Search Results

Search found 51884 results on 2076 pages for 'custom type'.

Page 636/2076 | < Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >

  • Change Sequence to Choice

    - by Gordon
    In my Schema File I defined a Group with a Sequence of possible Elements. <group name="argumentGroup"> <sequence> <element name="foo" type="double" /> <element name="bar" type="string" /> <element name="baz" type="integer" /> </sequence> </group> I then reference this Group like this: <element name="arguments"> <complexType> <group ref="my:argumentGroup"/> </complexType> </element> Is it possible to reference the Group at some other point but restrict it so it's a Choice instead of a Sequence. The position where I want to reuse it would only allow one of the Elements within. <element name="argument" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1"> <complexType> <group name="my:argumentGroup"> <! -- Somehow change argumentGroup sequence to choice here --> </group> <complexType> </element>

    Read the article

  • How to set buffer size in client-server app using sockets?

    - by nelly
    First of all i am new to networking so i may say dumb thing in here. Considering a client-server application using sockets(.net with c# if that matters). The client sends some data, the server process it and sends back a string. The client sends some other data, the serve process it, queries the db and sends back several hundreds of items from the database The client sends some other type of data and the server notifies some other clients . My question is how to set the buffer size correctly for reading/writing operation. Should i do something like this: byte[] buff = new byte[client.ReceiveBufferSize] ? I am thinking of something like this: Client sends data to the server(and the server will follow the same pattern) byte[] bytesToSend=new byte[2048] //2048 to be standard for any command send by the client bytes 0..1 ->command type bytes 1..2047 ->command parameters byte[] bytesToReceive=new byte[8]/byte[64]/byte[8192] //switch(command type) But..what is happening when a client is notified by the server without sending data? What is the correct way to accomplish what i am trying to do? Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • Questions about openid and dotnetauthentication

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am looking into openid and dotnetauthentication library. However I still go some outstanding questions. the id that comes back is that unique for each user? Can I store this id in a database as the userId(currently this field is a primary key and unique identifier) I read that you can try to request information such as email address but you may not give it to you. What happens if you need this information? I think it kinda sucks if I have to popup another field right away and ask for their email address and whatever else fields I need. Sort of seems to defeat the purpose a bit as I always considered a benefit of openid is that you don't have to fill out registration forms. Is it better to only have some predefined choices(google,yahoo,openid,facebook). Then letting them type in their own ones(ie gray out the field to let them type in a url). I am thinking of this because it goes back to point number 2 if they type in a provider that does not give me the information that I need I am then stuck. How do you a log person out? Do you just kill the form authentication ticket?

    Read the article

  • C Typecast: How to

    - by Jean
    #include<stdio.h> int main(void) { unsigned short a,e,f ; // 2 bytes data type unsigned int temp1,temp2,temp4; // 4 bytes data type unsigned long temp3; // 8 bytes data type a=0xFFFF; e=((a*a)+(a*a))/(2*a); // Line 8 //e=(((unsigned long)(a*a)+(unsigned long)(a*a)))/(unsigned int)(2*a); temp1=a*a; temp2=a*a; temp3=(unsigned long)temp1+(unsigned long)temp2; // Line 14 temp4=2*a; f=temp3/temp4; printf("%u,%u,%lu,%u,%u,%u,%u\n",temp1,temp2,temp3,temp4,e,f,a); return(1); } How do I fix the arithmetic (At Line 8 by appropriate typecasting of intermediate results) so that overflows are taken care of ? Currently it prints 65534 instead of expected 65535. Why is the typecast necessary for Line 14 ?

    Read the article

  • parse a special xml in python

    - by zhaojing
    I have s special xml file like below: <alarm-dictionary source="DDD" type="ProxyComponent"> <alarm code="402" severity="Alarm" name="DDM_Alarm_402"> <message>Database memory usage low threshold crossed</message> <description>dnKinds = database type = quality_of_service perceived_severity = minor probable_cause = thresholdCrossed additional_text = Database memory usage low threshold crossed </description> </alarm> ... </alarm-dictionary> I know in python, I can get the "alarm code", "severity" in tag alarm by: for alarm_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('alarm'): if alarm_tag.hasAttribute('code'): alarmcode = str(alarm_tag.getAttribute('code')) And I can get the text in tag message like below: for messages_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('message'): messages = "" for message_tag in messages_tag.childNodes: if message_tag.nodeType in (message_tag.TEXT_NODE, message_tag.CDATA_SECTION_NODE): messages += message_tag.data But I also want to get the value like dnkind(database), type(quality_of_service), perceived_severity(thresholdCrossed) and probable_cause(Database memory usage low threshold crossed ) in tag description. That is, I also want to parse the content in the tag in xml. Could anyone help me with this? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • how to read uploaded files from xampp

    - by user225269
    I have this code for uploading files on the server: <tr> <td> <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="uploadaction.php" method="POST"> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="100000" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Select the image: <input name="uploadedfile" type="file" /> </td> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Upload File" /> </form> </td> </tr> And here's the action form: <?php $target_path = "uploads/"; $target_path = $target_path . basename( $_FILES['uploadedfile']['name']); if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploadedfile']['tmp_name'], $target_path)) { echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploadedfile']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else{ echo "There was an error uploading the file, please try again!"; } ?> What php function will I use? Can you give me an example on how to read the file back and display it in the browser? Please help, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is this the only way to pass a parameter for Cakephp to work with JQuery Ajax

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I was doing some self-learning on how to pass data from JQuery Ajax to a particular URL in CakePHP: I have tested three sets of codes that the first one was working well, but the rest failed to work, which makes me so confused. Could some experts here tell why the second and the third sets of codes failed to pass any data? Set 1: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/"+usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} ); Set 2: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/", {queryString: ""+usr+""}, function(msg){alert(msg);} ); Set 3: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/", usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} );

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • jQuery hide all table rows which contain a hidden field matching a value

    - by Famous Nerd
    Though I don't doubt this has been answered I cannot find a great match for my question. I have a table for which I'd like to filter rows based on whether or not they contain a hidden field matching a value. I understand that the technique tends to be "show all rows", "filter the set", "show/hide that filtered set" I have the following jquery but I'm aweful with filter and my filtered set seems to always contain no elements. my table is the usual <table> <tr><td>header></td><td>&nbsp;</tr> <tr> <td>a visible cell</td><td><input type='hidden' id='big-asp.net-id' value='what-im-filtering-on' /> </td> </tr> </table> My goal is to be able to match on tr who's descendent contains a hidden input containing either true or false. this is how I've tried the selector (variations of this) and I'm not even testing for the value yet. function OnFilterChanged(e){ //debugger; var checkedVal = $("#filters input[type='radio']:checked").val(); var allRows = $("#match-grid-container .tabular-data tr"); if(checkedVal=="all"){ allRows.show(); } else if(checkedVal=="matched"){ allRows.show(); allRows.filter(function(){$(this).find("input[type='hidden'][id~='IsAutoMatchHiddenField']")}).hide(); } else if(checkedVal=="unmatched"){ } } Am I way off with the filter? is the $(this) required in the filter so that i can do the descendant searching? Thanks kindly

    Read the article

  • password-check directive in angularjs

    - by mpm
    I'm writing a password verify directive : Directives.directive("passwordVerify",function(){ return { require:"ngModel", link: function(scope,element,attrs,ctrl){ ctrl.$parsers.unshift(function(viewValue){ var origin = scope.$eval(attrs["passwordVerify"]); if(origin!==viewValue){ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",false); return undefined; }else{ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",true); return viewValue; } }); } }; }); html : <input data-ng-model='user.password' type="password" name='password' placeholder='password' required> <input data-ng-model='user.password_verify' type="password" name='confirm_password' placeholder='confirm password' required data-password-verify="user.password"> Given 2 password fields in a form, if both password values are equal then the field affected by the directive is valid. The issue is that it works one way (i.e. when I type a password in the password-verify field). However, when the original password field is updated, the password-verify doesn't become valid. Any idea how I could have a "two way binding verify?"

    Read the article

  • Using $.post for simple ajax test, what am I missing?

    - by Cortopasta
    Playing with jquery for the first time, and I'm trying to get a simple AJAX set up working so I can better understand how things work. Unfortunately, I don't know a whole lot. Here's the HTML with the script: <html> <head> <title>AJAX attempt with jQuery</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function ajax(str){ $("document").ready(function(){ $.post("ajaxjquerytest.php",str,function(){ $("p").html(response); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input type="text" onchange="ajax(this.value)"></input> <p>Age?</p> </body> </html> And here is the PHP it's talking to: <?php $age = $_POST['age']; if ($age < 30) { echo "Young"; } else if ($age > 30) { echo "Old"; } else { echo "you're 30"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Magento - use an alternate "price.phtml" (in addition to the existing one)

    - by sdek
    I am looking for a way to have an alternate template/catalog/product/price.phml used in one specific location, and to continue using the existing price.phtml file in all other locations. To explain further, I need to display the regular price, and then another special price right below it - but only on the product page (for the main product being displayed). This special price is not a price that can be calculated by the catalog price rules, so I wrote my own module to do the calculation. So, everywhere that I am displaying prices I want to display with the regular ol' template/catalog/product/price.phtml file... but for the product page (the main product - not the related, upsells, etc) I want to use my own custom template/catalog/product/price-custom.phtml template file. Can anybody help? Normally I just look in the layout xml files (for example catalog.xml) to find these types of things, but price.phtml is kinda special - it isn't that simple. And for the life of me I can't figure out if there is an easy way to swap it out conditionally on the page being viewed. I am aware that I can just update price.phtml to always print out this extra price, and then use css to hide the price everywhere, but I would rather not do that if possible. (Also you may want to know that I only have simple products.)

    Read the article

  • Initializing own plugins

    - by jgauffin
    I've written a few jquery plugins for my client. I want to write a function which would initialize each plugin which have been loaded. Example: <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin1.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin2.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.initializer.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> Here I've loaded plugin1 and plugin2. Plugin1 should be attached to all links with class name 'ajax' and plugin2 to all divs with class name 'test2': $('document').ready(function(){ $('a.ajax').plugin1(); $('div.test2').plugin2(); } I know that I can use jQuery().pluginName to check if a plugin exists. But I want to have a leaner way. Can all loaded plugins register a initialize function in an array or something like that which I in document.ready can iterate through and invoke? like: //in plugin1.js myCustomPlugins['plugin1'] = function() { $('a.ajax').plugin1(); }; // and in the initializer script: myCustomPlugins.each(function() { this(); }; Guess it all boiled down to three questions: How do I use a jquery "global" array? How do I iterate through that array to invoke registered methods Are there a better approach?

    Read the article

  • How to pick a specific object from a Linq Query using Distinct?

    - by Holli
    I have a list with two or more objects of class Agent. Name = "A" Priority = 0 ResultCount = 100 ; Name = "B" Priority = 1 ResultCount = 100 ; Both objects have the same ResultCount. In that case I only need one object and not two or more. I did this with a Linq Query with Distinct and an custom made Comparer. IEnumerable<Agent> distinctResultsAgents = (from agt in distinctUrlsAgents select agt).Distinct(comparerResultsCount); With this query I get only one object from the list but I never know which one. But I don't want just any object, I want object "B" because the Priority is higher then object "A". How can I do that? My custom Comparer is very simple and has a method like this: public bool Equals(Agent x, Agent y) { if (x == null || y == null) return false; if (x.ResultCount == y.ResultCount) return true; return false; }

    Read the article

  • AJAX help needed

    - by tharindu
    Hi guys.. i have problem in ajax.. im new comer for ajax...:) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#bcode").focus(); //prevents autocomplete in some browsers $("#bcode").attr('autocomplete', 'off').keyup(function(event) { var name = $("#bcode").val(); $("#status").empty(); if(name.length > 17 ) { selectAll(); $("#status").html('<img align="absmiddle" src="loading.gif" /> Checking availability...').show(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "namecheck.php", data: "bcode="+ name, success: function(msg) { $("#status").html(msg).show(); } }); } else { $("#status").html('').addClass('err').show(); } }); }); //--> </script> i got text box value 'bcode' using '$_POST['bcode']' <input name="bcode" type="text" class="bcode" id="bcode" maxlength="18"; /> also i have menu/list in that form <select name="pallete" class="list_box" id="select"> <option value="P0" selected> </option> <option value="P1">P1</option> <option value="P2">P2</option> <option value="P3">P3</option> <option value="P4">P4</option> <option value="P5">P5</option> </select> How i can access selected item from php file by using '$_POST['pallete']' please help me. Thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

    - by Scott B
    I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

    Read the article

  • EFv1 mapping 1 to many Relationship to POCOs

    - by Scott
    I'm trying to work through a problem where I'm mapping EF Entities to POCO which serve as DTO. I have two tables within my database, say Products and Categories. A Product belongs to one category and one category may contain many Products. My EF entities are named efProduct and efCategory. Within each entity there is the proper Navigation Property between efProduct and efCategory. My Poco objects are simple public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } public Category ProductType { get; set; } } public class Category { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public List<Product> products { get; set; } } To get a list of products I am able to do something like public IQueryable<Product> GetProducts() { return from p in ctx.Products select new Product { ID = p.ID, Name = p.Name, Price = p.Price ProductType = p.Category }; } However there is a type mismatch error because p.Category is of type efCategory. How can I resolve this? That is, how can I convert p.Category to type Category? I know in .NET EF has added support for POCO, but I'm forced to use .NET 3.5 SP1.

    Read the article

  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

    Read the article

  • Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

    - by Frater
    I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

    Read the article

  • Dismiss android activity displayed as Popup

    - by Sit
    So i have a service, that starts an activity displayed as a Popup thank's to "android:style/Theme.Dialog" This Activity shows a Listview, with a list of application. On each element of the listview, there is a short description of the application, and two buttons. 1 for launching the application 2 for displaying a toast with more informations. Here is the code in my service : it starts the activity Intent intent = new Intent(this, PopUpActivity.class); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_DEBUG_LOG_RESOLUTION); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); getApplicationContext().startActivity(intent); this activity uses a custom layout, with a listview, adapted with a custom ArrayAdapter In this adaptater, i've put an action on the start button in order to start the current application Button lanceur = (Button) v.findViewById(R.id.Buttonlancer); lanceur.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { p.start(mcontext); } }); with p.start, i start the application. But now, if i press "back" from the application, i go back to the popup... and i can start another application. I don't want it to be possible. That's why i wish i could dismiss/destroy/finish my PopupActivity, but i can't manage to do it with the code i have.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

    Read the article

  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

    Read the article

  • Clear listview content?

    - by Slash
    I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

    Read the article

  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • formatting mysql data for ouptut into a table

    - by bsandrabr
    Following on from a question earlier today this answer was given to read the data into an array and separate it to print vehicle type and then some data for each vehicle. <?php $sql = "SELECT * FROM apparatus ORDER BY vehicleType"; $getSQL = mysql_query($sql); // transform the result set: $data = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($getSQL)) { $data[$row['vehicleType']][] = $row; } ?> <?php foreach ($data as $type => $rows): ?> <h2><?php echo $type?></h2> <ul> <?php foreach ($rows as $vehicleData):?> <li><?php echo $vehicleData['name'];?></li> <?php endforeach ?> </ul> <?php endforeach ?> This is almost perfect for what I want to do but I need to print out two columns from the database ie ford and mondeo before going into the second foreach loop. I've tried print $rows['model'] and all the other combinations I can think of but that doesn't work. Any help much appreciated

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >