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  • php request variables assigning $_GEt

    - by chris
    if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

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  • How to use the FindControl function to find a dynamically generated control?

    - by Abe Miessler
    I have a PlaceHolder control inside of a ListView that I am using to render controls from my code behind. The code below adds the controls: TextBox tb = new TextBox(); tb.Text = quest.Value; tb.ID = quest.ShortName.Replace(" ", ""); ((PlaceHolder)e.Item.FindControl("ph_QuestionInput")).Controls.Add(tb); I am using the following code to retrieve the values that have been entered into the TextBox: foreach (ListViewDataItem di in lv_Questions.Items) { int QuestionId = Convert.ToInt32(((HiddenField)di.FindControl("hf_QuestionId")).Value); Question quest = dc.Questions.Single(q => q.QuestionId == QuestionId); TextBox tb = ((TextBox)di.FindControl(quest.ShortName.Replace(" ",""))); //tb is always null! } But it never finds the control. I've looked at the source code for the page and the control i want has the id: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_Numberofacres For some reason when I look at the controls in the ListViewDataItem it has the ClientID: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_ctl00 Why would it be changing Numberofacres to ctl00? Is there any way to work around this? UPDATE: Just to clarify, I am databinding my ListView in the Page_Init event. I then create the controls in the ItemBound event for my ListView. But based on what @Womp and MSDN are saying the controls won't actually be created until after the Load event (which is after the Page_Init event) and therefore are not in ViewState? Does this sound correct? If so am I just SOL when it comes to retrieving the values in my dynamic controls from my OnClick event?

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  • Load In and Animate content

    - by crozer
    Hello, I have a little issue concerning an animation-effect which loads a certain div into the body of the site. Let me be more precise: I have a div with the id 'contact': <div id="contact">content</div> The jquery code loads the contents within that div, when I press the link with the id 'ajax_contact': <a href="#" id="ajax_contact">link</a>. The code is working perfectly. However, I want #contact to be HIDDEN when the site loads, i.e. the default state must be non-visible. Only when the user clicks the link #ajax_contact, the div must appear. Please have a look at the jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#ajax_contact').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #contact'; $('#contact').load(toLoad) } }); $('#ajax_contact').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #contact'; $('#contact').hide('fast',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('body').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadContent() { $('#contact').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#contact').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); }); I am not sure whether I must change something inside the HTML, but I believe the key is inside the jquery-code. I also tried giving the #contact a CSS style of visible:none, yet this loops and makes the jquery impossible to load the #contact in. I hope I've explained myself well; thank you very much in advance. Chris

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  • Prevent Javascript Execution in JQuery html()

    - by Mahan
    well i do have a div that contains some more html and a lot of javascript on it <div id="mydiv"> <p>Hello Philippines</p> my first time in Philippines is nice <script type="text/javascript">alert("how was it became nice?");</script> well i experienced a lot of things <script type="text/javascript">alert("and how about your Japan's trip?");</script> well its more nicer ^^ but both countries are good! hahah </div> now what i want there is to put the non-javascript code and javascript code in two separate variables var html = $("#mydiv").html(); but my problem here is my javascript is executing..which makes me stop to create the code i want which is the storing of javascript and non-javascript to two different variables. now my questions is how can i stop the javascript codes from executing when they are get inside the div? how can i store the javascript and non-javascript code into two different variables safely? NOTE: i need the stored javascript for later execution

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  • HELP Retrieving the url parameter from a JSON store from a EXTJS ComboBox

    - by Newbie
    I am having a problem retrieving the parameters from the url section of a json store for a combobox in EXTJS from my code behind page in c#. The following is the code in the store: var ColorStore = new Ext.data.JsonStore( { autoLoad: true, url: '/proxies/ReturnJSON.aspx?view=rm_colour_view', root: 'Rows', fields: ['company', 'raw_mat_col_code', 'raw_mat_col_desc'] }); And the following code is in my code behind page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string jSonString = ""; connectionClass.connClass func = new connectionClass.connClass(); DataTable dt = func.getDataTable("sELECT * from rm_colour_view"); //Response.Write(Request.QueryString["view"]); string w = Request.Params.Get("url"); string z = Request.Params.Get("view"); string x = Request.Params.Get("view="); string c = Request.Params.Get("?view"); string s = Request.QueryString.Get("view"); string d = Request.Params["?view="]; string f = Request.Form["ColorStore"]; jSonString = Serialize(dt); Response.Write(jSonString); } The string w has gives the following output: /proxies/ReturnJSON.aspx but all the others strings return null... How can rm_colour_view from the datastore then be retrived??? Any help would be appreciated! Thanks

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  • Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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  • Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

    - by Dave
    I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

    - by Sri Kumar
    Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

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  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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  • iPhone app. Creating a custom UIView that contains UITextField and UIButton.

    - by Dmitry Burchik
    Hi all. I am new to iPhone programming. And I have an issue. I need to create a custom user control that I will add to my UIScrollView dinamically. The control has an UITextField and an UIButton. See the code below: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface FieldWithValueControl : UIView { UITextField *txtTagName; UIButton *addButton; } @property (nonatomic, readonly) UITextField *txtTagName; @property (nonatomic, readonly) UIButton *addButton; @end #import "FieldWithValueControl.h" #define ITEM_SPACING 10 #define ITEM_HEIGHT 20 #define SWITCHBOX_WIDTH 100 #define SCREEN_WIDTH 320 #define ITEM_FONT_SIZE 14 #define TEXTBOX_WIDTH 150 @implementation FieldWithValueControl @synthesize txtTagName; @synthesize addButton; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code txtTagName = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, TEXTBOX_WIDTH, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; txtTagName.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; addButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeContactAdd]; [addButton setFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING + TEXTBOX_WIDTH, 0, ITEM_HEIGHT, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; [addButton addTarget:self action:@selector(addButtonTouched:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:txtTagName]; [self addSubview:addButton]; } return self; } - (void)addButtonTouched:sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton*)sender; NSString *title = [button titleLabel].text; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code } - (void)dealloc { [txtTagName release]; [addButton release]; [super dealloc]; } @end In my code I create an object of that class and add it to scrollView on form. FieldWithValueControl *newTagControl = (FieldWithValueControl*)[[FieldWithValueControl alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING, currentOffset + ITEM_SPACING, 0, 0)]; [scrollView addSubview:newTagControl]; The control looks fine, but if I click to the textbox or to the button nothing happens. Keyboard doesn't appear, the button is not clickable etc.

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  • Write file need to optimised for heavy traffic part 2

    - by Clayton Leung
    For anyone interest to see where I come from you can refer to part 1, but it is not necessary. write file need to optimised for heavy traffic Below is a snippet of code I have written to capture some financial tick data from the broker API. The code will run without error. I need to optimize the code, because in peak hours the zf_TickEvent method will be call more than 10000 times a second. I use a memorystream to hold the data until it reaches a certain size, then I output it into a text file. The broker API is only single threaded. void zf_TickEvent(object sender, ZenFire.TickEventArgs e) { outputString = string.Format("{0},{1},{2},{3},{4}\r\n", e.TimeStamp.ToString(timeFmt), e.Product.ToString(), Enum.GetName(typeof(ZenFire.TickType), e.Type), e.Price, e.Volume); fillBuffer(outputString); } public class memoryStreamClass { public static MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); } void fillBuffer(string outputString) { byte[] outputByte = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(outputString); memoryStreamClass.ms.Write(outputByte, 0, outputByte.Length); if (memoryStreamClass.ms.Length > 8192) { emptyBuffer(memoryStreamClass.ms); memoryStreamClass.ms.SetLength(0); memoryStreamClass.ms.Position = 0; } } void emptyBuffer(MemoryStream ms) { FileStream outStream = new FileStream("c:\\test.txt", FileMode.Append); ms.WriteTo(outStream); outStream.Flush(); outStream.Close(); } Question: Any suggestion to make this even faster? I will try to vary the buffer length but in terms of code structure, is this (almost) the fastest? When memorystream is filled up and I am emptying it to the file, what would happen to the new data coming in? Do I need to implement a second buffer to hold that data while I am emptying my first buffer? Or is c# smart enough to figure it out? Thanks for any advice

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  • Partial class or "chained inheritance"

    - by Charlie boy
    Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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  • Difference in behaviour (GCC and Visual C++)

    - by Prasoon Saurav
    Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives a segmentation fault on Linux (IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows (IDE used: Visual C++) it doesn't. When I used Valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used Visual C++? Am I missing something?

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  • Limit CPU usage of a process

    - by jb
    I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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  • What pattern is layered architecture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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  • Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

    - by cc0
    Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

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  • wrap from last screen to first screen in android Launcher2

    - by poboy975
    hi, I'm learning java and android. and I've been looking at trying to wrap the last screen to the first screen in the android Launcher2. I've tried googleing, and searching here, but there really isnt much information about the launcher2 source...I've been modifying the workspace.java file, but there has been minimal effect. no wrap around so far...I have not been able to find a .xml file that also might control the hard stop when you reach the end of the screens. I'll give a small example of the code that i have been modifying. original code: public void scrollRight() { clearVacantCache(); if (mNextScreen == INVALID_SCREEN && mCurrentScreen < getChildCount() -1 && mScroller.isFinished()) { snapToScreen(mCurrentScreen + 1); } modified code: public void scrollRight() { clearVacantCache(); if (mNextScreen == INVALID_SCREEN && mCurrentScreen < getChildCount() -1 && mScroller.isFinished()) { snapToScreen(mCurrentScreen + 1); }if (mCurrentScreen == getChildCount() -1 && mScroller.isFinished()) { snapToScreen(0); I would appreciate any tips or pointers if anyone has an idea where i'm going wrong, or someplace i can search to get the answers. the code looks to me like it should work, but I'm probably missing something obvious.

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • starting rails in test environment

    - by Brian D.
    I'm trying to load up rails in the test environment using a ruby script. I've tried googling a bit and found this recommendation: require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' This seems to load up my environment alright, but my development database is still being used. Am I doing something wrong? Here is my database.yml file... however I don't think it is the issue development: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_development pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_test pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost production: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_production pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost I can't use ruby script/server -e test because I'm trying to run ruby code after I load rails. More specifically what I'm trying to do is: run a .sql database script, load up rails and then run automated tests. Everything seems to be working fine, but for whatever reason rails seems to be loading in the development environment instead of the test environment. Here is a shortened version of the code I am trying to run: system "execute mysql script here" require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' describe Blog do it "should be initialized successfully" do blog = Blog.new end end I don't need to start a server, I just need to load my rails code base (models, controllers, etc..) so I can run tests against my code. Thanks for any help.

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  • Difference in behaviour( gcc and MSVC++ )

    - by Prasoon Saurav
    Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives segmentation fault on Linux(IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows(IDE used : MSVC++) it doesn't. When I used valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used MSVC++? Am I missing something?

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  • http post request with cross-origin in javascript

    - by Calamarico
    i have a problem with a http post call in firefox. I know that when there are a cross origin, firefox first do a OPTIONS before the POST to know the access-control-allow headers. With this code i dont have any problem: Net.requestSpeech.prototype.post = function(url, data) { if(this.xhr != null) { this.xhr.open("POST", url); this.xhr.onreadystatechange = Net.requestSpeech.eventFunction; this.xhr.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json; charset=utf-8"); this.xhr.send(data); } } I test this code with a simple html that invokes this function. Everything is ok and i have the response of the OPTIONS and POST, and i process the response. But, i'm trying to integrate this code with an existen application with uses jquery (i dont know if this is a problem), when the send(data) executes in this case, the browser (firefox) do the same, first do a OPTION request, but in this case dont receive the response of the server and puts this message in console: [18:48:13.529] OPTIONS http://localhost:8111/ [undefined 31ms] Undefined... the undefined is because dont receive the response, but the code is the same, i dont know why in this case the option dont receive the response, someone have an idea? i debug my server app and the OPTIONS arrive ok to the server, but it seems like the browser dont wait to the response. edit more later: ok i think that the problem is when i run with a simple html with a SCRIPT tag that invokes the method who do the request run ok, but in this app that dont receive the response, i have a form that do a onsubmit event, i think that the submit event returns very fast and the browser dont have time to get the OPTIONS request. edit more later later: WTF, i resolve the problem make the POST request to sync: this.xhr.open("POST", url, false); The submit reponse very quickly and can't wait to the OPTION response of the browser, any idea to this?

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  • How to make DataGrid Row really fully selectable (clicking on non-cell area)

    - by Samuel
    The question might be a little misleading. Here is a screenshot of a DataGrid that has some dummy values (code provided below) Is there a way to make the white area not covered by a cell clickable? My intention: I want to have full row selection. This can be achieved by SelectionUnit="FullRow" which is fine but how can I make the white area implicitly select the entire row without expanding available cells in width and avoiding code behind Here is the repro code: Xaml: <Window x:Class="DGVRowSelectTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Names}" SelectionMode="Single" SelectionUnit="FullRow" > </DataGrid> </Window> Dummy Code behind of it (just sets the two entries up) using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace DGVRowSelectTest { public partial class MainWindow : Window { private IList<KeyValuePair<string, string>> _names = new List<KeyValuePair<string, string>>{new KeyValuePair<string, string>("A1", "A2"),new KeyValuePair<string, string>("B1","B2")}; public IList<KeyValuePair<string, string>> Names{get { return _names; }set { _names = value; }} public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } } }

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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