, I have the following choices Move VMs to the WPF/App assembly to allow VMs to access the windows directly. Place interfaces of views in VM-assembly, implement views in WPF/App assembly and register the connection through IOC or alternative ways. File a 'request' from the VM into some mechanism/bus that routes the request (but which mechanism!? E.g something in Prism?!) What's the recommendation? Thanks for any comments, Anders, Denmark

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  • jquery ui dialog in asp.net mvc3 doesn't open on second time

    - by giri
    when i click the New Trade button in the form it opens jquery ui dialog. but, i have link button in the gridview when i click the link button it should open jquery ui dialog, it opens jquery ui dialog before clicking the new trade button. but, after clicking the new trade button, if i click link button in the gridview it invoke "ViewTradeDialog(id)" function, the dialog doesn't open, it shows error message "$vwdia.html(data).dialog is not a function". my code follows: @using (Html.BeginForm("NewTrade", "Trade", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "searchForm" })) { <div id="searchbtn"> <input id="btn_newtrade" type="submit" value="New Trade" /> </div> } jquery code <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { var $loading = $('<img src="../../loading.gif" alt="loading">'); var $dialog = $('<div></div>').append($loading); $('#searchForm').submit(function (e) { var url = this.action; $.ajax({ autoOpen: false, url: url, success: function (data) { $dialog.html(data).dialog({ zIndex:1, width: 1400, height: 600, resizable: false, title: 'New Trade Details', modal: true, buttons: { "close": function () { $dialog.dialog('close'); }, "Add Trade": function () { $dialog.dialog('close'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: url }); } } }); } }); return false; }); }); function ViewTradeDialog(id) { alert(id); var $vwdia = $('<div></div>'); var url = '/Trade/ViewTrades?tradeid=' + id; $.ajax({ url: url, success: function (data) { $vwdia.html(data).dialog({ width: 600, height: 600, resizable: false, title: 'View Trade Details', modal: false, buttons: { "close": function () { $vwdia.dialog('close'); } } }); } }); return false; }

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  • Creating A Single Threaded Server with AnyEvent (Perl)

    - by David Williams
    I'm working on creating a local service to listen on localhost and provide a basic call and response type interface. What I'd like to start with is a baby server that you can connect to over telnet and echoes what it receives. I've heard AnyEvent is great for this, but the documentation for AnyEvent::Socket does not give a very good example how to do this. I'd like to build this with AnyEvent, AnyEvent::Socket and AnyEvent::Handle. Right now the little server code looks like this: #!/usr/bin/env perl use AnyEvent; use AnyEvent::Handle; use AnyEvent::Socket; my $cv = AnyEvent->condvar; my $host = '127.0.0.1'; my $port = 44244; tcp_server($host, $port, sub { my($fh) = @_; my $cv = AnyEvent->condvar; my $handle; $handle = AnyEvent::Handle->new( fh => $fh, poll => "r", on_read => sub { my($self) = @_; print "Received: " . $self->rbuf . "\n"; $cv->send; } ); $cv->recv; }); print "Listening on $host\n"; $cv->wait; This doesn't work and also if I telnet to localhost:44244 I get this: EV: error in callback (ignoring): AnyEvent::CondVar: recursive blocking wait attempted at server.pl line 29. I think if I understand how to make a mini, single threaded server that simply prints out whatever its given and then waits for more input, I could take it a lot further from there. Any ideas?

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  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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  • EOFException in ObjectInputStream thrown accessing Servlet. Only for Webstart ?!

    - by Houtman
    Hi, My app. is started from both the commandline and by using an JNLP file. Im running java version 1.6.0_14 First i had the problem that i created the Buffered input and output streams in incorrect order. Found the solution here at StackOverflow . So starting from the commandline works fine now. But when starting the app using Webstart, it ends here java.io.EOFException at java.io.ObjectInputStream$PeekInputStream.readFully(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream$BlockDataInputStream.readShort(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readStreamHeader(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.<init>(Unknown Source) at <..>remoting.thinclient.RemoteSocketChannel.<init>(RemoteSocketChannel.java:76) I found some posts regarding similar problems; at bugs.sun.com - identifies problem as solved in 6u10(b12)? at ibm.com - identifies cookies problem The latter suggests that there is a problem in Webstart with cookies. It doesn't seem to be acknowledged as a proper java bug though.. Still i am a bit lost in the solution provided regarding the cookies. Can anyone expand on the cookie solution? Many thanks.

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