Search Results

Search found 30780 results on 1232 pages for 'object oriented modeling'.

Page 639/1232 | < Previous Page | 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646  | Next Page >

  • Is method reference caching a good idea in Java 8?

    - by gexicide
    Consider I have code like the following: class Foo { Y func(X x) {...} void doSomethingWithAFunc(Function<X,Y> f){...} void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(this::func); } } Consider that hotFunction is called very often. Would it then be advisable to cache this::func, maybe like this: class Foo { Function<X,Y> f = this::func; ... void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(f); } } As far as my understanding of java method references goes, the Virtual Machine creates an object of an anonymous class when a method reference is used. Thus, caching the reference would create that object only once while the first approach creates it on each function call. Is this correct? Should method references that appear at hot positions in the code be cached or is the VM able to optimize this and make the caching superfluous? Is there a general best practice about this or is this highly VM-implemenation specific whether such caching is of any use?

    Read the article

  • Error in django using Apache & mod_wsgi

    - by Ignacio
    Hey, I've been doing some changes to my django develpment env, as some of you suggested. So far I've managed to configure and run it successfully with postgres. Now I'm trying to run the app using apache2 and mod_wsgi, but I ran into this little problem after I followed the guidelines from the django docs. When I access localhost/myapp/tasks this error raises: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://localhost/myapp/tasks/ Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: argument 1 must be a string or unicode object Original Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/template/debug.py", line 71, in render_node result = node.render(context) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/template/defaulttags.py", line 126, in render len_values = len(values) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 81, in __len__ self._result_cache = list(self.iterator()) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 238, in iterator for row in self.query.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 287, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 2369, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 19, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) TypeError: argument 1 must be a string or unicode object ... ... ... And then it highlights a {% for t in tasks %} template tag, like the source of the problem is there, but it worked fine on the built-in server. The view associated with that page is really simple, just fetch all Task objects. And the template just displays them on a table. Also, some pages get rendered ok. Don't want to fill this Question with code, so if you need some more info I'd be glad to provide it. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What access token should i use?

    - by user548458
    I made a posting scores. It worked normaly sometimes. But, now I cant post any score. If I use user accessToken: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> (){ { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", accessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get error: {"error":{"message":"(#15) This method must be called with an app access_token.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":15}} If I use an app access token: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> () { { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", appAccessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get other error: {"error":{"message":"A user access token is required to request this resource.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":102}} Help me please, what am i doing wrong? PS: I worked well recently, but now - dont. Cant explain it...

    Read the article

  • Is this use of PreparedStatements in a Thread in JAVA correct?

    - by Gormcito
    I'm still an undergrad just working part time and so I'm always trying to be aware of better ways to do things. Recently I had to write a program for work where the main thread of the program would spawn "task" threads (for each db "task" record) which would perform some operations and then update the record to say that it has finished. Therefore I needed a database connection object and PreparedStatement objects in or available to the ThreadedTask objects. This is roughly what I ended up writing, is creating a PreparedStatement object per thread a waste? I thought static PreparedStatments could create race conditions... Thread A stmt.setInt(); Thread B stmt.setInt(); Thread A stmt.execute(); Thread B stmt.execute(); A´s version never gets execed.. Is this thread safe? Is creating and destroying PreparedStatement objects that are always the same not a huge waste? public class ThreadedTask implements runnable { private final PreparedStatement taskCompleteStmt; public ThreadedTask() { //... taskCompleteStmt = Main.db.prepareStatement(...); } public run() { //... taskCompleteStmt.executeUpdate(); } } public class Main { public static final db = DriverManager.getConnection(...); }

    Read the article

  • Execute files included in Resource folder

    - by Sumeet Pujari
    In WPF application where I have included some files in resources, I want to execute them on a button click. How do I specify a path in Process.Start(). private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Process.Start("test.txt"); } Or is there any other way? private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location) + @"\test.txt"; if (File.Exists(path)) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo(path)); } else { MessageBox.Show("No file found"+path); } I added a message box and it showed No files found. :( EDIT: I Tried to check the path after publishing and this what i got. No File Found With a Path - C:\Users\Administrator\AppData\Local\Apps\2.0... test.txt Before I published the Application I got a path which id No File Found at ..project..\bin\Debug\test.txt which is obvious since my Resource file not included there its Under a Resource Folder and not Debug when i add a test file in debug it open without any problem. Can someone Help throwing some light on this case. EDIT: I want to open a file from Resource directory @ C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\FastFix\FastFix\Resources Which would be included in my project when i am going to publish it is going to run as a standalone application without installation.

    Read the article

  • implementing interface

    - by 1ace1
    hello guys so i have this assignment that i need to implement interface to go over an ArrayList and sort it (ascending or descnding).I dont want "the" answer i just need some suggestions on my approach and why i get this error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassCastException: Week7.Check cannot be cast to java.lang.Comparable at java.util.Arrays.mergeSort(Unknown Source) at java.util.Arrays.sort(Unknown Source) at java.util.Collections.sort(Unknown Source) at Week7.TestCheck.main(TestCheck.java:18) This is how i did it: comparable had one method called public int compairTo(Object o) public class Check implements comparable { private Integer checkNumber; public Check(Integer newCheckNumber) { setCheckNumber(newCheckNumber); } public String toString() { return getCheckNumber().toString(); } public void setCheckNumber(Integer checkNumber) { this.checkNumber = checkNumber; } public Integer getCheckNumber() { return checkNumber; } @Override public int compairTo(Object o) { Check compair = (Check)o; int result = 0; if (this.getCheckNumber() > compair.getCheckNumber()) result = 1; else if(this.getCheckNumber() < compair.getCheckNumber()) result = -1; return result; } } in my main i had this import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Collections; public class TestCheck { public static void main(String[] args) { ArrayList checkList = new ArrayList(); checkList.add(new Check(445)); checkList.add(new Check(101)); checkList.add(new Check(110)); checkList.add(new Check(553)); checkList.add(new Check(123)); Collections.sort(checkList); for (int i =0; i < checkList.size(); i++){ System.out.println(checkList.get(i)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Returning JSON or XML for Exceptions in Jersey

    - by Dominic
    My goal is to have an error bean returned on a 404 with a descriptive message when a object is not found, and return the same MIME type that was requested. I have a look up resource, which will return the specified object in XML or JSON based on the URI (I have setup the com.sun.jersey.config.property.resourceConfigClass servlet parameter so I dont need the Accept header. My JAXBContextResolver has the ErrorBean.class in its list of types, and the correct JAXBContext is returned for this class because I can see in the logs). eg: http://foobar.com/rest/locations/1.json @GET @Path("{id}") @Produces({MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON, MediaType.APPLICATION_XML}) public Location getCustomer(@PathParam("id") int cId) { //look up location from datastore .... if (location == null) { throw new NotFoundException("Location" + cId + " is not found"); } } And my NotFoundException looks like this: public class NotFoundException extends WebApplicationException { public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(new ErrorBean( message, Response.Status.NOT_FOUND.getStatusCode() ) .build()); } } The ErrorBean is as follows: @XmlRootElement(name = "error") public class ErrorBean { private String errorMsg; private int errorCode; //no-arg constructor, property constructor, getter and setters ... } However, I'm always getting a 204 No Content response when I try this. I have hacked around, and if I return a string and specify the mime type this works fine: public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(message).type("text/plain").build()); } I have also tried returning an ErrorBean as a resource. This works fine: {"errorCode":404,"errorMsg":"Location 1 is not found!"}

    Read the article

  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

    Read the article

  • Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

    - by Xaqron
    // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

    Read the article

  • Query syntax error selecting from 3 tables

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    Given info about an object: id, user_id, group_id Given info about an user: id_user, id_loc I need to get i one query: The name of the user (in table users) The name of the location of the user (in table locs) The name of the group of the object (in table groups) I am trying like this: SELECT usuarios.first_name as username, usuarios.id as userid, usuarios.avatar as useravatar, usuarios.id_loc, locs.name as locname, groups.name as groupname FROM usuarios,groups,locs WHRE usuarios.id_loc = locs.id AND usuarios.id = 1 AND group.id = LIMIT 1 having an error saying You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'AND locs.id = 3 LIMIT 1' at line 3 What am i doing wrong? can i do this in one query? -EDIT- This is the query generator code (php+mysql): $query_loc_group_user = 'SELECT usuarios.first_name as username, usuarios.id as userid, usuarios.avatar as useravatar, usuarios.id_loc, locs.name as locname, groups.name as groupname FROM usuarios,groups,locs WHRE usuarios.id_loc = locs.id AND usuarios.id = '.$this->id_user.' AND group.id = '.$this->id_group.' LIMIT 1'; In case it helps, i am trying to do in one query this function get_info(){ $info; $result = cache_query('SELECT first_name,last_name,avatar FROM usuarios WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result as $extra){ $info['username'] = $extra['first_name'].' '.$extra['last_name']; $info['avatar'] = $extra['avatar']; } $result1 = cache_query('SELECT name FROM locs WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result1 as $extra){ $info['locname'] = $extra['name']; } $result2 = cache_query('SELECT name FROM locs WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result2 as $extra){ $info['groupname'] = $extra['name']; } return $info; }

    Read the article

  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • deployd authentification using jquery ajax

    - by user2507987
    I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

    Read the article

  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

    Read the article

  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

    Read the article

  • Jquery- Get the value of first td in table

    - by Jerry
    Hello. I am trying to get the value of first td in each tr when a users clicks "click". The result below will output aa ,ee or ii. I was thinking about using clesest('tr')..but it always output "Object object". Not sure what to do on this one. Thanks. My html is <table> <tr> <td>aa</td> <td>bb</td> <td>cc</td> <td>dd</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ee</td> <td>ff</td> <td>gg</td> <td>hh</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ii</td> <td>jj</td> <td>kk</td> <td>ll</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> </table> Jquery $(".hit").click(function(){ var value=$(this).// not sure what to do here alert(value) ; });

    Read the article

  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Casting/dereferencing member variable pointer from void*, is this safe?

    - by Damien
    Hi all, I had a problem while hacking a bigger project so I made a simpel test case. If I'm not omitting something, my test code works fine, but maybe it works accidentally so I wanted to show it to you and ask if there are any pitfalls in this approach. I have an OutObj which has a member variable (pointer) InObj. InObj has a member function. I send the address of this member variable object (InObj) to a callback function as void*. The type of this object never changes so inside the callback I recast to its original type and call the aFunc member function in it. In this exampel it works as expected, but in the project I'm working on it doesn't. So I might be omitting something or maybe there is a pitfall here and this works accidentally. Any comments? Thanks a lot in advance. (The problem I have in my original code is that InObj.data is garbage). #include <stdio.h> class InObj { public: int data; InObj(int argData); void aFunc() { printf("Inside aFunc! data is: %d\n", data); }; }; InObj::InObj(int argData) { data = argData; } class OutObj { public: InObj* objPtr; OutObj(int data); ~OutObj(); }; OutObj::OutObj(int data) { objPtr = new InObj(data); } OutObj::~OutObj() { delete objPtr; } void callback(void* context) { ((InObj*)context)->aFunc(); } int main () { OutObj a(42); callback((void*)a.objPtr); }

    Read the article

  • How to optimize my game calendar in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I've implemented a simple calendar (message system) for my game which consists from: 1) List<Event> calendar; 2) public class Event { /// <summary> /// When to process the event /// </summary> public Int64 when; /// <summary> /// Which object should process the event /// </summary> public GameObject who; /// <summary> /// Type of event /// </summary> public EventType what; public int posX; public int posY; public int EventID; } 3) calendar.Add(new Event(...)) The problem with this code is that even thought the number of messages is not excessise per second. It allocates still new memory and GC will once need to take care of that. The garbage collection may lead to a slight lag in my game and therefore I'd like to optimalize my code. My considerations: To change Event class in a structure - but the structure is not entirely small and it takes some time to copy it wherever I need it. Reuse Event object somehow (add queue with used events and when new event is needed I'll just take from this queue). Does anybody has other idea how to solve the problem? Thanks for suggestions!

    Read the article

  • Rails nested association issue

    - by Ben Langfeld
    Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

    Read the article

  • Calling multiple functions simultaneously with jquery.

    - by clarke78
    I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

    Read the article

  • Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

    - by Stefanos Tses
    I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

    - by RetroNoodle
    I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Is fetching data from database a get-method thing?

    - by theva
    I have a small class that I call Viewer. This class is supposed to view the proper layout of each page or something like that... I have a method called getFirstPage, when called the user of this method will get a setting value for which page is currently set as the first page. I have some code here, I think it works but I am not really shure that I have done it the right way: class Viewer { private $db; private $user; private $firstPage; function __construct($db, $user) { $this->db = $db; if(isset($user)) { $this->user = $user; } else { $this->user = 'default'; } } function getFistPage() { $std = $db->prepare("SELECT firstPage FROM settings WHERE user = ':user'"); $std->execute(array(':user' => $user)); $result = $std->fetch(); $this->firstPage = $result['firstPage']; return $this->firstPage; } } My get method is fetching the setting from databse (so far so good?). The problem is that then I have to use this get method to set the private variable firstPage. It seems like I should have a set method to do this, but I cannot really have a set method that just fetch some setting from database, right? Because the user of this object should be able to assume that there already is a setting defined in the object... How should I do that?

    Read the article

  • To bring the IE window in front of the Screen

    - by Parameswari
    I am creating new IE browser instance dynamically, and opening a aspx page from there. Everything works fine , but the browser is not popping in the Front of the screen .Able to see the Aspx page in the task bar when I click it from there it comes to the Front . How to bring that page in front of all the Screen as soon as IE is created. I have pasted the code I used to create new IE instance. public class IEInstance { public SHDocVw.InternetExplorer IE1; public void IEInstanceCls(string check) { IE1 = new SHDocVw.InternetExplorer(); object Empty = 0; string urlpath = " "; urlpath = "http://localhost/TestPage.aspx?"; object URL = urlpath; IE1.Top = 260; IE1.Left = 900; IE1.Width = 390; IE1.Height = 460; IE1.StatusBar = false; IE1.ToolBar = 0; IE1.MenuBar = false; IE1.Visible = true; IE1.Navigate2(ref URL, ref Empty, ref Empty, ref Empty, ref Empty); } } Help me to solve this problem. Thank You

    Read the article

  • Error "initializer element is not constant" when trying to initialize variable with const

    - by tomlogic
    I get an error on line 6 (initialize my_foo to foo_init) of the following program and I'm not sure I understand why. typedef struct foo_t { int a, b, c; } foo_t; const foo_t foo_init = { 1, 2, 3 }; foo_t my_foo = foo_init; int main() { return 0; } Keep in mind this is a simplified version of a larger, multi-file project I'm working on. The goal was to have a single constant in the object file, that multiple files could use to initialize a state structure. Since it's an embedded target with limited resources and the struct isn't that small, I don't want multiple copies of the source. I'd prefer not to use: #define foo_init { 1, 2, 3 } I'm also trying to write portable code, so I need a solution that's valid C89 or C99. Does this have to do with the ORGs in an object file? That initialized variables go into one ORG and are initialized by copying the contents of a second ORG? Maybe I'll just need to change my tactic, and have an initializing function do all of the copies at startup. Unless there are other ideas out there?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646  | Next Page >