Search Results

Search found 18028 results on 722 pages for 'atomic values'.

Page 638/722 | < Previous Page | 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645  | Next Page >

  • swap! alter and alike

    - by mekka
    Hello, I am having a problem understanding how these functions update the underlying ref, atom etc. The docs say: (apply f current-value-of-identity args) (def one (atom 0)) (swap! one inc) ;; => 1 So I am wondering how it got "expanded" to the apply form. It's not mentioned what exactly 'args' in the apply form is. Is it a sequence of arguments or are these separate values? Was it "expanded" to: (apply inc 0) ; obviously this wouldnt work, so that leaves only one possibility (apply inc 0 '()) (swap! one + 1 2 3) ;; #=> 7 Was it: (apply + 1 1 2 3 '()) ;or (apply + 1 [1 2 3]) (def two (atom [])) (swap! two conj 10 20) ;; #=> [10 20] Was it: (apply conj [] [10 20]) ;or (apply conj [] 10 20 '()) If I swap with a custom function like this: (def three (atom 0)) (swap! three (fn [current elem] (println (class elem))) 10) ;;#=> java.Lang.Integer Which means that the value '10' doesnt magically get changed into a seq '(10) and leads me to the conclusion, that it gets "expanded" to: (apply f current-value-of-identity arg1 arg2 arg3... '()) Is that a correct assumption and the docs are simply lacking a better description?

    Read the article

  • How to make your more experienced and authoritative teammates not to create 'fast temporary solution

    - by Roman
    I'm currently working on a small short-lived project. But despite the size it's complicated enough with very unclear logic. That's why it was started by more experienced developers. They work on it from time to time because it's not their main project. They made some code drafts with numerous places which 'would be rewritten in the nearest future'. After that they added several another 'temporary pieces'. And then again.. So, now the project is a mess of 'half-working' pieces of code with some hardcoded values, like file names or some constants which 'will be replaced latter with working parts'. The API is awful (nobody thinks about it actually). And it's really, really hard to do development now (for me it's the main and only project). I caught myself thinking that I spent about an hour every day just to understand again all that tricky 'temporary' things and API weaknesses. And after that hour my brain melts. I can't just say that "guys, your code smells like a trash dump". What's the correct way?

    Read the article

  • Rails active record association problem

    - by Harm de Wit
    Hello, I'm new at active record association in rails so i don't know how to solve the following problem: I have a tables called 'meetings' and 'users'. I have correctly associated these two together by making a table 'participants' and set the following association statements: class Meeting < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :participants, :dependent => :destroy has_many :users, :through => :participants and class Participant < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :meeting belongs_to :user and the last model class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :participants, :dependent => :destroy At this point all is going well and i can access the user values of attending participants of a specific meeting by calling @meeting.users in the normal meetingshow.html.erb view. Now i want to make connections between these participants. Therefore i made a model called 'connections' and created the columns of 'meeting_id', 'user_id' and 'connected_user_id'. So these connections are kinda like friendships within a certain meeting. My question is: How can i set the model associations so i can easily control these connections? I would like to see a solution where i could use @meeting.users.each do |user| user.connections.each do |c| <do something> end end I tried this by changing the model of meetings to this: class Meeting < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :participants, :dependent => :destroy has_many :users, :through => :participants has_many :connections, :dependent => :destroy has_many :participating_user_connections, :through => :connections, :source => :user Please, does anyone have a solution/tip how to solve this the rails way?

    Read the article

  • Create table class as a singleton

    - by Mark
    I got a class that I use as a table. This class got an array of 16 row classes. These row classes all have 6 double variables. The values of these rows are set once and never change. Would it be a good practice to make this table a singleton? The advantage is that it cost less memory, but the table will be called from multiple threads so I have to synchronize my code which way cause a bit slower application. However lookups in this table are probably a very small portion of the total code that is executed. EDIT: This is my code, are there better ways to do this or is this a good practice? Removed synchronized keyword according to recommendations in this question. final class HalfTimeTable { private HalfTimeRow[] table = new HalfTimeRow[16]; private static final HalfTimeTable instance = new HalfTimeTable(); private HalfTimeTable() { if (instance != null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Already instantiated"); } table[0] = new HalfTimeRow(4.0, 1.2599, 0.5050, 1.5, 1.7435, 0.1911); table[1] = new HalfTimeRow(8.0, 1.0000, 0.6514, 3.0, 1.3838, 0.4295); //etc } @Override @Deprecated public Object clone() throws CloneNotSupportedException { throw new CloneNotSupportedException(); } public static HalfTimeTable getInstance() { return instance; } public HalfTimeRow getRow(int rownumber) { return table[rownumber]; } }

    Read the article

  • Class Inside Structure

    - by Knvn
    Could some one please explain, What happens when a reference type is defined inside the value type. I write the following code: namespace ClassInsideStruct { class ClassInsideStruct { static void Main(string[] args) { ValueType ObjVal = new ValueType(10); ObjVal.Display(); ValueType.ReferenceType ObjValRef = new ValueType.ReferenceType(10); ObjValRef.Display(); Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef); ObjVal.Display(); ObjValRef.Display(); Console.ReadKey(); } private static void Test(ValueType v, ValueType.ReferenceType r) { v.SValue = 50; r.RValue = 50; } } struct ValueType { int StructNum; ReferenceType ObjRef; public ValueType(int i) { StructNum = i; ObjRef = new ReferenceType(i); } public int SValue { get { return StructNum; } set { StructNum = value; ObjRef.RValue = value; } } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("ValueType: " + StructNum); Console.Write("ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: "); ObjRef.Display(); } public class ReferenceType { int ClassNum; public ReferenceType(int i) { ClassNum = i; } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("Reference Type: " + ClassNum); } public int RValue { get { return ClassNum; } set { ClassNum = value; } } } } } Which outputs: ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 10 Reference Type: 10 ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 50 Reference Type: 50 I'm curious to know, after calling the method Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef), how the values of ReferenceType is changed to 50 which resides inside the ValueType who's value is not changed?

    Read the article

  • SQL Trigger Need to set x from a value

    - by Eric
    Im stuck on a the type of trigger needed to for this constraint. I will have a price and a commission. The price determines the commission amount, < 100 - 4%, < 200 - 5% etc. My idea. the database contains a separate table that will hold 4 price values , 101, 201, 401, 601, with their own matching comission %, this will be called PC. When i create a property listing i want to calculate the commission they earn depending on the price entered. on insert, i need to check the new.price and compare it to the prices in PC. Once new.price is less than the price tuple, i set the price to that commission value create or replace TRIGGER findCommission BEFORE INSERT OR UPDATE ON HASLISTING FOR each ROW BEGIN IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 100001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 6.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 250001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.5; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 1000001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE > 1000000) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 4.0; END IF; END;

    Read the article

  • SQLite3 database doesn't actually insert data - iPhone

    - by user334934
    I'm trying to add a new entry into my database, but it's not working. There are no errors thrown, and the code that is supposed to be executed after the insertion runs, meaning there are no errors with the query. But still, nothing is added to the database. I've tried both prepared statements and the simpler sqlite3_exec and it's the same result. I know my database is being loaded because the info for the tableview (and subsequent tableviews) are loaded from the database. The connection isn't the problem. Also, the log of the sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db) returns the correct number for the next row. But still, the information is not saved. Here's my code: db = [Database openDatabase]; NSString *query = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"INSERT INTO lists (name) VALUES('%@')", newField.text]; NSLog(@"Query: %@",query); sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { if(sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_DONE){ NSLog(@"You created a new list!"); int newListId = sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db); MyList *newList = [[MyList alloc] initWithName:newField.text idNumber:[NSNumber numberWithInt:newListId]]; [self.listArray addObject:newList]; [newList release]; [self.tableView reloadData]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); } else { NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting data. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(db)); } } [Database closeDatabase:db]; Again, no errors have been thrown. The prepare and step statements return SQLITE_OK and SQLITE_DONE respectively, yet nothing happens. Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Warning: Trim expects

    - by user1257518
    I'm getting this warning Warning: trim() expects parameter 1 to be string, array given in .. which is my trim line. The full code is functioned to send an error when fields are empty. However, this error appears saying every field is empty, but only the 'native' field is meant to be required so thats my 2nd problem. Thanks for any help! session_start(); $err = array(); $user_id = intval($_SESSION['user_id']); // otherwise if (isset($_POST['doLanguage'])) { $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASS) or die("Couldn't make connection."); // check if current user is banned $the_query = sprintf("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM users WHERE `banned` = '0' AND `id` = '%d'", $user_id); $result = mysql_query($the_query, $link); $user_check = mysql_num_rows($result); // user is ok if ($user_check > 0) { // check for empty fields foreach ($_POST as $key => $val) { $value = trim($val); if (empty($value)) { $err[] = "ERROR - $key is required"; } } // no errors if(empty($err)) { for($i = 0; $i < count($_POST["other"]); $i++) $native = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['native'][$i]); $other = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other'][$i]); $other_list = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_list'][$i]); $other_read = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_read'][$i]); $other_spokint = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_spokint'][$i]); $other_spokprod = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_spokprod'][$i]); $other_writ = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_writ'][$i]); // insert into the database $the_query = sprintf("INSERT INTO `language` (`user_id`,`native`,`other`,`other_list`,`other_read`, `other_spokint` ,`other_spokprod`,`other_writ` ) VALUES ('%d','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s')", $user_id,$native,$other,$other_list,$other_read, $other_spokint,$other_spokprod,$other_writ); // query is ok? if (mysql_query($the_query, $link) ){ // redirect to user profile header('Location: myaccount.php?id=' . $user_id); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Website hosting from home - IIS6 [closed]

    - by Paul
    I'm wanting to host a few websites from home, primarily because I'm using some BETA Microsoft software (.NET 4 and EF) and don't want to install it on my production server which is hosted at eukhost.com. Basically, I'm completely new to this sort of thing. So far, here is what I've done: Registered the domain name at namecheap.com (let's call it mydomain.com) Gone to "Nameserver Registration" in the panel and entered my IP address for the NS1 and NS2 records (let's say the IP is 0.0.0.0). Gone to "Domain Name Server Setup" and entered ns1.mydomain.com & ns2.mydomain.com Forwarded requests from port 80 to my internal IP (let's say 192.168.1.254) Created the website in IIS (I'm just testing with a single website so far, so have not created any host header values) Now, if I type in the IP address (http://0.0.0.0) I get the site as expected. However, if I enter http://www.mydomain.com I get an error saying "DNS Error - Cannot find server". I'm aware that there is a service from DynDNS that will automatically change the IP if I have a dynamic address, however my IP has remained static since I installed the ISP (since October) so I don't need this. Is there any way that I can get the DNS to work just by configuring IIS or something in Windows? I don't really want to have to pay for any 3rd party service. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • jquery convert serialized form inputs to xml string

    - by user590586
    Hi , I'm trying to get all my form inputs and then create with them an xml string containing there values in order to send them via ajax. i want this : <form id="formtest"> <input type="text" name="test1" id="test1"/> <input type="text" name="test2" id="test2"/> <input type="text" name="test3" id="test3"/> <input type="text" name="test4" id="test4"/> <input type="text" name="test5" id="test5"/> </form> to become: <formtest> <test1></test1> <test2></test2> <test3></test3> <test4></test4> <test5></test5> </formtest> How can this be done? Thank's In Advance.

    Read the article

  • Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function

    - by Radu Vlad
    I have this functions that should return me the distance from point p to segment line v-w. The problem i have is after some time i receive the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function. I receive it in distToSegmentSquared directly,not even calling the function dist2().Is it any other dist2() anywhere in jquery?I found none... function sqr(x) { return x * x; } function dist2(v, w) { console.log(v); console.log(w); return sqr(v.x - w.x) + sqr(v.y - w.y); } function distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w) { var l2 = dist2(v, w); if (l2 == 0) return dist2(p, v); var t = ((p.x - v.x) * (w.x - v.x) + (p.y - v.y) * (w.y - v.y)) / l2; if (t < 0) return dist2(p, v); if (t > 1) return dist2(p, w); return dist2(p, {x: v.x + t * (w.x - v.x), y: v.y + t * (w.y - v.y)}); } function distToSegment(p, v, w) { return Math.sqrt(distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w)); } The values that are given in for that error are: p: Object x: 461 y: 333 v: Object x: 80 y: 120 w: Object x: 260 y: 120

    Read the article

  • Overload the behavior of count() when called on certain objects

    - by Tom
    In PHP 5, you can use magic methods, overload some classes, etc. In C++, you can implement functions that exist is STL as long as the argument types are different. Is there a way to do this in PHP? An example of what I'd like to do is this: class a { function a() { $this->list = array("1", "2"); } } $blah = new a(); count($blah); I would like blah to return 2. IE count the values of a specific array in the class. So in C++, the way I would do this might look like this: int count(a varName) { return count(varName->list); } Basically, I am trying to simplify data calls for a large application so I can call do this: count($object); rather than count($object->list); The list is going to be potentially a list of objects so depending on how it's used, it could be really nasty statement if someone has to do it the current way: count($object->list[0]->list[0]->list); So, can I make something similar to this: function count(a $object) { count($object->list); } I know PHP's count accepts a mixed var, so I don't know if I can override an individual type.

    Read the article

  • Flex Setting form height dynamically

    - by Daryl
    I'm not sure if this is possible, is there a way to get the <mx:Form> to set its own height based on the position of an element within it? For example something like this: <mx:Form height="{submitBtn.y + submitBtn.height}"> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem> <s:Button id="submitBtn" label="Submit" /> </mx:FormItem> </mx:Form> where the form height is dynamically set based on submitBtn's y position and its height. I tried using Alert.show to show these values and turned out submitBtn.y = 0 and submitBtn.height = 21. height sounds reasonable, but I know the y of submitBtn can't be 0 since it's below several other Is it possible to set the form height dynamically?

    Read the article

  • Set all nonzero matrix elements to 1 (while keeping the others 0)

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have a mesh grid defined as [X, Y, Z] = meshgrid(-100:100, -100:100, 25); % z will have more values later and two shapes (ovals, in this case): x_offset_1 = 40; x_offset_2 = -x_offset_1; o1 = ((X-x_offset_1).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); o2 = ((X-x_offset_2).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); Now, I want to find all points that are nonzero in either oval. I tried union = o1+o2; but since I simply add them, the overlapping region will have a value of 2 instead of the desired 1. How can I set all nonzero entries in the matrix to 1, regardless of their previous value? (I tried normalized_union = union./union;, but then I end up with NaN in all 0 elements because I'm dividing by zero...) Follow-up question: I got a perfect answer to my original question, but now I have a follow-up question on the same problem. I'm going to define a filled disc, c = (X.^2+Y.^2<R^2) that will also overlap with the two ovals. How do I find all the points that are inside the circle, but not inside any of the ovals?

    Read the article

  • How to detect if a RGB is fully transparent?

    - by omega
    In java, I want to make a fully transparent RGBA, and I do that by using public static int getTransparentRGB() { int r = 0; int g = 0; int b = 0; int a = 0; int new_pixel = (a << 24) | (r << 16) | (g << 8) | b; return new_pixel; } Color color = new Color(getTransparentRGB()); System.out.println(color.getAlpha()); // -> 255 ?! I purposely keep all rgba values 0. However after I create the Color object with the rgba value as the constructor, if I call .getAlpha(), I get 255 even though I made the rgb value with a 0 alpha. If it returns 255, how could I tell the difference between a Color object that wasn't transparent, because that would also have a 255 alpha. I expect the color object to return a 0 alpha based on the function above. Does anyone know whats going on? Thanks

    Read the article

  • HTML + Button with text and image on it.

    - by lucky
    Hello, I have a problem in creating a Button with text and image on it. <td> <button type="submit" name="report" value="Report" <?php if($tab == 'Excel') echo "id=\"tab_inactive\""; else echo "id=\"tab_active\"" ; ?>> <img src="images/report.gif" alt="Report"/>Report </button> <button type="submit" name="excel" value="Excel" <?php if($tab == 'Excel' ) echo "id=\"tab_active\""; else echo "id=\"tab_inactive\"" ; ?>> <img src="images/Excel.gif" alt="Excel" width="16" height="16" /> Excel </button> </td> Here $tab is $tab = strlen(trim($_POST[excel]))>0 ? $_POST[excel] : $_POST[report]; I tried this way, but this is behaving so strangely. On click the button:- The submit function is working properly in firefox, but not in IE. Instead of submitting the value(in this example values are 'Report' and 'Excel'), indeed it is submitting the label of the button. That is if i am checking the value of array PRINT_R($_POST). The value of it is Array ( [report] =>(Icon that i used) Report [excel] => (Icon that i used) Excel [frm_analysis] => [to_analysis] => ) Here i have more than 1 button, then all the labels are submitted eventhough one of them is pressed. i dont how to capture which button is pressed. I even tried changing button type=button and onclick="document.formname.submit()" Even this is resulting in the same. Can you please help me to solve this.

    Read the article

  • How to make cakePHP retreive the data represented by a foreign key?

    - by XL
    Greetings cake experts, I have a question that I think would really help a lot of people getting started with cakePHP. I have a feeling it will be easy for some of you, but it is quite challenging to me. I have a simple database with multiple tables. I can't figure out how to make cakePHP display the values associated with a foreign key in an index view. Or create a view where the fields of my choice (the ones that make sense to users like location name - not location_id can be updated or viewed on a single page). I have created an example at http://lovecats.cakeapp.com that illustrate the question. If you look at the page and click the "list cats", you will notice that it shows the location_id field from the locations table. You will also notice that when you click "add cats", you must choose a location_id from the locations table. This is the automagic way that cakePHP builds the app. I want this to be the field location_name. The database is setup so that the table cats has a foreign key called location_id that has a relationship to a table called locations. This is my problem: I want these pages to display the location_name instead of the location_id. If you want to login to the application, you can go to http://cakeapp.com/sqldesigners/sql/lovecats and the password 'password' to look at the db relationships, etc. How do I have a page that shows the fields that I want? And is it possible to create a page that updates fields from all of the tables at once? This is the slice of cake that I have been trying to figure out and this would REALLY get me over a hump. You can download the app and sql from the above url.

    Read the article

  • How to increase my "advanced" knowledge of PHP further? (quickly)

    - by Kerry
    I have been working with PHP for years and gotten a very good grasp of the language, created many advanced and not-so-advanced systems that are working very well. The problem I'm running into is that I only learn when I find a need for something that I haven't learned before. This causes me to look up solutions and other code that handles the problem, and so I will learn about a new function or structure that I hadn't seen before. It is in this way that I have learned many of my better techniques (such as studying classes put out by Amazon, Google or other major companies). The main problem with this is the concept of not being able to learn something if you don't know it exists. For instance, it took me several months of programming to learn about the empty() function, and I simply would check the string length using strlen() to check for empty values. I'm now getting into building bigger and bigger systems, and I've started to read blogs like highscalability.com and been researching MySQL replication and server data for scaling. I know that structure of your code is very important to make full systems work. After reading a recent blog about reddit's structure, it made me question if there is some standard or "accepted systems" out there. I have looked into frameworks (I've used Kohana, which I regretted, but decided that PHP frameworks were not for me) and I prefer my own library of functions rather than having a framework. My current structure is a mix between WordPress, Kohana and my own knowledge. The ways I can see as being potentially beneficial are: Read blogs Read tutorials Work with someone else Read a book What would be the best way(s) to "get to the next level" the level of being a very good system developer?

    Read the article

  • binding list variable one after another

    - by prince23
    hi, this is my class public class Users { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } i am defing an list variable List<Users> myList = new List<Users> i have four functions each one returing a string array {of data content like, names, age, gender, country} **functions names** FunNames(); FunAge(); Fungender(); Funcountry(); now i need to bind these these return values of all these functions into list one by one like. myList =FunNames(); myList =FunAge(); myList Fungender(); ..... hope my Question is clear. any help would be great thank you.

    Read the article

  • Need help INSERT record(s) MySQL DB

    - by JM4
    I have an online form which collects member(s) information and stores it into a very long MySQL database. We allow up to 16 members to enroll at a single time and originally structured the DB to allow such. For example: If 1 Member enrolls, his personal information (first name, last name, address, phone, email) are stored on a single row. If 15 Members enroll (all at once), their personal information are stored in the same single row. The row has information housing columns for all 'possible' inputs. I am trying to consolidate this code and having every nth member that enrolls put onto a new record within the database. I have seen sugestions before for inserting multiple records as such: INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (('$f1name', '$f1address', '$f1phone'), ('$f2name', '$f2address', '$f2phone')... The issue with this is two fold: I do not know how many records are being enrolled from person to person so the only way to make the statement above is to use a loop The information collected from the forms is NOT a single array so I can't loop through one array and have it parse out. My information is collected as individual input fields like such: Member1FirstName, Member1LastName, Member1Phone, Member2Firstname, Member2LastName, Member2Phone... and so on Is it possible to store information in separate rows WITHOUT using a loop (and therefore having to go back and completely restructure my form field names and such (which can't happen due to the way the validation rules are built.)

    Read the article

  • Strange code behaviour?

    - by goldenmean
    Hi, I have a C code in which i have a structure declaration which has an array of int[576] declared in it. For some reason, i had to remove this array from the structure, So i replaced this array with a pointer as int *ptr; declared some global array of same type, somewhere else in the code, and initialized this pointer by assigning the global array to this pointer. So i did not have to change the way i was accessing this array, from other parts of my code. But it works fine/gives desired output when i have the array declared in the structure, but it gives junk output when i declare it as a pointer in the structure and assign a global array to this pointer, as a part of the pointer initialization. All this code is being run on MS-VC 6.0/Windows setup/Intel-x86. I tried below things: 1)Suspected structure padding/alignment but could not get any leads? If at all structure alignment could be a culprit how can i proceed to narrow it down and confirm it? 2) I have made sure that in both cases the array is initialized to some default values, say 0 before its first use, and its not being used before initialization. 3)I tried using global array as well as malloc based memory for this newly declared array. Same result, junk output. Am i missing something? How can i zero down the problem. Any pointers would be helpful. Thanks, -AD.

    Read the article

  • EventHandlers saved to databases.

    - by Stacey
    In a database application (using Sql Server right now, in C#, with Entity Framework 4.0) I have a situation where I need to trigger events when some values change. For instance assume a class "Trackable". class Trackable { string Name { get; set; } int Positive { get; set; } int Negative { get; set; } int Total { get; set; } // event OnChanged } Trackable is represented in the database as follows; table Trackables Id | guid name | varchar(32) positive | int negative | int Total is of course, calculated at runtime. When a trackable event changes, I want to inspect its previous value, and then see what it is changing to, and be capable of reacting accordingly. However different trackables need to trigger different events (to avoid a huge, massive cascading switch/if block). If this were just only C# code it would be easy - but they have to be saved to the database. I can't divide up each different trackable into a different table/class, that would be silly - they are all identical, but the event raised is different based on how they are made. So I guess my question is, is there any way to store an event handler in a database such that.. Trackable t1 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable1" OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable1Change) } Trackable t2 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable2", OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable2Change) }

    Read the article

  • jquery: i have to use parseInt() even when deal with numbers, why?

    - by Syom
    i have the following script <select id="select1"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> <select id="select2"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> and jquery $("#select2").change(function() { var max_value = parseInt($("#select2 :selected").val()); var min_value = parseInt($("#select1 :selected").val()); if(max_value < min_value) { $("#select1").val($(this).val()); } }); and now, what i can't understand anyway - if values of option elements are integer numbers, why i have to use parseInt()? in some cases it doesn't work without parseInt(). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Moq to Validate Separate Invocations with Distinct Arguments

    - by Thermite
    I'm trying to validate the values of arguments passed to subsequent mocked method invocations (of the same method), but cannot figure out a valid approach. A generic example follows: public class Foo { [Dependency] public Bar SomeBar { get; set; } public void SomeMethod() { this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("baz"); this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("bag"); } } public class Bar { public void SomeOtherMethod(string input) { } } public class MoqTest { [TestMethod] public void RunTest() { Mock<Bar> mock = new Mock<Bar>(); Foo f = new Foo(); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("baz"))); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("bag"))); // this of course overrides the first call f.SomeMethod(); mock.VerifyAll(); } } Using a Function in the Setup might be an option, but then it seems I'd be reduced to some sort of global variable to know which argument/iteration I'm verifying. Maybe I'm overlooking the obvious within the Moq framework?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645  | Next Page >