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  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

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  • Use a foreign key mapping to get data from the other table using Python and SQLAlchemy.

    - by Az
    Hmm, the title was harder to formulate than I thought. Basically, I've got these simple classes mapped to tables, using SQLAlchemy. I know they're missing a few items but those aren't essential for highlighting the problem. class Customer(object): def __init__(self, uid, name, email): self.uid = uid self.name = name self.email = email def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Cust: %s, Name: %s (Email: %s)" %(self.uid, self.name, self.email) The above is basically a simple customer with an id, name and an email address. class Order(object): def __init__(self, item_id, item_name, customer): self.item_id = item_id self.item_name = item_name self.customer = None def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Item ID %s: %s, has been ordered by customer no. %s" %(self.item_id, self.item_name, self.customer) This is the Orders class that just holds the order information: an id, a name and a reference to a customer. It's initialised to None to indicate that this item doesn't have a customer yet. The code's job will assign the item a customer. The following code maps these classes to respective database tables. # SQLAlchemy database transmutation engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() customers_table = Table('customers', metadata, Column('uid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('email', String) ) orders_table = Table('orders', metadata, Column('item_id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('item_name', String), Column('customer', Integer, ForeignKey('customers.uid')) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Customer, customers_table) mapper(Orders, orders_table) Now if I do something like: for order in session.query(Order): print order I can get a list of orders in this form: Item ID 1001: MX4000 Laser Mouse, has been ordered by customer no. 12 What I want to do is find out customer 12's name and email address (which is why I used the ForeignKey into the Customer table). How would I go about it?

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  • Spring Dependency Injecting an annotated Aspect

    Using Spring I've had some issues with doing a dependency injection on an annotated Aspect class. CacheService is injected upon the Spring context's startup, but when the weaving takes place, it says that the cacheService is null. So I am forced to relook up the spring context manually and get the bean from there. Is there another way of going about it? Here is an example of my Aspect: import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.aspectj.lang.ProceedingJoinPoint; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Around; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Aspect; import com.mzgubin.application.cache.CacheService; @Aspect public class CachingAdvice { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(CachingAdvice.class); private CacheService cacheService; @Around("execution(public *com.mzgubin.application.callMethod(..)) &&" + "args(params)") public Object addCachingToCreateXMLFromSite(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, InterestingParams params) throws Throwable { log.debug("Weaving a method call to see if we should return something from the cache or create it from scratch by letting control flow move on"); Object result = null; if (getCacheService().objectExists(params))}{ result = getCacheService().getObject(params); } else { result = pjp.proceed(pjp.getArgs()); getCacheService().storeObject(params, result); } return result; } public CacheService getCacheService(){ return cacheService; } public void setCacheService(CacheService cacheService){ this.cacheService = cacheService; } }

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • How do I write escape characters verbatim (without escaping) using StreamWriter?

    - by Joel
    I'm writing a utility that takes in a .resx file and creates a javascript object containing properties for all the name/value pairs in the .resx file. This is all well and good, until one of the values in the .resx is This dealer accepts electronic orders. /r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer. I'm adding the name/value pairs to the js object like this: streamWriter.Write(string.Format("\n{0} : \"{1}\"", kvp.Key, kvp.Value)); When kvp.Value = "This dealer accepts electronic orders./r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer." This causes StreamWriter.Write() to actually place a newline in between 'orders.' and 'Click', which naturally screws up my javascript output. I've tried different things with @ and without using string.Format, but I've had no luck. Any suggestions? Edit: This application is run during build to get some javascript files deployed later, so at no point is it accessible to / run by anyone but the app developers. So while I obviously need a way to escape characters here, XSS as such is not really a concern.

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  • Quickly or concisely determine the longest string per column in a row-based data collection

    - by ccornet
    Judging from the failure of my last inquiry, I need to calculate and preset the widths of a set of columns in a table that is being made into an Excel file. Unfortunately, the string data is stored in a row-based format, but the widths must be calculated in a column-based format. The data for the spreadsheets are generated from the following two collections: var dictFiles = l.Items.Cast<SPListItem>().GroupBy(foo => foo.GetSafeSPValue("Category")).ToDictionary(bar => bar.Key); StringDictionary dictCols = GetColumnsForItem(l.Title); Where l is an SPList whose title determines which columns are used. Each SPListItem corresponds to a row of data, which are sorted into separate worksheets based on Category (hence the dictionary). The second line is just a simple StringDictionary that has the column name (A, B, C, etc.) as a key and the corresponding SPListItme field display name as the corresponding value. So for each Category, I enumerate through dictFiles[somekey] to get all the rows in that sheet, and get the particular cell data using SPListItem.Fields[dictCols[colName]]. What I am asking is, is there a quick or concise method, for any one dictFiles[somekey], to retrieve a readout of the longest string in each column provided by dictCols? If it is impossible to get both quickness and conciseness, I can settle for either (since I always have the O(n*m) route of just enumerating the collection and updating an array whenever strCurrent.Length strLongest.Length). For example, if the goal table was the following... Item# Field1 Field2 Field3 1 Oarfish Atmosphere Pretty 2 Raven Radiation Adorable 3 Sunflower Flowers Cute I'd like a function which could cleanly take the collection of items 1, 2, and 3 and output in the correct order... Sunflower, Atmosphere, Adorable Using .NET 3.5 and C# 3.0.

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  • GDI: Dynamical Multiple Graphics in a page?

    - by SirLenz0rlot
    Hi all, I'm quite new to drawing shapes, graphics, bitmaps etc. I googled for a few days,but still havent got a real clue what to do, so please help me: I want to draw a floorplan with certain objects(represented as circles) moving on it. When I click on a object, it needs to show something. So far, I ve been able to draw some circles on a graphic and been able to move the dots by clearing the graphic every time. Ofcourse, this isnt a real solution, since I cant keep track of the different objects on the floorplan (which i need for my clickevent and movings). I hope I explained my problem ok here. This is the (stripped version of the) sourcecode that gets called every second: (dev (of type Device) is the object i want to draw) Graphics gfx = FloorplanTabPage.CreateGraphics(); gfx.Clear(Color.White); foreach (Device dev in _deviceList) { Pen myPen = new Pen(Color.Black) { Width = 10 }; dev.InRoom != null) { myPen.Color = Color.DarkOrchid; int x = dev.InRoom.XPos + (dev.InRoom.Width / 2) - 5; int y = (dev.InRoom.YPos + (dev.InRoom.Height / 2) - 5; if (dev.ToRoom != null) { x = (x + (dev.ToRoom.XPos + (dev.ToRoom.Width / 2)) / 2; y = (y + (dev.ToRoom.YPos + (dev.ToRoom.Height / 2)) / 2; } gfx.DrawEllipse(myPen, x, y, 10, 10); gfx.DrawString(dev.Name, new Font("Arial", 10), Brushes.Purple, x, y - 15); } }

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  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • std::vector elements initializing

    - by Chameleon
    std::vector<int> v1(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>> v2(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>::const_iterator> v3(1000); How elements of these 3 vectors initialized? About int, I test it and I saw that all elements become 0. Is this standard? I believed that primitives remain undefined. I create a vector with 300000000 elements, give non-zero values, delete it and recreate it, to avoid OS memory clear for data safety. Elements of recreated vector were 0 too. What about iterator? Is there a initial value (0) for default constructor or initial value remains undefined? When I check this, iterators point to 0, but this can be OS When I create a special object to track constructors, I saw that for first object, vector run the default constructor and for all others it run the copy constructor. Is this standard? Is there a way to completely avoid initialization of elements? Or I must create my own vector? (Oh my God, I always say NOT ANOTHER VECTOR IMPLEMENTATION) I ask because I use ultra huge sparse matrices with parallel processing, so I cannot use push_back() and of course I don't want useless initialization, when later I will change the value.

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Business Tier | client state in desktop application- way around Stateful Session Beans?

    - by arthur
    I read positive inputs on the following posts concerning client state management: Stateful EJBs in web application?, here, and here. I want to know how implement such client state management for desktop applications (Swing, AWT, SWT, and other). let's assume there are n desktop clients supposed to use some (remote) services provided on an Application Server. How to maintain a separate and permanent data state for each client , distinct from the other without have to use using stateful session Beans (SFSB) ? is that even possible on this application type ? With Webapp(Servlets / JsSF and JSP) some can avoid using SFSB by HttpSession object and/or coupling it with stateless session beans (SLSB). HttpSession object would keep information for each (Web)client separate and the SLSB would play the business logic music. But HttpSession objects aren't present on desktop application and I go stuck with only SFSB and SLSB. Knowing the problems(Concurrency, Error Handling, usw ) of SFSB, I would have not wanted to use it. What would be the other options? is there only SFSB available? Thanks in advances

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  • How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

    - by hunterae
    Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • How to get drag working properly in silverlight when mouse is not pressed ?

    - by Mrt
    Hello, I have the following code xaml <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" > <Rectangle Canvas.Left="40" Canvas.Top="40" Width="20" Height="20" Name="rec" Fill="Red" MouseLeftButtonDown="rec_MouseLeftButtonDown" MouseMove="rec_MouseMove" /> </Canvas> code behind public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } public Point LastDragPosition { get; set; } private bool isDragging; private void rec_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if(!isDragging) { return; } var position = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); var newPosition = new Point( Canvas.GetLeft(rec) + position.X - LastDragPosition.X, Canvas.GetTop(rec) + position.Y - LastDragPosition.Y); Canvas.SetLeft(rec, newPosition.X); Canvas.SetTop(rec, newPosition.Y); LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); } private void rec_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { isDragging = true; LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(sender as UIElement); rec.CaptureMouse(); } } This issue is the rectangle follows the mouse if the mouse left button is down, but I would like the rectangle to move even when the mouse left button isn't down. It works, but if you move the mouse very slowly. If you move the mouse to quickly the rectangle stops moving (is the mouse capture lost ?) Cheers,

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  • How do I put all the types matching a particular C# interface in an IDictionary?

    - by Kevin Brassen
    I have a number of classes all in the same interface, all in the same assembly, all conforming to the same generic interface: public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... It's safe to assume that if we have an IFactory<T> for a particular T that it's the only one of that kind. (That is, there aren't two things that implement IFactory<Apple>.) I'd like to use reflection to get all these types, and then store them all in an IDictionary, where the key is typeof(T) and the value is the corresponding IFactory<T>. I imagine eventually we would wind up with something like this: _map = new Dictionary<Type, object>(); foreach(Type t in [...]) { object factoryForType = System.Reflection.[???](t); _map[t] = factoryForType; } What's the best way to do that? I'm having trouble seeing how I'd do that with the System.Reflection interfaces.

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  • TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

    - by CFP
    Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

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  • WP7 BarcodeManager - Invalid cross-thread access

    - by rpf
    I'm trying to use Windows Phone 7 Silverlight ZXing Barcode Scanning Library but I'm having some problems. I'm using a background worker to check the image, but when I do this: WP7BarcodeManager.ScanBarcode(this.Image, BarcodeResults_Finished); The code throws an exception: Invalid cross-thread access. Here is my code... void photoChooserTask_Completed(object sender, PhotoResult e) { if (e.TaskResult == TaskResult.OK) { ShowImage(); System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapImage bmp = new System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapImage(); bmp.SetSource(e.ChosenPhoto); imgCapture.Source = bmp; this.Image = new BitmapImage(); this.Image.SetSource(e.ChosenPhoto); progressBar.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; txtStatus.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } else ShowMain(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { try { Thread.Sleep(2000); WP7BarcodeManager.ScanMode = com.google.zxing.BarcodeFormat.UPC_EAN; WP7BarcodeManager.ScanBarcode(this.Image, BarcodeResults_Finished); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine("Error processing image.", ex); } } How can I solve this?

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  • PHP Array saved to Text file

    - by coffeemonitor
    I've saved a response from an outside server to a text file, so I don't need to keep running connection requests. Instead, perhaps I can use the text file for my manipulation purposes, until I'm read for re-connecting again. (also, my connection requests are limited to this outside server) Here is what I've saved to a text file: records.txt Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 552 [date_created] => 2012-02-23 10:30:56 [date_modified] => 2012-03-09 18:55:26 [date_deleted] => 2012-03-09 18:55:26 [first_name] => Test [middle_name] => [last_name] => Test [home_phone] => (123) 123-1234 [email] => [email protected] ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 553 [date_created] => 2012-02-23 10:30:56 [date_modified] => 2012-03-09 18:55:26 [date_deleted] => 2012-03-09 18:55:26 [first_name] => Test [middle_name] => [last_name] => Test [home_phone] => (325) 558-1234 [email] => [email protected] ) ) There's actually more in the Array, but I'm sure 2 are fine. Since this is a text file, and I want to pretend this is the actual outside server (sending me the same info), how do I make it a real array again? I know I need to open the file first: <?php $fp = fopen('records.txt', "r"); // open the file $theData = fread($fh, filesize('records.txt')); fclose($fh); echo $theData; ?> So far $theData is a string value. Is there a way to convert it back to the Array it originally came in as?

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  • How to Bind a Command in WPF

    - by MegaMind
    Sometimes we used complex ways so many times, we forgot the simplest ways to do the task. I know how to do command binding, but i always use same approach. Create a class that implements ICommand interface and from the view model i create new instance of that class and binding works like a charm. This is the code that i used for command binding public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; testCommand = new MeCommand(processor); } ICommand testCommand; public ICommand test { get { return testCommand; } } public void processor() { MessageBox.Show("hello world"); } } public class MeCommand : ICommand { public delegate void ExecuteMethod(); private ExecuteMethod meth; public MeCommand(ExecuteMethod exec) { meth = exec; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return false; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; public void Execute(object parameter) { meth(); } } But i want to know the basic way to do this, no third party dll no new class creation. Do this simple command binding using a single class. Actual class implements from ICommand interface and do the work.

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  • Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

    - by abovesun
    I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

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