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• How should I manage my many-to-many relationships?

  - by wes

  Hello all, I have a database containing a couple tables: files and users. This relationship is many-to-many, so I also have a table called users_files_ref which holds foreign keys to both of the above tables. Here's the schema of each table: files - file_id, file_name users - user_id, user_name users_files_ref - user_file_ref_id, user_id, file_id I'm using Codeigniter to build a file host application, and I'm right in the middle of adding the functionality that enables users to upload files. This is where I'm running into my problem. Once I add a file to the files table, I will need that new file's id to update the users_files_ref table. Right now I'm adding the record to the files table, and then I imagined I'd run a query to grab the last file added, so that I can get the ID, and then use that ID to insert the new users_files_ref record. I know this will work on a small scale, but I imagine there is a better way of managing these records, especially in a heavy-traffic scenario. I am new to relational database stuff but have been around PHP for a while, so please bear with me here :-) I have primary and foreign keys set up correctly for the files, users, and users_files_ref tables, I'm just wondering how to manage the adding of file records for this scenario? Thanks for any help provided, it's much appreciated. -Wes

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• SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

  - by luksan

  In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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• Post method in Servlet is not being called again after being executed once

  - by SaurabhCsIITKgp

  I am implementing a database based web application using servlets. Now, when I input a parameter using a form in the jsp page, it redirects it to a servlet which subsequently adds the value to the database (the servlet creates a new table if the table doesn't already exist). The creation of the table and the addition of value works fine if the table doesn't already exists. Once it is created however and the parameter is inputted again in the form, the submit button no longer redirects it to the servlet. Nor is the value added to the database. Kindly advise me as to where I am going wrong. Following are the snippets of my code: From the JSP page (/showmanager is the urlpattern of the servlet): <form action="showmanager" method="post"> <h3>Enter name of the show: </h3> <input type="text" name="showname" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="task" value="addshow" /> <input type="button" value="Add Show"> </form> From the servlet (POST method): p rotected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if(request.getParameter("task").equals("addshow")){ this.addShow(request.getParameter("showname")); response.sendRedirect("showmanager.jsp"); } } Method to add in database: protected boolean addShow(String showname){ try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } } catch(Exception e) { try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("create table showdb10 (id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, date varchar(20),time varchar(20), b_total int, o_total int, b_avbl int, o_avbl int, b_price double(10,2), o_price double(10,2), seat_no varchar(20), transaction_id varchar(255), total_sales double(10,2), paymnt_artists double(10,2), paymnt_othr double(10,2), flag varchar(20), PRIMARY KEY(id))"); statement.executeUpdate(); statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } }catch(Exception e2){} } return false; }

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• db:migrate creates sequences but doesn't alter table?

  - by RewbieNewbie

  Hello, I have a migration that creates a postres sequence for auto incrementing a primary identifier, and then executes a statement for altering the column and specifying the default value: execute 'CREATE SEQUENCE "ServiceAvailability_ID_seq";' execute <<-SQL ALTER TABLE "ServiceAvailability" ALTER COLUMN "ID" set DEFAULT NEXTVAL('ServiceAvailability_ID_seq'); SQL If I run db:migrate everything seems to work, in that no errors are returned, however, if I run the rails application I get: Mnull value in column "ID" violates not-null constraint I have discovered by executing the sql statement in the migration manually, that this error is because the alter statement isn't working, or isn't being executed. If I manually execute the following statement: CREATE SEQUENCE "ServiceAvailability_ID_seq; I get: error : ERROR: relation "serviceavailability_id_seq" already exists Which means the migration successfully created the sequence! However, if I manually run: ALTER TABLE "ServiceProvider" ALTER COLUMN "ID" set DEFAULT NEXTVAL('ServiceProvider_ID_seq'); SQL It runs successfully and creates the default NEXTVAL. So the question is, why is the migration file creating the sequence with the first execute statement, but not altering the table in the second execute? (Remembering, no errors are output on running db:migrate) Thank you and apologies for tl:dr

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• Rendering Swing Components to an Offscreen buffer

  - by Nick C

  I have a Java (Swing) application, running on a 32-bit Windows 2008 Server, which needs to render it's output to an off-screen image (which is then picked up by another C++ application for rendering elsewhere). Most of the components render correctly, except in the odd case where a component which has just lost focus is occluded by another component, for example where there are two JComboBoxes close to each other, if the user interacts with the lower one, then clicks on the upper one so it's pull-down overlaps the other box. In this situation, the component which has lost focus is rendered after the one occluding it, and so appears on top in the output. It renders correctly in the normal Java display (running full-screen on the primary display), and attempting to change the layers of the components in question does not help. I am using a custom RepaintManager to paint the components to the offscreen image, and I assume the problem lies with the order in which addDirtyRegion() is called for each of the components in question, but I can't think of a good way of identifying when this particular state occurs in order to prevent it. Hacking it so that the object which has just lost focus is not repainted stops the problem, but obviously causes the bigger problem that it is not repainted in all other, normal, circumstances. Is there any way of programmatically identifying this state, or of reordering things so that it does not occur? Many thanks, Nick

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• I have two choices of Master's classes this fall. Which is the most useful?

  - by ahplummer

  (For background purposes and context): I am a Software Engineer, and manage other Software Engineers currently. I kind of wear two hats right now: one of a programmer, and one as a 'team lead'. In this regard, I've started going back to school to get my Master's degree with an emphasis in Computer Science. I already have a Bachelor's in Computer Science, and have been working in the field for about 13 years. Our primary development environment is a Windows environment, writing in .NET, Delphi, and SQL Server. Choice #1: CST 798 DATA VISUALIZATION Course Description: Basically, this is a course on the "Processing" language: http://processing.org/ Choice #2: CST 711 INFORMATICS Course Description: (From catalog): Informatics is the science of the use and processing of data, information, and knowledge. This course covers a variety of applied issues from information technology, information management at a variety of levels, ranging from simple data entry, to the creation, design and implementation of new information systems, to the development of models. Topics include basic information representation, processing, searching, and organization, evaluation and analysis of information, Internet-based information access tools, ethics and economics of information sharing.

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• How to write this Link2Sql select query

  - by RememberME

  I have 3 tables: subcontracts, companies and contacts. Each table has a active_status flags which shows that the item is still active (hasn't been deleted). Each contact has a company_id field which stores the id of the contact's company. Each subcontract has a company_id field which stores the subcontract's company. Each company has a company_id field which holds its guid and a primary_company field, b/c the company could be a subsidiary. If it's a subsidiary, the primary_company field holds the id of the primary company. I have a subcontract form. On the form, I have a drop-down of contacts which are stored in a contact table. Currently the drop-down lists all contacts. I would like to have the drop-down only list contacts which belong to the subcontract's company or any of that company's subsidiaries. I have the following query which I use elsewhere in the program to pass a company_id and get its subsidiaries. public IQueryable<company> GetSubsidiaryCompanies(Guid id) { return from c in db.companies where c.primary_company == id && c.active_status == true select c; } This is my current contact selection public IQueryable<contact> GetContacts() { return from c in db.contacts where c.active_status == true orderby c.contact_name select c; } What I need to do is pass it the subcontract.company_id and then only return the contacts where contact.company_id == subcontract.company_id or contact.company_id == one of the subsidiary ids.

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• random data using php & mysql

  - by Prakash

  I have mysql database structure like below: CREATE TABLE test ( id int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, title text NULL, tags text NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); data on field tags is stored as a comma separated text like html,php,mysql,website,html etc... now I need create an array that contains around 50 randomly selected tags from random records. currently I am using rand() to select 15 random mysql data from database and then holding all the tags from 15 records in an array. Then I am using array_rand() for randomizing the array and selecting only 50 random records. $query=mysql_query("select * from test order by id asc, RAND() limit 15"); $tags=""; while ($eachData=mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $additionalTags=$eachData['tags']; if ($tags=="") { $tags.=$additionalTags; } else { $tags.=$tags.",".$additionalTags; } } $tags=explode(",", $tags); $newTags=array(); foreach ($tags as $tag) { $tag=trim($tag); if ($tag!="") { if (!in_array($tag, $newTags)) { $newTags[]=$tag; } } } $random_newTags=array_rand($newTags, 50); Now I have huge records on the database, and because of that; rand() is performing very slow and sometimes it doesn't work. So can anyone let me know how to handle this situation correctly so that my page will work normally.

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• MySQL Cursor Issue

  - by James Inman

  I've got the following code - this is the first time I've really attempted using cursors. DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS demo$$ DROP TABLE IF EXISTS temp$$ CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temp( id INTEGER NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, start DATETIME NOT NULL, end DATETIME NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(id) ) $$ CREATE PROCEDURE demo() BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE a, b DATETIME; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; DECLARE cur2 CURSOR FOR SELECT MIN(start) AS start FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num LIMIT 1, 18446744073709551615; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur1; OPEN cur2; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO a; FETCH cur2 INTO b; IF NOT done THEN INSERT INTO temp(start, end) VALUES(a,b); END IF; UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; CLOSE cur2; END $$ SELECT * FROM temp; I'm not getting anything outputted into the temp table. Running the following query gives me output, so I know there's rows it should be matching - but I imagine I've made some obvious mistake. SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; The output this query returns: +---------------------+ | end | +---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-27 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-28 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-30 15:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 17:15:00 | +---------------------+ 11 rows in set (0.02 sec)

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• How do I pass session variables from one domain to another in PHP

  - by Dave

  Hi everyone, I have encountered a situation where I need to pass $_SESSION variables from one domain to an iFrame page from another domain. I have spent the last 16 days trying various methods to no avail. I think that the only logical way would be to encode the variables in the url that calls the iFrame and decode them in th iFrame page. I am not sure how to go about this and I am looking for any samples, assistance etc that I can find. Thanks for any and all suggestions. Here is an example of what I am trying to do... Example: <!-- Note only using hidden as I didn't want to build the form at test phase--> <form name="test" method="post" action="iframe_test.php"> <input type="submit" name="Submit" /> <input type="hidden" name="fName" value="abc" /> <input type="hidden" name="lName" value="def" /> <input type="hidden" name="address1" value="ghi" /> <input type="hidden" name="address2" value="jkl" /> <input type="hidden" name="country" value="mno" /> <input type="hidden" name="postal_code" value="pqr" /> <input type="hidden" name="city" value="stu" /> <input type="hidden" name="retUrl" value="vwx"> <input type="hidden" name="decUrl" value="yz"> So from here I am hitting the iframe_test.php and doing the following: PHP Code: function StripSpecChar($val) { return (preg_replace('/[^a-zA-Z0-9" "-.@\:\/_]/','', $val)); } foreach ($_POST as $key => $val) { $_SESSION[$key] = StripSpecChar($val); } and I get a session array that looks like this: Code: Array ( [fName] => abc [lName] => def [address1] => ghi [address2] => jkl [country] => mno [postal_code] => pqr [city] => stu [retUrl] => vwx [decUrl] => yz ) Still all good so far....call the iFrame Code: <body> Some page stuff here <div align="center"><span class="style1"><strong>This is the iFrame Page</strong></span> </div> <div align="center"> <iframe src="https://www.other_domain.org/iframe/reserve.php" width="500" height="350" frameBorder="0"></iframe> </div> </body> So HOW do I take... $_SESSION['fName']['abc']; $_SESSION['lName']['def']; $_SESSION['address1']['ghi']; $_SESSION['address2']['jkl']; $_SESSION['country']['mno']; $_SESSION['postal_code']['pqr']; $_SESSION['city']['stu']; $_SESSION['retUrl']['vwx']; $_SESSION['decUrl']['yz']; and turn it into the encoded url that I am looking for? Further once that is done how to I get the session vars back as session vars on that new domain iFrame page...

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• How can I validate/secure/authenticate a JavaScript-based POST request?

  - by Bungle

  A product I'm helping to develop will basically work like this: A Web publisher creates a new page on their site that includes a <script> from our server. When a visitor reaches that new page, that <script> gathers the text content of the page and sends it to our server via a POST request (cross-domain, using a <form> inside of an <iframe>). Our server processes the text content and returns a response (via JSONP) that includes an HTML fragment listing links to related content around the Web. This response is cached and served to subsequent visitors until we receive another POST request with text content from the same URL, at which point we regenerate a "fresh" response. These POSTs only happen when our cached TTL expires, at which point the server signifies that and prompts the <script> on the page to gather and POST the text content again. The problem is that this system seems inherently insecure. In theory, anyone could spoof the HTTP POST request (including the referer header, so we couldn't just check for that) that sends a page's content to our server. This could include any text content, which we would then use to generate the related content links for that page. The primary difficulty in making this secure is that our JavaScript is publicly visible. We can't use any kind of private key or other cryptic identifier or pattern because that won't be secret. Ideally, we need a method that somehow verifies that a POST request corresponding to a particular Web page is authentic. We can't just scrape the Web page and compare the content with what's been POSTed, since the purpose of having JavaScript submit the content is that it may be behind a login system. Any ideas? I hope I've explained the problem well enough. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.

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• Uninitialized array offset

  - by kimmothy16

  Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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• Index Tuning for SSIS tasks

  - by Raj More

  I am loading tables in my warehouse using SSIS. Since my SSIS is slow, it seemed like a great idea to build indexes on the tables. There are no primary keys (and therefore, foreign keys), indexes (clustered or otherwise), constraints, on this warehouse. In other words, it is 100% efficiency free. We are going to put indexes based on usage - by analyzing new queries and current query performance. So, instead of doing it our old fashioned sweat and grunt way of actually reading the SQL statements and execution plans, I thought I'd put the shiny new Database Engine Tuning Advisor to use. I turned SQL logging off in my SSIS package and ran a "Tuning" trace, saved it to a table and analyzed the output in the Tuning Advisor. Most of the lookups are done as: exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Active], [CompanyID], [CompanyName], [CompanyShortName], [CompanyTypeID], [HierarchyNodeID] FROM [dbo].[Company] WHERE ([CompanyID]=@P1) AND ([StartDateTime] IS NOT NULL AND [EndDateTime] IS NULL)',N'@P1 int',1 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Active], [CompanyID], [CompanyName], [CompanyShortName], [CompanyTypeID], [HierarchyNodeID] FROM [dbo].[Company] WHERE ([CompanyID]=@P1) AND ([StartDateTime] IS NOT NULL AND [EndDateTime] IS NULL)',N'@P1 int',2 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Active], [CompanyID], [CompanyName], [CompanyShortName], [CompanyTypeID], [HierarchyNodeID] FROM [dbo].[Company] WHERE ([CompanyID]=@P1) AND ([StartDateTime] IS NOT NULL AND [EndDateTime] IS NULL)',N'@P1 int',3 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Active], [CompanyID], [CompanyName], [CompanyShortName], [CompanyTypeID], [HierarchyNodeID] FROM [dbo].[Company] WHERE ([CompanyID]=@P1) AND ([StartDateTime] IS NOT NULL AND [EndDateTime] IS NULL)',N'@P1 int',4 and when analyzed, these statements have the reason "Event does not reference any tables". Huh? Does it not see the FROM dbo.Company??!! What is going on here? So, I have multiple questions: How do I get it to capture the actual statement executing in my trace, not what was submitted in a batch? Are there any best practices to follow for tuning performance related to SSIS packages running against SQL Server 2008?

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• Double Click and Resize on an Ipad

  - by Luke

  Thanks to the great post at OranLooney.com I was able to get a java/icefaces web-app to resize nicely on the ipad, however the code provided for double click doesn't seem to work without further customization. Has anybody had any experience with getting this to work? there seems to be little documentation on google. the donnothing(); in the window.orientationchange is there as it seems sometimes without it the resize will (sometimes) not work // a function to parse the user agent string; useful for // detecting lots of browsers, not just the iPad. function checkUserAgent(vs) { var pattern = new RegExp(vs, 'i'); return !!pattern.test(navigator.userAgent); } if ( checkUserAgent('iPad') ) { // iPad specific stuff here window.onorientationchange = function() { donnothing(); }; document.body.addEventListener('touchstart', function(e) { touch = e.touches[0]; if ( !touch ) return; var me = document.createEvent("MouseEvents"); me.initMouseEvent('dblclick', true, true, window, 1, // detail / mouse click count touch.screenX, touch.screenY, touch.clientX, touch.clientY, false, false, false, false, // key modifiers 0, // primary mouse button null // related target not used for dblclick event ); touch.target.dispatchEvent(me); }); }

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• Unknown user 'app' with capistrano

  - by trobrock

  This is my first time trying to set up capistrano to deploy a rails application. I am deploying from my local machine to my remote server that has the repo, web, app, and mysql servers all on the same machine. I am following this walk through: http://www.capify.org/index.php/From_The_Beginning I get to the command cap deploy:start Then I get this error: *** [err :: example.com] sudo: unknown user: app command finished failed: "sh -c 'cd /var/www/example/current && sudo -p '\\''sudo password: '\\'' -u app nohup script/spin'" on example.com Am I supposed to add an 'app' user, or is there a way of changing what user the command runs as? This is my deploy.rb: set :application, "example" set :repository, "[email protected]:example.git" set :user, "trobrock" set :branch, 'master' set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example" set :scm, :git # Or: `accurev`, `bzr`, `cvs`, `darcs`, `git`, `mercurial`, `perforce`, `subversion` or `none` role :web, "example.com" # Your HTTP server, Apache/etc role :app, "example.com" # This may be the same as your `Web` server role :db, "example.com", :primary => true # This is where Rails migrations will run And obviously everywhere it says example.com is my servers hostname and every it just says example is the app name.

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• Load Spikes on a Apache MySQL Server with Wordpress MU

  - by Vikram Goyal

  Hi there, I am trying to investigate the reasons for some mysterious load spikes on a Linux Apache server (2.2.14) running PHP 5.2.9 on a dedicated server with enough processing power and memory. My primary web application is a Wordpress MU (2.9.2) installation. I have investigated and ruled out DOS attack, MySQL or Apache configuration issues. The log files don't give me anything of interest, except to tell me that there is severe load. The load (which can go up to 100) just seems to come and go. It helps that I have a script that checks every 3 minutes for the load, and restarts Apache. Restarting it helps, and the server comes back, till it happens again. There seems to be no set time frame, or visitor numbers on the site that can trigger this. Even a low number of concurrent visitors (20) can trigger it. I am almost convinced that there is a rewrite loop somewhere that is causing Apache to go mad. Apache is trying to serve something that is causing it to spawn more and more processes till it keels over. My question is: Given that I am convinced that this is a rewrite issue or something similar, how can I try and figure out what the issue is? What should I monitor? Apache logs are voluminous, and not very helpful. Of course, if this is not the issue, then at least knowing what to look for will help me eliminate this as an issue and look for something else. Thanks! Vikram

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• "Exclusive" DirectDraw palette isn't actually exclusive

  - by CyberShadow

  We're maintaining an old video game that uses a full-screen 256-color graphics mode with DirectDraw. The problem is, some applications running in the background sometimes try to change the system palette while the game is running, which results in corrupted graphics. We can (sometimes) detect when this happens by processing the WM_PALETTECHANGED message. A few update versions ago we added logging (just log the window title/class/process name), which helped users identify offending applications and close them. MSN Live Messenger was a common culprit. The problem got worse when we found out that Windows Vista (and 7) does it "by itself". The WM_PALETTECHANGED parameters point towards CSRSS and the desktop window. In Vista, a workaround that often worked was to open any folder (Computer, Documents, etc.) and leave it open while running the game. Sounds ridiculous, but it worked - in most cases. In Windows 7, not even this workaround worked any more. Users found that stopping some services (Windows Update and the indexing service) also resolved the problem on some configurations. Some time ago I just started trying random things in hope of finding a solution. I found that setting the GDI palette (using Create/SelectPalette) before setting the DirectDraw palette (using IDirectDrawPalette::SetEntries) would restore the palette after it became corrupted (WM_PALETTECHANGED handler). SetSystemPaletteUse and calling SetPalette on the primary surface helped some more. However, there is still perceivable flickering when an application tries to steal the palette, which is especially prominent during fades. Question: is there a way to get a "real" exclusive palette, which completely disallows other applications changing the Windows palette as long as our game retains focus?

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• Pulling record from mySQL database only working for userid and not email

  - by user2908467

  This function works because I search by userid: private void showList_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = 0; for (int i = 0; i <= sqlClient.Count("UserList"); i++) { Dictionary<string, string> dik = sqlClient.Select("UserList", "userid = " + id); var lines = dik.Select(kv => kv.Key + ": " + kv.Value.ToString()); userList.AppendText(string.Join(Environment.NewLine, lines)); userList.AppendText(Environment.NewLine); userList.AppendText("--------------------------------------"); id++; } } This function does not work because I search by email: private void login_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string email = lemail.Text; Dictionary<string, string> dik = sqlClient.Select("UserList", "firstname = " + email); var lines = dik.Select(kv => kv.Key + ": " + kv.Value.ToString()); logged.AppendText(string.Join(Environment.NewLine, lines)); } This is the error message I receive when I click on the login button: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '@aol.com' at line 1 The email I searched for in the database was "[email protected]" without quotes. I'm lead to believe by the error message the @ sign is causing conflict as I know it is a special character but I am having a hard time figuring out what phrase to search for to help me. Also, here is the function that is being called: public Dictionary<string, string> Select(string table, string WHERE) { //This methods selects from the database, it retrieves data from it. //You must make a dictionary to use this since it both saves the column //and the value. i.e. "age" and "33" so you can easily search for values. //Example: SELECT * FROM names WHERE name='John Smith' // This example would retrieve all data about the entry with the name "John Smith" //Code = Dictionary<string, string> myDictionary = Select("names", "name='John Smith'"); //This code creates a dictionary and fills it with info from the database. string query = "SELECT * FROM " + table + " WHERE " + WHERE + ""; Dictionary<string, string> selectResult = new Dictionary<string, string>(); if (this.Open()) { MySqlCommand cmd = new MySqlCommand(query, conn); MySqlDataReader dataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); try { while (dataReader.Read()) { for (int i = 0; i < dataReader.FieldCount; i++) { selectResult.Add(dataReader.GetName(i).ToString(), dataReader.GetValue(i).ToString()); } } dataReader.Close(); } catch { } this.Close(); return selectResult; } else { return selectResult; } } My database table is called "UserList" The fields in order are as follows: userid, email, password, lastname, firstname Any help would be greatly appreciated. This site is amazing!

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• Force close message when preferences are called via menu button

  - by Dan T

  I see no problem in the code. Help? preferences.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <PreferenceScreen xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <ListPreference android:title="Gender" android:summary="Are you male or female?" android:key="genderPref" android:defaultValue="male" android:entries="@array/genderArray" android:entryValues="@array/genderValues" /> <ListPreference android:title="Weight" android:summary="How much do you weigh?" android:key="weightPref" android:defaultValue="180" android:entries="@array/weightArray" android:entryValues="@array/weightValues" /> </PreferenceScreen> arrays.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> <string-array name="genderArray"> <item>Male</item> <item>Female</item> </string-array> <string-array name="genderValues"> <item>male</item> <item>female</item> </string-array> <string-array name="weightArray"> <item>120</item> <item>150</item> <item>180</item> <item>210</item> <item>240</item> <item>270</item> </string-array> <string-array name="weightValues"> <item>120</item> <item>150</item> <item>180</item> <item>210</item> <item>240</item> <item>270</item> </string-array> </resources> Preferences.java: package com.dantoth.drinkingbuddy; import android.os.Bundle; import android.preference.PreferenceActivity; public class Preferences extends PreferenceActivity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.preferences); }; } butts.xml (idk why it's butts but I've gotten used to it now. really just sets up the menu button) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/settings" android:title="Settings" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_settings" /> <item android:id="@+id/archive" android:title="Archive" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_archive" /> <item android:id="@+id/new_session" android:title="New Session" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_new" /> <item android:id="@+id/about" android:title="About" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_about" /> </menu> within DrinkingBuddy.java: @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { switch (item.getItemId()) { case R.id.settings: startActivity(new Intent(this, Preferences.class)); return true; case R.id.archive: Toast.makeText(this, "Expect to see your old drinking sessions here.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return true; //ETC. } return false; That's it. I can press the menu button on the phone and see the menu items I created, but when I click on the "Settings" (r.id.settings) it FC. Do I have to do anything to the manifest/other thing to get this to work??

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• Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

  - by Rupa

  Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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• Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

  - by swalkner

  Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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• Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

  - by Rob

  Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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• desing pattern for related inputs

  - by curiousMo

  My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

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• sqlite3 delete does not delete everything?

  - by Skand

  Whats going on here? I would expect the following delete to delete everything from the table. Is there a fundamental mis-understanding of how sqlite3 behaves on my part? sqlite .schema CREATE TABLE ip_domain_table (ip_domain TEXT, answer TEXT, ttl INTEGER, PRIMARY KEY(ip_domain, answer, ttl)); sqlite select count(*) from ip_domain_table where ttl < 9999999999 ; 1605343 sqlite pragma cache_size=100000; delete from ip_domain_table where ttl < 9999999999; sqlite select count(*) from ip_domain_table where ttl < 9999999999 ; 258 Q: Why does the count show "258"? Shouldn't it be 0 instead? If I do this instead, it deletes all the entries as expected. sqlite select count(*) from ip_domain_table; 1605343 sqlite pragma cache_size=100000; delete from ip_domain_table; sqlite select count(*) from ip_domain_table; 0

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• How to modulate every texture unit in OpenGL ES 1.1?

  - by Jesse Beder

  I have two textures and a "blend factor", and I'd like to mix them, modulated by the current color; in effect, I want to use the following shader: gl_FragColor = gl_Color * mix(tex0, tex1, blendFactor); I'm using OpenGL ES 1.1, targeting all versions of the iPhone, so I can't use shaders, and I have two texture units. My best attempt is: // texture 0 glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); image1.Bind(); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); // texture 1 glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE1); image2.Bind(); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_COMBINE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_RGB, GL_INTERPOLATE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_RGB, GL_PREVIOUS); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_RGB, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC2_RGB, GL_CONSTANT); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND2_RGB, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_ALPHA, GL_INTERPOLATE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_ALPHA, GL_PREVIOUS); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_ALPHA, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC2_ALPHA, GL_CONSTANT); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND2_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); const float factor[] = { 0, 0, 0, blendFactor }; glTexEnvfv(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_COLOR, factor); This has the effect of the shader: gl_FragColor = mix(gl_Color * tex0, tex1, blendFactor); but I don't see how to module texture 1 by the color. Is there any way to have the color provided by a texture unit automatically modulated by the incoming primary color? Or any other way to do what I want that I'm missing? Multiple passes are definitely allowed, but they have to have the proper blend effect; I have glBlend(GL_ONE, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); enabled, so it can be tricky to get right with multiple passes.

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