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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • How do I add mouseClicked event to a swing table?

    - by Ayelet
    Hi, I am a new, terribly green user of Swing. I managed to create a table class using examples from java.sun tutorials, and I managed to load data dynamically into it. I want to be able to react to a click on a row by displaying a dialog box. How do I add the event Handler that will identify the selected row number? The main function code: public static void main(String[] args) { javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { try { MainWindow window = new MainWindow(); window.frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); //Create and set up the content pane. createAndShowGUI(); //... and: private static void createAndShowGUI() { //Create and set up the window. JFrame frame = new JFrame("Data Table"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); //Create and set up data of the content pane. TableClass mainTable = new TableClass(fh.getColNames(), fh.getTableContent()); mainTable.setOpaque(true); frame.setContentPane(mainTable); //Display the window. frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); } Thank you

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • How can my controls size be NaN when it is actually shown?

    - by Stian Karlsen
    I have a Grid which contains an Image in one of its columns. The image itself does not have any Width or Height set, but its size is correctly controlled through the ColumnDefinition set. From this I would assume that the image controller actually has a Width and Height set, but when I try to bind another element to its Width and Height it doesn't work. When debugging it turns out that the value of Image.Height and Image.Width are NaN. Why? <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="350"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="10"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid Grid.Column="0" Margin="5"> <Image x:Name="_image" Source="image.jpg"></Image> </Grid> </Grid>

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  • Multiple usage of MenuItems declared once (WPF)

    - by Alex Kofman
    Is it possible in WPF to define some menu structure and than use it in multiple contexts? For example I'd like to use a set of menu items from resources in ContextMenu, Window's menu and ToolBar (ToolBar with icons only, without headers). So items order, commands, icons, separators must be defined just once. I look for something like this: Declaration in resources: <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.CloneObject" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Clone"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Clone.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.RemoveCommand" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Remove"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Remove.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <Separator/> <MenuItem Command="MCommands.CreateChild" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Create child"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Child.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> Usage: <ToolBar MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" ShowText(?)="false" /> and <ContextMenu MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" />

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • hibernate annotation bi-directional mapping

    - by smithystar
    I'm building a web application using Spring framework and Hibernate with annotation and get stuck with a simple mapping between two entities. I'm trying to create a many-to-many relationship between User and Course. I followed one of the Hibernate tutorials and my implementation is as follows: User class: @Entity @Table(name="USER") public class User { private Long id; private String email; private String password; private Set<Course> courses = new HashSet<Course>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="USER_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="USER_EMAIL") public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } @Column(name="USER_PASSWORD") public String getPassword() { return password; } public void setPassword(String password) { this.password = password; } @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_COURSE", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "COURSE_ID") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } } Course class: @Entity @Table(name="COURSE") public class Course { private Long id; private String name; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="COURSE_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="NAME") public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } The problem is that this implementation only allows me to go one way user.getCourses() What do I need to change, so I can go in both directions? user.getCourses() course.getUsers() Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Is this a good starting point for iptables in Linux?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I'm new to iptables, and i've been trying to put together a firewall which purpose is to protect a web server. The below rules are the ones i've put together so far, and i would like to hear if the rules makes sense - and wether i've left out anything essential? In addition to port 80, i also need to have port 3306 (mysql) and 22 (ssh) open for external connections. Any feedback is highly appreciated! #!/bin/sh # Clear all existing rules. iptables -F # ACCEPT connections for loopback network connection, 127.0.0.1. iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # ALLOW established traffic iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # DROP packets that are NEW but does not have the SYN but set. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # DROP fragmented packets, as there is no way to tell the source and destination ports of such a packet. iptables -A INPUT -f -j DROP # DROP packets with all tcp flags set (XMAS packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL ALL -j DROP # DROP packets with no tcp flags set (NULL packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL NONE -j DROP # ALLOW ssh traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport ssh -m limit --limit 1/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW http traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport http -m limit --limit 5/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW mysql traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport mysql -m limit --limit 25/s -j ACCEPT # DROP any other traffic. iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • receive and pass values with XML, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My example imports XML and has an object rotating on stage. The rotating object is called enemy corresponds to ENEMY in the XML. How do I set the rotation variable to receive values from XML? REASON It seems more difficult to set up variables using external data. I want to understand it better. here's a link http://videodnd.weebly.com/ rotation.fla //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("enemy.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.ENEMY.*; addChild(text); } //ROTATION function enterFrameHandler(event:Event):void { //==>CODE I WANT TO CHANGE<== enemy.rotationY += 10; //enemy.rotationY = myXML.ENEMY.*; } addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterFrameHandler); enemy.xml ENEMY is set to -100, use what you like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <BADGUYS> <ENEMY TITLE="sticky">-100</ENEMY> <ROGUE TITLE="slimy">-1000</ROGUE> </BADGUYS>

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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  • In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy into ReentrantLock field into local final variable?

    - by mjlee
    In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

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  • Solr : how do i index and search several fields?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I've set up my first 'installation' of Solr, where each index (document) represents a musical work (with properties like number (int), title (string), version (string), composers (string) and keywords (string)). I've set the field 'title' as the default search field. However, what do I do when I would like to do a query on all fields? I'd like to give users the opportunity to search in all fields, and as far as I've understood there is at least two options for this: (1) Specify which fields the query should be made against. (2) Set up the Solr configuration with copyfields, so that values added to each of the fields will be copied to a 'catch-all'-like field which can be used for searching. However, in this case, i am uncertain how things would turn out when i take into consideration that the data types are not all the same for the various fields (the various fields will to a lesser og greater degree go through filters, but as copyfield values are taken from their original fields before the values have been run through their original fields' filters, i would have to apply one single filter to all values on the copyfield. This, again, would result in integers being 'filtered' just as strings would). Is this a case where i should use copyfields? At first glance, it seems a bit more 'flexible' to rather just search on all fields. However, maybe there's a cost? All feedback appreciated! Thanks!

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • C++ Initialize array in constructor EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by user890395
    I'm creating a simple constructor and initializing an array: // Construtor Cinema::Cinema(){ // Initalize reservations for(int i = 0; i < 18; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < 12; j++){ setReservation(i, j, 0); } } // Set default name setMovieName("N/A"); // Set default price setPrice(8); } The setReservation function: void Cinema::setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation){ this->reservations[row][column] = reservation; } The setMovieName function: void Cinema::setMovieName(std::string movieName){ this->movieName = movieName; } For some odd reason when I run the program, the setMovieName function gives the following error: "Program Received Signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS" If I take out the for-loop that initializes the array of reservations, the problem goes away and the movie name is set without any problems. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? This is the Cinema.h file: #ifndef Cinema_h #define Cinema_h class Cinema{ private: int reservations[17][11]; std::string movieName; float price; public: // Construtor Cinema(); // getters/setters int getReservation(int row, int column); int getNumReservations(); std::string getMovieName(); float getPrice(); void setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation); void setMovieName(std::string movieName); void setPrice(float price); }; #endif

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Client-Side caching on IIS7 doesn't seem to work

    - by thomasbtv
    I have set content caching on a specific folder by following the local web.config method. I don't think it works, and I would like to fix this. I activate the cache using the IIS / HTTP Headers / Common headers feature. I set them to 1 day of expiration. I opened a page with Google Chrome in private navigation, and then open the Network tab in the console. The first time I load the page, everything loads from the site, obviously. If I refresh the page, I see 2 types of loading in the Network console: the files from Google and Facebook and such have a status of 200, and a size of (from cache). the files from the folder for which I set the caching have a status of 304 and their size is displayed. So, I guess the caching setting doesn't work? Or does the 304 response means that it's loaded from the cache? If they aren't, how can I make it work ? Thanks !

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  • [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

    - by conradlee
    I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

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  • How to disable MSBuild's <RegisterOutput> target on a per-user basis?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    I like to do my development as a normal (non-Admin) user. Our VS2010 project build fails with "Failed to register output. Please try enabling Per-user Redirection or register the component from a command prompt with elevated permissions." Since I'm not at liberty to change the project file, is there any way that I can add user-specific MSBuild targets or properties that disable this step on a specific machine, or for a specific user? I'd prefer not to hack on the core MSBuild files. I don't want to change the project file because I might then accidentally check it back in. Nor do I want to hack on the MSBuild core files, because they might get overwritten by a service pack. Given that the Visual C++ project files (and associated .targets and .props files) have about a million places to alter the build order and to import arbitrary files, I was hoping for something along those lines. MSBuild imports/evaluates the project file as follows (I've only looked down the branches that interest me): Foo.vcxproj Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props Microsoft.Cpp.props $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props Microsoft.Cpp.targets Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).targets ImportBefore\* Microsoft.CppCommon.targets The "RegisterOutput" target is defined in Microsoft.CppCommon.targets. I was hoping to replace this by putting a do-nothing "RegisterOutput" target in $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props, which is %LOCALAPPDATA%\MSBuild\v4.0\Microsoft.Cpp.Win32.user.props (UserRootDir is set in Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props if it's not already set). Unfortunately, MSBuild uses the last-defined target, which means that mine gets overridden by the built-in one. Alternatively, I could attempt to set the %(Link.RegisterOutput) metadata, but I'd have to do that on all Link items. Any idea how to do that, or even if it'll work?

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  • SQL putting two single quotes around datetime fields and fails to insert record

    - by user82613
    I am trying to INSERT into an SQL database table, but it doesn't work. So I used the SQL server profiler to see how it was building the query; what it shows is the following: declare @p1 int set @p1=0 declare @p2 int set @p2=0 declare @p3 int set @p3=1 exec InsertProcedureName @ConsumerMovingDetailID=@p1 output, @UniqueID=@p2 output, @ServiceID=@p3 output, @ProjectID=N'0', @IPAddress=N'66.229.112.168', @FirstName=N'Mike', @LastName=N'P', @Email=N'[email protected]', @PhoneNumber=N'(254)637-1256', @MobilePhone=NULL, @CurrentAddress=N'', @FromZip=N'10005', @MoveInAddress=N'', @ToZip=N'33067', @MovingSize=N'1', @MovingDate=''2009-04-30 00:00:00:000'', /* Problem here ^^^ */ @IsMovingVehicle=0, @IsPackingRequired=0, @IncludeInSaveologyPlanner=1 select @p1, @p2, @p3 As you can see, it puts a double quote two pairs of single quotes around the datetime fields, so that it produces a syntax error in SQL. I wonder if there is anything I must configure somewhere? Any help would be appreciated. Here is the environment details: Visual Studio 2008 .NET 3.5 MS SQL Server 2005 Here is the .NET code I'm using.... //call procedure for results strStoredProcedureName = "usp_SMMoverSearchResult_SELECT"; Database database = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DbCommand dbCommand = database.GetStoredProcCommand(strStoredProcedureName); dbCommand.CommandTimeout = DataHelper.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT; database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@MovingDetailID", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.ConsumerMovingDetailID); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromZip", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.FromZipCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToZip", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.ToZipCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@MovingDate", DbType.DateTime, objPropConsumer.MoveDate); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@PLServiceID", DbType.Int32, objPropConsumer.ServiceID); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromAreaCode", DbType.String, pFromAreaCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromState", DbType.String, pFromState); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToAreaCode", DbType.String, pToAreaCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToState", DbType.String, pToState); DataSet dstSearchResult = new DataSet("MoverSearchResult"); database.LoadDataSet(dbCommand, dstSearchResult, new string[] { "MoverSearchResult" });

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  • Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

    - by walkor
    Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

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  • template files evaluation in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using something like this: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() % myhash where myhash is hash of configuration parameters from the main config file which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

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