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  • javascript and css working on firefox but not working on IE

    - by Nirbhay saini
    Hi I have this code which working on fitrefox but not working on IE missing last charector on IE <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>wrapped</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function set_padd(){ var tt = document.getElementById("span_padding").innerHTML; var txt = new Array(); txt = tt.split(" "); var atxt = ''; var f_txt = ''; var wrd_pr_linr = 4; var cnt = 1; for(var i = 0; i < txt.length; i++){ if(txt[i].length > 0){ txt[i] = txt[i].replace(' ',''); if(cnt < wrd_pr_linr){ if(txt[i].length > 0){ atxt += ' '+txt[i].replace(' ',''); cnt++; } }else{ f_txt += '<a class="padd_txt" >'+atxt+'</a><br />'; atxt = ''; cnt = 1; } } } document.getElementById("span_padding").innerHTML = f_txt; } </script> <style type="text/css"> .padd_txt{padding:7px;background:#009;color:#FFF;line-height:26px;font-size:14px;} body{font-family:'Trebuchet MS', Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size:24px; line-height:1.2em;} span{background-color: #009; width:200px; color: #FFF;" class="blocktext;} </style> </head> <body onload="set_padd();"> <div style="width: 350px;"> <p> <span id="span_padding"> This is what I want to happen where one long string is wrapped and the text has this highlight color behind it. </span> </div> </body> </html> out put on firefox is This is I want to happen where one string is wrapped and the text this highlight behind it. and output on IE This is what want to happen one long string wrapped and the has this highlight missing last two word

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  • PHP script works fine until I send it a parameter from HTTPService in Flash Builder 4?

    - by ben
    I'm using a PHP script to read an RSS feed in my Flex 4 app. The script works when I put the url of the feed in the actual script, but I can't get it to work when I try to send the URL as a parameter from a HTTPService in Flex. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Here is the HTTPService from Flex 4 that I'm using: <mx:HTTPService url="http://talk.6te.net/proxy.php" id="proxyService" method="POST" result="rssResult()" fault="rssFault()"> <mx:request> <url> http://feeds.feedburner.com/nah_right </url> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> This is the script that works: <?php $ch = curl_init(); $timeout = 30; $userAgent = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://feeds.feedburner.com/nah_right"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, $timeout); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $userAgent); $response = curl_exec($ch); if (curl_errno($ch)) { echo curl_error($ch); } else { curl_close($ch); echo $response; } ?> But this is what I actually want to use, but it doesn't work: <?php $ch = curl_init(); $timeout = 30; $userAgent = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $_REQUEST['url']); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, $timeout); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $userAgent); $response = curl_exec($ch); if (curl_errno($ch)) { echo curl_error($ch); } else { curl_close($ch); echo $response; } ?> Here is the request and response output of the HTTPService from the network monitor in Flash Builder 4 (using the PHP script that doesn't work): Request: POST /proxy.php HTTP/1.1 Host: talk.6te.net User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Content-type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Content-length: 97 url=%0A%09%09%09%09%09http%3A%2F%2Ffeeds%2Efeedburner%2Ecom%2Fnah%5Fright%0A%20%20%20%20%09%09%09 Response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 10 May 2010 03:23:27 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.13 Content-Length: 15 Content-Type: text/html <url> malformed I've tried putting the URL in " " in the HTTPService, but that didn't do anything. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • JavaScript: How to get the instance name of an object

    - by Quandary
    I use the below code to write code to query a web method in a specified interval. now in the this.Poll function I have to do this.tmo = setTimeout(this.strInstanceName + ".Poll()", this.iInterval); instead of this.tmo = setTimeout(this.Poll(), this.iInterval); because IE looses the this object after setTimeout So I have to pass the class it's instance name: var objPoll = new cPoll("objPoll"); How can I get the instance name without passing it as parameter ? I want to have it outta there ! <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <title>Intervall-Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function test() { alert("Test"); test.tmo = setTimeout(test, 2000); test.Clear = function() { clearTimeout(test.tmo); } } function cPoll(strInstanceName) { this.strInstanceName = strInstanceName ; this.iInterval = 2000; this.tmo=null; this.cbFunction=null; alert(this.Name ); this.Poll = function() { this.cbFunction(); this.tmo = setTimeout(this.strInstanceName + ".Poll()", this.iInterval); } this.Start = function(pCallBackFunction, iIntervalParameter) { if(this.tmo != null) this.Stop(); if(iIntervalParameter && iIntervalParameter > 0) this.iInterval=iIntervalParameter; this.cbFunction=pCallBackFunction; if(this.cbFunction!=null) this.Poll(); else alert("Invalid or no callback function specified"); } this.Stop = function() { if(this.tmo != null) { clearTimeout(this.tmo); this.tmo=null; } } } function CallBackFunction() { alert("PollCallBack"); } // test(); // test.Clear(); var objPoll = new cPoll("objPoll"); </script> </head> <body> <h1>Test</h1> <input type="Button" value="Start polling" onclick="objPoll.Start(CallBackFunction,3000);" /> <input type="Button" value="Stop polling" onclick="objPoll.Stop();" /> </body> </html>

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  • one page over 9 different urls

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? I have no idea of coding. # URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on # URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)\-([a-z0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] # Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^***.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.***.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.*index\.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.*)index\.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • developing maven plugin, how to exclude bitkeeper files

    - by Denali
    Hi There, I am trying to write my first maven plugin. I'd like to exclude all the java files related to the source repository I'm using, which is BitKeeper. These files live in directories called SCCS. I can't for the life of me figure out how to do this. When I add the maven-compile-plugin with excludes data, it works (the bk files are excluded) if I specify mvn compiler:compile. But this is not binding to the compile phase. So that when I run mvn compile, it blows up trying to compile a source control specific java file. Any help or pointers appreciated. Another thing to note: Everything works perfectly if I change the packaging from "maven-plugin" to "jar", which of course, I can't do permanently since this is a maven plugin I am trying to write. I'm sorry if this is answered elsewhere. I've looked around for several hours here and through the maven docs, but everything on this topic seems to be related to writing code which will be packaged in jars, not maven plugins. Here's my pom.xml: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>com.mycomp.mygroup</groupId> <artifactId>special-persistence-plugin</artifactId> <packaging>maven-plugin</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> <name>Special Persistence Plugin</name> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.maven</groupId> <artifactId>maven-plugin-api</artifactId> <version>2.0</version> </dependency> </dependencies> <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> <encoding>UTF-8</encoding> <excludes> <exclude>**/SCCS/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <phase>compile</phase> <goals> <goal>compiler:compile</goal> </goals> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> Thank you to anyone with ideas about this, -Denali

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  • PERL newbie : get a proper minimal debug_mode solution

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I am learning PERL in a "head-first" manner. I am absolutely a newbie in this language: I am trying to have a debug_mode switch from CLI which can be used to control how my script works, by switching certain subroutines "on and off". And below is what I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -s -w # purpose : make subroutine execution optional, # which is depending on a CLI switch flag use strict; use warnings; use constant DEBUG_VERBOSE => "v"; use constant DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS => "s"; use constant DEBUG_IGNORE_VALIDATION => "i"; use constant DEBUG_SETPPING_COMPUTATION => "c"; our ($debug_mode); mainMethod(); sub mainMethod # () { if(!$debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is OFF\n"; } elsif($debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is ON\n"; } else { print "OMG!\n"; exit -1; } checkArgv(); printErrorMsg("Error_Code_123", "Parsing Error at..."); verbose(); } sub checkArgv #() { print ("Number of ARGV : ".(1 + $#ARGV)."\n"); } sub printErrorMsg # ($error_code, $error_msg, ..) { if(defined($debug_mode) && !($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS)) { print "You can only see me if -debug_mode is NOT set". " to DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS\n"; die("terminated prematurely...\n") and exit -1; } } sub verbose # () { if(defined($debug_mode) && ($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_VERBOSE)) { print "Blah blah blah...\n"; } } So far as I can tell, at least it works...: the -debug_mode switch doesn't interfere with normal ARGV the following commandlines work: ./optional.pl ./optional.pl -debug_mode ./optional.pl -debug_mode=v ./optional.pl -debug_mode=s However, I am puzzled when multiple debug_modes are "mixed", such as: ./optional.pl -debug_mode=sv ./optional.pl -debug_mode=vs I don't understand why the above lines of code "magically works". I see both of the "DEBUG_VERBOS" and "DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS" apply to the script, which is fine in this case. However, if there are some "conflicting" debug modes, I am not sure how to set the "precedence of debue_modes"? Also, I am not certain if my approach is good enough to Perlists and I hope I am getting my feet in the right direction. One biggest problem is that I now put if statements inside most of my subroutines for controlling their behavior under different modes. Is this okay? Is there a more elegant way? I know there must be a debug module from CPAN or elsewhere, but I wanna a real minimal solution that doesn't depend on any other module than the "default" And I cannot have any control on the environment where this script will be executed... Many thanks to the suggestions in advance.

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  • Using ViewModel Pattern with MVC 2 Strongly Typed HTML Helpers

    - by Brettski
    I am working with ASP.NET MVC2 RC and can't figure out how to get the HTML helper, TextBoxfor to work with a ViewModel pattern. When used on an edit page the data is not saved when UpdateModel() is called in the controller. I have taken the following code examples from the NerdDinner application. Edit.aspx <%@ Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<NerdDinner.Models.DinnerFormViewModel>" %> ... <p> // This works when saving in controller (MVC 1) <label for="Title">Dinner Title:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Title", Model.Dinner.Title) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Title", "*") %> </p> <p> // This does not work when saving in the controller (MVC 2) <label for="Title">Dinner Title:</label> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Dinner.Title) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model=> model.Dinner.Title) %> </p> DinnerController // POST: /Dinners/Edit/5 [HttpPost, Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); if (!dinner.IsHostedBy(User.Identity.Name)) return View("InvalidOwner"); try { UpdateModel(dinner); dinnerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }); } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(dinner.GetRuleViolations()); return View(new DinnerFormViewModel(dinner)); } } When the original helper style is used (Http.TextBox) the UpdateModel(dinner) call works as expected and the new values are saved. When the new (MVC2) helper style is used (Http.TextBoxFor) the UpdateModel(dinner) call does not update the values. Yes, the current values are loaded into the edit page on load. Is there something else which I need to add to the controller code for it to work? The new helper works fine if I am just using a model and not a ViewModel pattern. Thank you.

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  • If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

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  • Interop.Outlook.UserProperties.Add causing problem during connection time

    - by Akie
    Hi All, I have created a plug-in for outlook. Plug-in has only below code. private void OnNewOutlookInspector(Outlook.Inspector OutlookInsptr) { Outlook.MailItem MlItem = (Outlook.MailItem)OutlookInsptr.CurrentItem; //if I remove below line. Everything is working fine. MlItem.UserProperties.Add("INSPINIT", Outlook.OlUserPropertyType.olText , true , true ).Value = "1"; } public void OnConnection(object application, Extensibility.ext_ConnectMode connectMode, object addInInst, ref System.Array custom) { applicationObject = application; addInInstance = addInInst; MessageBox.Show("in connection new 2"); OutlkApp = (Outlook.Application)application; OutlkInsptrs = OutlkApp.Inspectors; OutlkInsptrs.NewInspector += new Outlook.InspectorsEvents_NewInspectorEventHandler(OnNewOutlookInspector); } Problem I am facing is, When I send HTML mail while plug-in is enabled, receiving end it is being received as a plain text. Below is the mail content along with the header and body at recieving end. x-sender: [email protected] x-receiver: [email protected] Received: from blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com ([192.168.1.107]) by blr-ws-134.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.2600.5949); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Received: from blrws134 ([192.168.1.175]) by blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.4675); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 From: "Ashif Nataliya" <[email protected]> To: <[email protected]> Cc: <[email protected]> Subject: RTF FRM blr to pc.com cc blr-ws-134 Date: Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Message-ID: <[email protected]> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="----=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580" X-Mailer: Microsoft Outlook 14.0 Content-Language: en-us X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: 00000000DCB2344DE8F50F4FBC91085BB5C06D55A4172000 thread-index: AcuhzRuTOBkvHPUnS1aLi9+cHNAWhA== Return-Path: [email protected] X-OriginalArrivalTime: 22 Dec 2010 11:41:02.0822 (UTC) FILETIME=[1C788860:01CBA1CD] This is a multipart message in MIME format. ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit HTML Test Test Mail ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: application/ms-tnef; name="winmail.dat" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="winmail.dat" // and some other code..... Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • javascript problems when generating html reports from within java

    - by posdef
    Hi, I have been working on a Java project in which the reports will be generated in HTML, so I am implementing methods for creating these reports. One important functionality is to be able to have as much info as possible in the tables, but still not clutter too much. In other words the details should be available if the user wishes to take a look at them but not necessarily visible by default. I have done some searching and testing and found an interesting template for hiding/showing content with the use of CSS and javascript, the problem is that when I try the resultant html page the scripts dont work. I am not sure if it's due a problem in Java or in the javascript itself. I have compared the html code that java produces to the source where I found the template, they seem to match pretty well. Below are bits of my java code that generates the javascript and the content, i would greatly appreciate if anyone can point out the possible reasons for this problem: //goes to head private void addShowHideScript() throws IOException{ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"JavaScript\">\n"); sb.append("<!--function HideContent(d) {\n"); sb.append("document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"none\";}\n"); sb.append("function ShowContent(d) {\n"); sb.append("document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"block\";}\n"); sb.append("function ReverseDisplay(d) {\n"); sb.append("if(document.getElementById(d).style.display==\"none\")\n"); sb.append("{ document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"block\"; }\n"); sb.append("else { document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"none\"; }\n}\n"); sb.append("//--></script>\n"); out.write(sb.toString()); out.newLine(); } // body private String linkShowHideContent(String pathname, String divname){ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append("<a href=\"javascript:ReverseDisplay('"); sb.append(divname); sb.append("')\">"); sb.append(pathname); sb.append("</a>"); return sb.toString(); } // content out.write(linkShowHideContent("hidden content", "ex")); out.write("<div id=\"ex\" style=\"display:block;\">"); out.write("<p>Content goes here.</p></div>");

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  • How to communicate between Client and Server in a Client-Server Application?

    - by Sanoj
    I would like to implement an Client-Server Application, where the business-logic, security validations and a database are at the server and the user interface are at the client. I would like to implement clients in different languages i.e. one in WPF/.NET, one Swing/Java , one in Android/Java and maybe one HTML/JavaScript client. The server will be on Internet, so I would like to be able to have encrypted communication. The client will send some lists of items to be added to the database, or update items, and do some transactions. The server will check if the items are already updated by another client, or update the item, add new items or delete items. How do I solve the communication between clients and the server in such a system? I have been thinking about: http/https webserver, and sending messages in JSON or XML and use Web Sockets for bi-directional communication. Use http in a RESTful way, except when WebSockets are needed. But I guess there are better solutions for native desktop applications than http? CORBA - I have just heard about it, and it's old and complex. Not much talk about it these days. XMPP/Jabber - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. EJabberd seams to be a popular implementation. AMQP - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. RabbitMQ seams to be a popular implementation. Windows Communication Foundation, Java RMI, Java Message Service - but are they language independent? I guess some of these alternatives are on different levels, maybe I can have i.e xmpp or amqp in web sockets over https? What technologys are used for this problem in companies today? and what is recommended to use? I have no experience of them other than webservers and http. Please give me some guidance in this jungle. What are the pros and cons of these technologies in my situation?

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  • RCP applicatoon activities

    - by Peter
    I have a problem with my RCP application. First, I defined an activity in my plugin.xml: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.activities"> <activity id="myproject.view.input.activity" name="myproject.view.input.activity"> <enabledWhen> <with variable="myproject.view.input.active"> <equals value="ENABLED"> </equals> </with> </enabledWhen> </activity> <activityPatternBinding activityId="myproject.view.input.activity" pattern="myproject.gui/myproject.view.input"> </activityPatternBinding> Then i defined my SourceProvider: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.services"> <sourceProvider provider="myproject.util.CommandState"> <variable name="myproject.view.input.active" priorityLevel="workbench"> </variable> And, finally, my CommandState class: public class CommandState extends AbstractSourceProvider { public final static String OUTPUT_VIEW = "myproject.view.input.active"; // then goes some others variables, i just skip them // .... public final static String [] ACTIONS = {OUTPUT_VIEW /*and all others variables*/}; public final static String ENABLED = "ENABLED"; public final static String DISENABLED = "DISENABLED"; private final Map <String, String> currentState = new HashMap <String, String> (); @Override public void dispose() { } @Override public String[] getProvidedSourceNames() { return ACTIONS; } @Override public Map <String, String> getCurrentState() { return currentState; } public void setEnabled(boolean enabled, String [] commands) { String value = enabled ? ENABLED : DISENABLED; for (String command : commands) { currentState.put(command, value); fireSourceChanged(ISources.WORKBENCH, command, value); } } } In my Login window, application checks user permissions, and enable or disable views, commands, etc. with setEnabled method of CommandState. For commands it works fine, they are enabling or disabling correctly. But when i try to disable view and open perspective, that contains that view (myproject.view.input), it opened without that view, but also throws exception: !STACK 1 org.eclipse.ui.PartInitException: Could not create view: myproject.view.input at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ViewFactory.createView(ViewFactory.java:158) I can show full stacktrace if anyone want. I tried to debug my application and before i open my perspective whith that view, i checked currentState of my CommandState source provider, and all seemes to be ok: all variables values are correct and myproject.view.input.active = DISABLED Can anyone say, why exception is thrown? Thanks for any help. Sorry for big post and bad language

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  • Python/Biophysics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation!

    - by user359597
    Hey guys- I'm trying to figure out what to make of the following code- this is not the clear, intuitive python I've been learning. Was it written in C or something then wrapped in a python fxn? The code I wrote (not shown) is using the same math, but I couldn't figure out how to write a conditional loop. If anyone could explain/decipher/clean this up, I'd be really appreciative. I mean- is this 'good' python- or does it look funky? I'm brand new to this- but it's like the order of the fxns is messed up? I understand Gillespie's- I've successfully coded several simpler simulations. So in a nutshell- good code-(pythonic)? order? c? improvements? am i being an idiot? The code shown is the 'answer,' to the following question from a biophysics text (petri-net not shown and honestly not necessary to understand problem): "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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  • Running same powershell script multiple asynchronous times with separate runspace

    - by teqnomad
    Hi, I have a powershell script which is called by a batch script which is called by Trap Receiver (which also passes environment variables) (running on windows 2008). The traps are flushed out at times in sets of 2-4 trap events, and the batch script will echo the trap details for each message to a logfile, but the powershell script on the next line of the batch script will only appear to process the first trap message (the powershell script writes to the same logfile). My interpetation is that the defaultrunspace is common to all iterations of the script running and this is why the others appear to be ignored. I've tried adding "-sta" when I invoke the powershell script using "powershell.exe -command", but this didn't help. I've researched and found a method using C# but I don't know this language, and busy enough learning powershell, so hoping to find a more direct solution especially as interleaving a "wrapper" between batch and powershell will involve passing the environment variables. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/threads/AsyncPowerShell.aspx I've hunted through stackoverflow, and again the only question of similar vein was using C#. Any suggestions welcome. Some script background: The powershell script is actually a modification of a great script found at gregorystrike website - cant post the link as I'm limited to one link but its the one for Lefthand arrays. Lots of mods so it can do multiple targets from one .ini file, taking in the environment variables, and options to run portions of the script interactively with winform. But you can see the gist of the original script. The batch script is pretty basic. The keys things are I'm trying to filter out trap noise using the :~ operator, and I tried -sta option to see if this would compartmentalise the powershell script. set debug=off set CMD_LINE_ARGS="%*" set LHIPAddress="%2" set VARBIND8="%8" shift shift shift shift shift shift shift set CHASSIS="%9" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Trap Received: %LHIPAddress% %CHASSIS% %VARBIND8%" >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt set ACTION="%VARBIND8:~39,18%" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Action substring is %ACTION%" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt if %ACTION%=="Remote Copy Volume" ( echo Prepostlefthand_env_v2.9 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\PowerShell.exe -sta -executionpolicy unrestricted -command " & 'C:\Scripts\prepostlefthand_env_v2.9.ps1' Backupsettings.ini ALL" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt ) ELSE ( echo %DATE% %TIME% Action substring is %ACTION% so exiting" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap.out.txt ) exit

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  • Auto-scaffolding Index views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

    - by Chris Thompson
    Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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  • Creating a music catalog in C# and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

    - by Rad
    I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs. Thanks, Rad

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  • JQuery autocomplete: is not working asp.net

    - by Abu Hamzah
    is that something wrong in the below code? its not firing at all edit <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="HostPage.aspx.cs" Inherits="HostPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://dev.jquery.com/view/trunk/plugins/autocomplete/jquery.autocomplete.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://dev.jquery.com/view/trunk/plugins/autocomplete/jquery.autocomplete.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=txtHost.UniqueID %>").autocomplete("HostService.asmx/GetHosts", { dataType: 'json' , contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" , parse: function(data) { var rows = Array(); debugger for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { rows[i] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].LName, result: data[i].LName }; } return rows; } , formatItem: function(row, i, max) { return data.LName + ", " + data.FName; } }); }); </script> <div> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label4' >Host Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHost" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <p> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Constraint Satisfaction Problem

    - by Carl Smotricz
    I'm struggling my way through Artificial Intelligence: A Modern Approach in order to alleviate my natural stupidity. In trying to solve some of the exercises, I've come up against the "Who Owns the Zebra" problem, Exercise 5.13 in Chapter 5. This has been a topic here on SO but the responses mostly addressed the question "how would you solve this if you had a free choice of problem solving software available?" I accept that Prolog is a very appropriate programming language for this kind of problem, and there are some fine packages available, e.g. in Python as shown by the top-ranked answer and also standalone. Alas, none of this is helping me "tough it out" in a way as outlined by the book. The book appears to suggest building a set of dual or perhaps global constraints, and then implementing some of the algorithms mentioned to find a solution. I'm having a lot of trouble coming up with a set of constraints suitable for modelling the problem. I'm studying this on my own so I don't have access to a professor or TA to get me over the hump - this is where I'm asking for your help. I see little similarity to the examples in the chapter. I was eager to build dual constraints and started out by creating (the logical equivalent of) 25 variables: nationality1, nationality2, nationality3, ... nationality5, pet1, pet2, pet3, ... pet5, drink1 ... drink5 and so on, where the number was indicative of the house's position. This is fine for building the unary constraints, e.g. The Norwegian lives in the first house: nationality1 = { :norway }. But most of the constraints are a combination of two such variables through a common house number, e.g. The Swede has a dog: nationality[n] = { :sweden } AND pet[n] = { :dog } where n can range from 1 to 5, obviously. Or stated another way: nationality1 = { :sweden } AND pet1 = { :dog } XOR nationality2 = { :sweden } AND pet2 = { :dog } XOR nationality3 = { :sweden } AND pet3 = { :dog } XOR nationality4 = { :sweden } AND pet4 = { :dog } XOR nationality5 = { :sweden } AND pet5 = { :dog } ...which has a decidedly different feel to it than the "list of tuples" advocated by the book: ( X1, X2, X3 = { val1, val2, val3 }, { val4, val5, val6 }, ... ) I'm not looking for a solution per se; I'm looking for a start on how to model this problem in a way that's compatible with the book's approach. Any help appreciated.

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  • What is the best algorithm for this problem?

    - by mark
    What is the most efficient algorithm to solve the following problem? Given 6 arrays, D1,D2,D3,D4,D5 and D6 each containing 6 numbers like: D1[0] = number D2[0] = number ...... D6[0] = number D1[1] = another number D2[1] = another number .... ..... .... ...... .... D1[5] = yet another number .... ...... .... Given a second array ST1, containing 1 number: ST1[0] = 6 Given a third array ans, containing 6 numbers: ans[0] = 3, ans[1] = 4, ans[2] = 5, ......ans[5] = 8 Using as index for the arrays D1,D2,D3,D4,D5 and D6, the number that goes from 0, to the number stored in ST1[0] minus one, in this example 6, so from 0 to 6-1, compare each res array against each D array My algorithm so far is: I tried to keep everything unlooped as much as possible. EML := ST1[0] //number contained in ST1[0] EML1 := 0 //start index for the arrays D While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 //bad row of numbers, if while ends two: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 three: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 four: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 five: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 six: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 //good row of numbers if D2[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D3[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D4[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D5[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D6[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 As language of choice, it would be pure c

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  • Reinitialize the current month name, when i click button

    - by EswaraMoorthyNEC
    Hi,In my richCalendar.jsp page, first time i click the showCurrentMonth button and display the current month using rich:calendar. i select some other month i click SelectedMonth button. I show the selected month name. My problem is : I go to any other page. then i come visit the richCalendar.jsp and again click showCurrentMonth button, this time the rich:calendar show the already selected month instead of current month . Each time, i want to show current month when i click showCurrentMonth. richCalendar.jsp <body> <h:form id="calendarForm" binding="#{CalenderBean.initForm}"> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel id="calendarOutputPanel"> <h:panelGrid> <a4j:commandButton value="showCurrentMonth" action="#{CalenderBean.showCurrentMonthAction}" reRender="monthlyPanelGridId,monthlyCalendarId,calendarOutputPanel"/> <h:panelGrid id="monthlyPanelGridId" rendered="#{CalenderBean.monthlyCalendarRendered}" > <rich:calendar boundaryDatesMode="scroll" id="monthlyCalendarId" showWeekDaysBar="false" oncurrentdateselected="event.rich.component.selectDate(event.rich.date)" showFooter="false" popup="false" value="#{CalenderBean.selectedMonth}"/> </h:panelGrid> <h:panelGrid id = "SearchButtonGrid"> <a4j:commandButton id="SelectedMonth" value="SelectedMonth" action="#{CalenderBean.selectedMonthButtonAction}" reRender="calendarOutputPanel"/> <h:outputText value="#{CalenderBean.selectedMonthName}" /> </h:panelGrid> </h:panelGrid> </a4j:outputPanel> <rich:panel></h:form></body> CalenderBean.java import java.util.Calendar; import java.util.Date; import javax.faces.component.html.HtmlForm; public class CalenderBean { private HtmlForm initForm; private boolean monthlyCalendarRendered; private Date selectedMonth; private String selectedMonthName; public CalenderBean() { } public String showCurrentMonthAction() { monthlyCalendarRendered = true; Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); int startingDate = calendar.getActualMinimum(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH); calendar.set(Calendar.DATE, startingDate); selectedMonth = calendar.getTime(); return ""; } public String selectedMonthButtonAction() { selectedMonthName = selectedMonth.toString(); return ""; } public HtmlForm getInitForm() { selectedMonth = null; monthlyCalendarRendered = false; return initForm; } public void setInitForm(HtmlForm initForm){ this.initForm = initForm; } public boolean isMonthlyCalendarRendered(){ return monthlyCalendarRendered; } public void setMonthlyCalendarRendered(boolean monthlyCalendarRendered){ this.monthlyCalendarRendered = monthlyCalendarRendered; } public Date getSelectedMonth(){ return selectedMonth; } public void setSelectedMonth(Date selectedMonth){ this.selectedMonth = selectedMonth; } public String getSelectedMonthName(){ return selectedMonthName; } public void setSelectedMonthName(String selectedMonthName){ this.selectedMonthName = selectedMonthName; } } First time i visit this page perfectly show the current month. Then i go to any othe page and then come to see this page, click showCurrentMonth button not show the current month. Help me. Thanks in advance.

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  • Cluster failover and strange gratuitous arp behavior

    - by lazerpld
    I am experiencing a strange Windows 2008R2 cluster related issue that is bothering me. I feel that I have come close as to what the issue is, but still don't fully understand what is happening. I have a two node exchange 2007 cluster running on two 2008R2 servers. The exchange cluster application works fine when running on the "primary" cluster node. The problem occurs when failing over the cluster ressource to the secondary node. When failing over the cluster to the "secondary" node, which for instance is on the same subnet as the "primary", the failover initially works ok and the cluster ressource continues to work for a couple of minutes on the new node. Which means that the recieving node does send out a gratuitous arp reply packet that updated the arp tables on the network. But after x amount of time (typically within 5 minutes time) something updates the arp-tables again because all of a sudden the cluster service does not answer to pings. So basically I start a ping to the exchange cluster address when its running on the "primary node". It works just great. I failover the cluster ressource group to the "secondary node" and I only have loss of one ping which is acceptable. The cluster ressource still answers for some time after being failed over and all of a sudden the ping starts timing out. This is telling me that the arp table initially is updated by the secondary node, but then something (which I haven't found out yet) wrongfully updates it again, probably with the primary node's MAC. Why does this happen - has anyone experienced the same problem? The cluster is NOT running NLB and the problem stops immidiately after failing over back to the primary node where there are no problems. Each node is using NIC teaming (intel) with ALB. Each node is on the same subnet and has gateway and so on entered correctly as far as I am concerned. Edit: I was wondering if it could be related to network binding order maybe? Because I have noticed that the only difference I can see from node to node is when showing the local arp table. On the "primary" node the arp table is generated on the cluster address as the source. While on the "secondary" its generated from the nodes own network card. Any input on this? Edit: Ok here is the connection layout. Cluster address: A.B.6.208/25 Exchange application address: A.B.6.212/25 Node A: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.210/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.138/24 Node B: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.211/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.139/24 Each node sits in a seperate datacenter connected together. End switches being cisco in DC1 and NEXUS 5000/2000 in DC2. Edit: I have been testing a little more. I have now created an empty application on the same cluster, and given it another ip address on the same subnet as the exchange application. After failing this empty application over, I see the exact same problem occuring. After one or two minutes clients on other subnets cannot ping the virtual ip of the application. But while clients on other subnets cannot, another server from another cluster on the same subnet has no trouble pinging. But if i then make another failover to the original state, then the situation is the opposite. So now clients on same subnet cannot, and on other they can. We have another cluster set up the same way and on the same subnet, with the same intel network cards, the same drivers and same teaming settings. Here we are not seeing this. So its somewhat confusing. Edit: OK done some more research. Removed the NIC teaming of the secondary node, since it didnt work anyway. After some standard problems following that, I finally managed to get it up and running again with the old NIC teaming settings on one single physical network card. Now I am not able to reproduce the problem described above. So it is somehow related to the teaming - maybe some kind of bug? Edit: Did some more failing over without being able to make it fail. So removing the NIC team looks like it was a workaround. Now I tried to reestablish the intel NIC teaming with ALB (as it was before) and i still cannot make it fail. This is annoying due to the fact that now i actually cannot pinpoint the root of the problem. Now it just seems to be some kind of MS/intel hick-up - which is hard to accept because what if the problem reoccurs in 14 days? There is a strange thing that happened though. After recreating the NIC team I was not able to rename the team to "PUBLIC" which the old team was called. So something has not been cleaned up in windows - although the server HAS been restarted! Edit: OK after restablishing the ALB teaming the error came back. So I am now going to do some thorough testing and i will get back with my observations. One thing is for sure. It is related to Intel 82575EB NICS, ALB and Gratuitous Arp.

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  • Sharepoint web part stops working because of Resources.en-US.resx file

    - by Eric C
    I've been developing a Sharepoint web part, which had been working fine upon deployment. The web part has been developed with WSP Builder, packaged up and then deployed via stsadm. The web part has been deployed tens, if not a hundred times to the dev box with no problems. Now, the web part throws an error which breaks the page it's on: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] NYCIRB.DMS.WebParts.SearchUpload.SearchUpload.HandleException(Exception ex) +62 NYCIRB.DMS.WebParts.SearchUpload.SearchUpload.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +214 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 When looking through my Sharepoint logs, I find these errors repeated over and over which correspond to the time the web part was attempted to be loaded: 01/19/2009 10:53:14.43 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 72kg High (#2: Cannot open "Resources.en-US.resx": no such file or folder.) 01/19/2009 10:53:14.43 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 8e26 Medium Failed to open the language resource for Fea367b94a9-4a15-42ba-b4a2-32420363e018 keyfile Resources. 01/19/2009 10:53:17.55 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 8e25 Medium Failed to look up string with key "XomlUrl", keyfile core. 01/19/2009 10:53:17.55 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 8l3c Medium Localized resource for token 'XomlUrl' could not be found for file with path: "C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Extensions\12\Template\Features\Fields\fieldswss.xml". 01/19/2009 10:53:17.55 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 8e25 Medium Failed to look up string with key "RulesUrl", keyfile core. 01/19/2009 10:53:17.55 w3wp.exe (0x05E0) 0x00FC Windows SharePoint Services General 8l3c Medium Localized resource for token 'RulesUrl' could not be found for file with path: "C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Extensions\12\Template\Features\Fields\fieldswss.xml". I've retracted the web part manually through Solution Management, retracted through stsadm, checked for the existence of the resource file, which is nowhere to be found. I'm pretty much at a loss to why this happened or how to resolve it.

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  • Display lable character by character using javascript

    - by Muhammad Sajid
    Hi, I am creating Hang a Man using PHP, MySQL & Javascript. Every thing is going perfect, I get a word randomly from DB show it as a label apply it a class where display = none. Now when I click on a Character that character become disable fine which i actually want but the label-character does not show. My code is: <link href="style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <?php include( 'config.php' ); $question = questions(); // Get question. $alpha = alphabats(); // Get alphabets. ?> <script language="javascript"> function clickMe( name ){ var question = '<?php echo $question; ?>'; var questionLen = <?php echo strlen($question); ?>; for ( var i = 0; i < questionLen; i++ ){ if ( question[i] == name ){ var link = document.getElementById( name ); link.style.display = 'none'; var label = document.getElementById( 'questionLabel' + i ); label.style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> <div> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < 26; $i++ ) { echo "<td><a href='#' id=$alpha[$i] name=$alpha[$i] onclick=clickMe('$alpha[$i]');>". $alpha[$i] ."</a>&nbsp;</td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> <br/> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < strlen($question); $i++ ) { echo "<td class='question'><label id=questionLabel$i >". $question[$i] ."</label></td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> </div>

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  • Function-Local Static Const variable Initialization semantics.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The questions are in bold, for those that cannot be bothered reading a question in depth. This is a followup to this question. It is to do with the initialization semantics of static variables in functions. Static variables should be initialized once, and their internal state might be altered later - as I (currently) do in the linked question. However, the code in question does not require the feature to change the state of the variable later. Let me clarrify my position, since I don't require the string object's internal state to change. The code is for a trait class for meta programming, and as such would would benifit from a const char * const ptr -- thus Ideally a local cost static const variable is needed. My educated guess is that in this case the string in question will be optimally placed in memory by the link-loader, and that the code is more secure and maps to the intended semantics. This leads to the semantics of such a variable "The C++ Programming language Third Edition -- Stroustrup" does not have anything (that I could find) to say about this matter. All that is said is that the variable is initialized once when the flow of control of the thread first reaches the code. This leads me to ponder if the following code would be sensible, and if not what are the intended semantics ?. #include <iostream> const char * const GetString(const char * x_in) { static const char * const x = x_in; return x; } int main() { const char * const temp = GetString("yahoo"); std::cout << temp << std::endl; const char * const temp2 = GetString("yahoo2"); std::cout << temp2 << std::endl; } The following compiles on GCC and prints "yahoo" twice. Which is what I want -- However it might not be standards compliant (which is why I post this question). It might be more elegant to have two functions, "SetString" and "String" where the latter forwards to the first. If it is standards compliant does someone know of a templates implementation in boost (or elsewhere) ?

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